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Nursing N368 Pharmacology I > N368 Chapters 30-34 Additional Practice Questions > Flashcards

N368 Chapters 30-34 Additional Practice Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

The nurse is preparing to give a patient in renal failure an injection of diuril. In regards to normal dosage, what dose should this patient receive?
A. The patient should receive the average dose
B. The Patient should receive higher than the average dose
C. The patient should receive less than the normal dose
D. The patients dose will be determined by their weight

A

C

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2
Q 
What diagnostic test is the most commonly used and most useful for diagnosing renal failure?
A: Urinalysis
B: Serum Creatinine
C: Biopsy
D: Diagnostic Imaging
A

B

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3
Q 
A patient has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure. The nurse understands that this patient most likely has a history of 
A: Diabetes Mellitus
B: Hypertension
C: Hypotension
D: Both A and B
A

D

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4
Q 
Acute renal failure is caused by hypoperfusion. The nurse understands that which of the following contribute to this?
(Select all that apply)
A: Heart Failure
B: Diabetes Mellitus
C: Arrhythmias
D: Hemmorhage
E: Dehydration
A

A C D E

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5
Q 
Which of the following therapies are used to treat renal failure? (Select all that apply)
A: Diuretic
B: Cardiovascular Drugs
C: Dietary Management
D: Exercise
A

A B C

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6
Q 
What drug is commonly used to treat anemia associated with renal failure?
A: Procrit
B: Diuril
C: Aldactone
D: None of these
A

A

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7
Q 
How is hyperkalemia usually treated?
A: Procrit
B: Dietary Restriction
C: Aldactone
D: None of these
A

B

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8
Q 
What drug is used to treat metabolic acidosis?
A: Sodium Bicarb
B: Magnesium Sulfate
C: Diuril
D: Alka Seltzer
A

A

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9
Q 
It is widely understood that diuretics treat renal failure but they are also used to treat which of the following disorders?
A: Hypertension
B: Heart Failure
C: Kidney Failure
D: Liver Failure
E: Edema
A

A B C D E

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10
Q 
Which of the following are adverse effects of Diuretics?
A: Fluid and Electrolyte Disturbances
B: Dehydration
C: Orthostatic Hypotension
D: Heart Failure
A

A B C

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11
Q

What are the four classes of diuretics?

A

Loop
Thiazide
Postassium Sparing
Misc

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12
Q 
Which of the following drugs belong to the strongest and most effective group of diuretics?
A: Bumex
B: Diuril
C: Microzide
D: Midamor
A

A

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13
Q 
The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of Lasix to a patient. The nurse understands that which of the following is a serious adverse effect of drugs in the loop diuretic class?
A: Coma
B: Hyperglycemia
C: Nausea
D: Circulatory Collapse
A

D

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14
Q

What baseline information must be gathered for a patient taking loop and thiazide diuretics? (Select all that apply)
A: Lab Values (especially Potassium and Sodium)
B: Urinary Output
C: BUN and Creatinine
D: Glucose
E: Hgb and HcT
F: Uric Acid

A

A B C D F

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18
Q

D: None of the above statements report adequate teachig”

A

A

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22
Q

D” You can decided”

A

B

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23
Q

How does the drug torsemide compare to Lasix?
A: It is 40 times stronger than lasix
B: It has a longer half life than lasix
C: It treats treats hypertension and lasix does not
D: None of the above

A

B

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24
Q

How does the drug bumex compare to lasix?
A: It is 40 times stronger than lasix
B: It has a longer half life than lasix
C: It treats treats hypertension and lasix does not
D: None of the above

A

A

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25
Q 
What is the largest and most commonly prescribed class of diuretics?
A: Loop
B: Thiazide
C: Potassium Sparing
D: Misc
A

B

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26
Q

The drug Diuril has been precribed for a patient suffering from severe renal failure. Why should this alert the nurse?
A: This drug can not be prescribe to a patient who is suffering from any type of renal failure
B: This drug can not treat severe renal failure
C: There should be no cause for concern about giving the patient diuril
D: Diuril has been taken off the market

A

B

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27
Q 
What is the correct dose for an IV dose of the drug Diuril?
A: 0.5g/10 minutes
B: 0.5g/7 minutes
C: 0.5g/5 minutes
D: 0.7g / 7 minutes
A

C

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28
Q 
If a patient is given the PO version of diuril, when should it be taken?
A: A night before bed
B: In the morning
C: In the afternoon
D: None of the above
A

B

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29
Q 
Which of the following should be avoided if you are taking the drug diuril?(select all that apply)
A: Licorice
B: Garlic
C: Gingko
D: Hawthorn
A

A B D

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30
Q 
Zaroxolyn belongs to which class of diuretics?
A: Loop
B: Potassium Sparing
C: Thiazide 
D: Misc
A

C

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31
Q

If thiazide diuretics are used with Digoxin, what may happen?
A: There may be a decreased potassium level in the patient
B: There may be an increased potassium level
C: There could be toxicity

A

B

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32
Q

If thiazide diuretics are used with Lithium, what may happen?
A: There may be a decreased potassium level in the patient
B: There may be an increased potassium level
C: There could be toxicity

A

C

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33
Q

The patient taking thiazide diuretics should be educated about the use of
A: Water as an increased fluid in their diet
B: Not to take potassium supplements
C: Use of sunscreen
D: Medications to decrease joint pain

A

C

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34
Q 
Which of the following symptoms may indicate that the patient is suffering from hypokalemia? (Select all that apply)
A: Muscle weakness
B: Muscle cramps
C: Abdominal Pain
D: Jaundice
A

A B

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35
Q

A patient taking thiazide diuretics can take potassium supplements. True or False

A

TRUE

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36
Q

In regards to glucose control a patient taking thiazide diuretics should be aware of the possiblity of developing
A: Hypoglycemia
B: Hyperglycemia
C: There should not be a concern about glucose control
D: None of the above

A

B

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37
Q 
If a patient is taking potassium sparing diuretics they should not eat or drink which of the following?(Select all that apply)
A: Banannas 
B: Orange Juice
C: Grapefruit Juice
D: Lettuce
A

A B

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38
Q

Which of the following are adverse effects of potassium sparing diuretics that either a male or female may wish to be aware of?(select all that apply)
A: Gynecomastic
B: Ammenorhea
C: Impotence
D: None of these are adverse effects of potassium sparing diuretics

A

A B C

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39
Q 
Midamor belongs to which class of diuretics?
A: Loop 
B: Thiazide
C: Potassium Sparing
D. Misc
A

C

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40
Q 
Aldactone belongs to which class of diuretics?
A: Loop
B: Thiazide
C: Potassium Sparing
D: Misc
A

C

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41
Q 
What should be assessed before giving a patient a potassium sparing diuretic?(Select all that apply)
A: Electrolytes
B: Glucose
C: BUN
D: Creatinine
A

A B D

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42
Q 
If aldactone (spironolactone) is used with Ace Inhibitors what can this cause?
A: Hypokalemia
B: Hyperkalemia
C: Hypernatremia
D: Hyponatremia
A

B

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43
Q 
Aldactone should be taken with 
A: Food
B: Grapefruit juice
C: Orange Juice
D: Banannas
A

A

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44
Q

True or false a patient taking potassium sparing diuretics can take potassium supplements?

A

FALSE

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45
Q

True or False if potassium sparing diuretics with lithium and digoxin toxicity can occur.

A

TRUE

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46
Q

A Patient taking potassium sparing diuretics should understand that
A: They should use sunscreen
B: They should take potassium supplements
C: They should increase their intake of potassium

A

A

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47
Q 
Diamox is a diuretic but it is also used to treat
A: Intracranial Swelling
B: Glaucoma
C: CVA
D: Hypokalemia
A

B

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48
Q 
Manitol is used to treat 
A: Intracranial Swelling
B: Glaucoma
C: CVA
D: Hypokalemia
A

A

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49
Q

For any type of diuretic therapy you must get some baseline information. What is that information?

A

Weight, Vital Signs especially blood pressure and pulse, breath sounds, Cardiac Monitoring with an ECG

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50
Q

What is the best beverage for a patient on diuretic therapy?

A

Plain Water

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51
Q

What are the signs of Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Polydypsia and Polyphagia

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52
Q

What is essential for hemostasis?

A

Water balance

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53
Q

IV therapy is indicated for

A

Body fluids
Electrolytes
Acid - Base

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54
Q

Where sodium goes

A

water goes

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55
Q

Hypertonic solution

A

water moves from interstial space to plasma

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56
Q

Hypotonic Solution

A

Water moves from plasma to interstitial space

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57
Q

Isotonic solution

A

No fluid shift

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58
Q

What is the most important regulator of fluid intake?

A

Thirst

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59
Q

What regulates fluid output?

A

Kidneys

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60
Q

If there is a defecit in fluid balance what is used to treat this?

A

Oral or IV fluids

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61
Q

if there is an excess in fluid balance what is used to treat this?

A

Diuretics

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62
Q

When giving IV fluid therapy what is used?

A

Crystalloids and Colloids

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63
Q 
Which of the following are all ways that we lose water and electrolytes?(Select all that apply)
A: Suctioning
B: Vomiting
C: Diarrhea
D: Laxatives
E: GI fluid Loss
A

A B C D E

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64
Q

Crystalloids contain

A

Electrolytes

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65
Q 
Which of the following are examples of crystalloids? (Select all that apply)
A: Normal Saline
B: Lactated Ringers
C: Albumin
D: D5W
A

A B D

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66
Q 
Which of the following are examples of colloids? (Select all that apply)
A: Dextran
B: Hetastarch
C: Albumin
D: Lactated Ringers
A

A B C

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67
Q 
A person taking colloids should have their Hct monitored. When should a measurement be reported?
A: Hct below 50 %
B: Hct below 70%
C: HCT below 30 %
D: HCT does not have to be reported
A

C

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68
Q 
When administering IV fluid replacement it is essential that you monitor for
A: Fluid depletion
B: Fluid Overload
C: Fluid Excess
D: All of the above
A

D

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69
Q 
Dextran 40 is used to treat which of the following?
A: Hypovolemic Shock
B: Cardiac Shock
C: Neurogenic Shock
D: Anaphylactic Shock
A

A

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70
Q 
What are the symptoms of fluid volume overload?(Select all that apply)
A: tachy
B: Pulmonary edema
C: Distended neck veins
D: Dyspnea
E: Cough
F: HTN
A

A B C D E F

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71
Q

Electrolytes are essential for

A

Nerve conduction
Membrane permeability
Water balance

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72
Q 
What is the normal level of calcium
A: 4-11
B: 95 -112
C: 0.5 -4
D: 1-6
A

A

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73
Q 
What is the normal level of chloride
A: 4-11
B: 95 -112
C: 0.5 -4
D: 1-6
A

B

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74
Q 
What is the normal level of magnesium?
A: 4-11
B: 95 -112
C: 0.5 -4
D: 1-6
A

C

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75
Q 
What is the normal level of phosphate?
A: 4-11
B: 95 -112
C: 0.5 -4
D: 1-6
A

D

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76
Q 
What is the normal level of potassium?
A: 3.5 - 5
B: 135 -45
C: 4-11
D: 0.5 -4
A

A

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77
Q 
What is the normal level of Sodium?
A: 3.5 - 5
B: 135 -45
C: 4-11
D: 0.5 -4
A

B

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78
Q 
What is the most common cause of hypernatremia?
A: Liver failure
B: Kidney Disease
C: Heart Failure
D: Fluid loss
A

B

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79
Q

High doses of what drugs can cause hypernatremia?

A

gluccocoritcoids and estrogens

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80
Q

How do we treat hypernatremia?

A

Low salt diet

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81
Q 
What is the most common cause of hyponatremia?
A: Decrease in antidiuretic hormone
B: Excess antidiuretic hormone
C: Vomiting
D: None of the above
A

B

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82
Q 
How do we treat hyponatremia?(Select all that apply)
A: loops
B: Normal Saline
C: Lactated Riingers
D: Albumin
A

A B C

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83
Q 
When the level of sodium falls below 130 what is used to treat?
A: Sodium bicarb
B: Sodium Chloride
C: Lactated Ringers
D: Albumin
A

B

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84
Q

Potassium imbalances can be

A

fatal

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85
Q

Hyperkalemia becomes a risk when a patient is taking

A

Potassium sparing diuretics

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86
Q

How do we treat hyperkalemia? (Select all that apply)
A: Decrease K Sparing Diuretics
B: Gluocose and insulin
C: Calcium to stop toxicity on the heart
D: Kayexalate and Sorbitol

A

A B C D

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87
Q 
How do we treat hypokalemia? (Select all that apply)
A: Increase dietary intake of potassium
B: Oral K supplements
C: Parenteral K Supplements
D: K chloride
A

A B C D

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88
Q

Never give potassium IV

A

Push

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89
Q

What is the normal Ph balance?

A

7.35 - 7.45

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90
Q

Respiratory acidosis is caused by

A

hypoventilation

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91
Q

Metabolic Acidosis is caused by

A 
severe diarrhea
Kidney failure
DM
Excess alcohol intake
Starvation
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92
Q 
How do we treat metabolic acidosis?
A: Potassium chloride
B: Sodium Chloride
C: Sodium Bicarb
D: None of the above
A

C

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93
Q

What are the respiratory causes of alkalosis?

A

hyperventilation

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94
Q

What are the metabolic causes of alkalosis?

A

constipation
Excess sodium bicarb
K wasting diuretics
Severe vomiting

95
Q

How do we treat Alkalosis in severe cases?

A

Amonium chloride

96
Q

How do we treat alkalosis in mild cases?

A

sodium and potassium chloride

97
Q

What baseline information should be gathered for IV fluid replacement?

A

Weight
Vital signs
LOC
Urinary Output

98
Q 
A patient taking IV fluid replacement should avoid
A: Grapefruit
B: Oranges
C: Alcohol
D: Diuretics
A

C

99
Q

If a person has hypokalemia what should be increased?

A

fresh fruits and other foods high in potassium

100
Q

If a person has hyperkalemia what should be decreased?

A

K based salt subsitutes and other foods high in potassium`

101
Q

What type of defense is inflammation?

A

non-specific

102
Q

Acute inflammation lasts

A

8-10 days

103
Q

Chronic inlfammation lasts

A

months or years

104
Q 
What are the signs of inflamation? (Select all that apply)
A; Swelling
B: Warmth
C: Pain
D: Redness
E: Bruising
A

A B C D

105
Q 
What is the chemical mediator of inflammation?
A: Bradykinin
B: Histamine
C: Prostaglandins
D: Complement system
A

B

106
Q

H1 receptors are located in the

A

bronchi

107
Q

H2 receptors are located in the

A

stomach

108
Q 
How do we treat inflammation that is mild? (Select all that apply)
A: Ice packs
B: Rest
C: topical agents
D: Reduce Fever
A

A B C D

109
Q

What are the primary drugs used to treat mild to moderate inflammation?

A

NSAID’s

110
Q

Tylenol is not an

A

NSAID

111
Q

Aspirin causes GI upset so it should be taken with

A

food

112
Q

Aspirin can cause

A

tinnitus

113
Q

Cox 2 inhibitors are the most _______ version of drugs for inflammation and fever.

A

controversial

114
Q

What is the most common Side effect of Ibuprofen?

A

nausea and vomiting

115
Q

Vioxx has been shown to

A

double the risk of heart attack or stroke

116
Q

What is the only remaining drug in the cox 2 class?

A

celebrex

117
Q

What is the max dose daily for Ibuprofen?

A

3200 mg

118
Q

What should be routinely monitored when taking ibuprofen?

A

blood tests

119
Q

What are used to treat severe inflammation?

A

glucocorticoids

120
Q

What is naturally released by the adrenal cortex

A

glucocoritcoids

121
Q

In regards to vision are are some adverse effects of glucocoritcoids?

A

cataracts

122
Q

In regards to bone function what are some adverse effects of glucocorticoids?

A

osteoporosis

123
Q

When a patient stops taking glucocorticoids how should they be discontinued?

A

gradually

124
Q

The dose of glucocorticoids should remain as ____ as possible

A

low

125
Q

What type of dosing schedule should be used with glucocorticoids?

A

alternate day dosing

126
Q

What is the most serious adverse effect of prednisone?

A

cushings syndrome

127
Q 
What herbal medications should be avoided when taking prednisone? (Select all that apply)
A: St. Johns Wort
B: Licorice
C: Buckthorn
D: Senna
A

A B C D

128
Q

What type of tylenol should an infant be given?

A

infant drops

129
Q

If african americans take tylenol what can they develop?

A

hemolysis

130
Q

What can not be taken with tylenol concurrently?

A

warfarin

131
Q

What shouldn’t a person drink if they are taking tylenol?

A

alcohol

132
Q

Bascillus anthracis causes

A

anthrax

133
Q

Borellia Burgdoferri cuases

A

lyme disease

134
Q

Trichamonas causes

A

chlamydia

135
Q

E coli causes

A

travelers diarrhea, UTI and childrens menigitis

136
Q

Haemophilus

A

pneuomia

137
Q

Klebsellia causes

A

pneumonia and UTI

138
Q

Mycobacterium Leprae causes

A

Leprosy

139
Q

Mycobaterium Tuberculosis causes

A

TB

140
Q

Mycoplasma Pneumoniae

A

Pneumonia

141
Q

Nessiria Menigitis causes

A

meningitis in children

142
Q

Rickettsia causes

A

rocky mountain spotted fever

143
Q

Staph Aureus causes

A

impetigo

144
Q

A Bacterialcidal drug will

A

kill bacteria

145
Q

A bacteriostatic drug will

A

slow bacteria growth

146
Q

Antibiotics should only be prescribed when

A

necessary

147
Q

Nosocomial infections

A

hospital acquired

148
Q 
When giving a penicillin drug a nurse should monitor for
A: Hypernatremia and Hyperkalemia
B: Hyponatremia and Hypokalemia
C: Hyponatremia
D: Hypokalemia
A

A

149
Q

A student nurse is preparing and injection of penicillin for a patient. The patient has also be prescribed an Aminoglycoside. The student nurse begins to mix the two together. What should be the correct intervention from the student nurses instructor?
A: The instructor should teach the student nurse how to mix the two medications
B: The instructor should stop the student from mixing the medications as they can not be put in the same solution
C: The instructor should not intervene

A

B

150
Q 
Penicillin is effective in treating which of the following disorders? (Select all that apply)
A: Gonhorrea
B: Syphillis
C: CVA
D: All infections
A

A B

151
Q

A female patient has been given the drug penicillin. She is also taking oral contraceptives. What should the nurse tell her? (Select all that apply)
A: Use an alternate form of birth control
B: do not take the contraceptives and penicillin concurrently
C: IM injections of birth control are more effective when you are taking penicillin
D: Penicillin will not effect oral contraceptives

A

A

152
Q 
When giving cephalasporins a nurse must asess for which of the following?
A: Edema
B: Hypertension
C: Bleeding
D: None of these
A

C

153
Q

In regards to organ function what should be monitored for the patient taking cephalasporins?

A

renal and hepatic function

154
Q

When giving the drug cloforan these injections must be given
A: IM into a small muscle
B: IM into a large muscle
C: Never give a cloforan injection

A

B

155
Q

Cloforan treats
A: Respiratory infections
B: Gonhorrea
C: Syphillis

A

A

156
Q

When are tetracyclines contraindicated?
A: Pregnancy and Lactation
B: 3rd trimester of pregnancy
C: 2nd trimester of pregnancy

A

A

157
Q

Tetracyclines effect what type of medication

A

oral contraceptives

158
Q 
What should not be taken with tetracyclines? (Select all that apply)
A: Milk
B: Magnesium Laxatives
C: Iron
D: Antacids
A

A B C D

159
Q

Tetracycline should be taken with

A

a full glass of water

160
Q

When taking a tetracycine you should wait________ hours before you take an antacid?

A

1-3 hours

161
Q

When taking a tetracycline you should wait ________ hours before you take antilipidemics?

A

2 hours before or after

162
Q 
Tetracyclines can treat which of the following? (select all that apply)
A: Clamydia
B: Rickettsia
C: Mycoplasma
D: TB
A

A B C

163
Q

When giving a patient a macrolide you should assess for
A :Respiratory infections and Cardiac disorders
B: Respiratory infection
C: Cardiac Disorders
D: STD’s

A

A

164
Q

You should give a PO version of a macrolide on an

A

empty stomach with a full glass of water

165
Q

Macrolides should not be given before or after drinking a

A

fruit juice

166
Q

What herbal medication should avoided when taking macrolides

A

St. John’s Wort

167
Q 
Emycin can treat
A: Most gram positive bacteria
B: Diptheria
C: Whooping Cough
D: All of the above
A

D

168
Q 
When giving an aminoglycoside you should monitor for
A: Ototoxicity
B: Nephrotoxicity
C: Tinnitus
D: All of the above
A

D

169
Q 
A nurse should understand that an aminoglycoside may cause 
A: nuromuscular dysfunction
B: Cataracts
C: Blood Dyscrasias
D: Pregnancy
A

A

170
Q

When giving Gentamicin IM the drug should be given into a

A

large muscle

171
Q

A solution of gentamicin must be

A

clear and colorless

172
Q

If the serum level is above 5-10mcg/mL gentamicin must be

A

withheld

173
Q

Gentamicin drops are available for

A

eye infections

174
Q

You should monior the _______ blood count when giving fluroquinolones.

A

White

175
Q

A client who has renal or liver dysfunction and is taking fluroquinolones should be

A

monitored

176
Q

Noroxan can cause
A: Photosensivity
B: Sunburns
C: Photophobia

A

C

177
Q

Cipro must be given at least ______ hours before antacids and iron

A

4

178
Q 
Caffeine and dairy should be limited when taking
A: fluroquinolones
B: Aminoglycosides
C: Loop Diuretics
D: None of the above
A

A

179
Q 
When giving sulfonamides you sould assess for
A: Renal Function
B: Anemia
C: Gout
D: All of the above
A

D

180
Q

Sulfonamides can cause what serious skin disorder?

A

SJS

181
Q

Sulfunamides that are PO should be taken with

A

full glass of water

182
Q

What supplements can not be taken with sulfonamides?

A

Potassium

183
Q

AntiTB medications are contraindicated in

A

alcoholics, AIDS, liver disease and kidney failure

184
Q

If you give an antiTB medication you should assess for
A: Gouty arthritis
B: Pregnancy
C: STDs

A

A

185
Q

A patient taking an AntiTB should be told to use _______ form of birth control.

A

Alternate

186
Q

What is the drug of choice for TB?

A

INH

187
Q

If a patient is taking INH, what foods should be avoided?

A

Tryamine containing foods

188
Q

Multidrug thereapy is used to treat TB, how long does therapy usually last?

A

6-12 months

189
Q 
Cleomicin treats
A: H. Pylori
B: Oral infection
C: MRSA
D: skin infections
A

B

190
Q 
Flagyl treats
A: H. Pylori
B: Oral infection
C: MRSA
D: skin infections
A

A

191
Q 
Vancomycin treats
A: H. Pylori
B: Oral infection
C: MRSA
D: skin infections
A

C

192
Q 
Cubicin treats
A: H. Pylori
B: Oral Infection
C: MRSA
D: Skin Infections
A

D

193
Q

What is the broadest spectrum antibiotic?

A

Primaxin

194
Q 
Ketex treats
A: H. Pylori
B: Oral Infections 
C: Resp Infections
D: Skin Infections
A

C

195
Q 
Tyscal treats
A: H. Pylori
B: oral infection
C: Abdominal Infection
D: Skin Infections
A

C

196
Q 
Haemophilus type B vaccine should be given at what ages (Select all that apply)
A: 2 months
B: 4 months
C: 6 months
D: 15 months 
E: 7 Years
A

A B C D

197
Q 
At what age should children receive the HEP B vaccine
A: 1-4 months and 6-18 months 
B: 2 and 4 years
C: 6 and 10 Years
D: 1-6 Months and 18-24 months
A

A

198
Q

Adult hepatitis vaccine should be given

A

in three doses the second 30 days after the first and the final dose 6 months after the first

199
Q

Children flu vaccine should be give in

A

2 doses one month apart

200
Q

Adult flu vaccine should be given

A

one time annually

201
Q

MMR should be given at what age

A

one dose 15 months

202
Q

Pneumovax should be give to children in

A

4 doses at 2 4 6 12 -15 months

203
Q

Adult pneumovax

A

one single dose

204
Q 
Poliovirus should be given at 
A: 4-8 weeks
B: 2-4 months 
C: 6-12 months 
D: All of the above
A

D

205
Q

Active immunity comes from

A

vaccines

206
Q

Passive immunities come from

A

mother to child and injection of antibodies

207
Q

BayRho should be given at

A

28 weeks

208
Q

Immunostiumlants

A

boost immune system

209
Q

Interferons

A

slow spread of viral infection

210
Q

Interlukins treat

A

metastatic renal carcinoma

211
Q

Corticosteroids suppress

A

immune response

212
Q

A patient taking immunosuppressants should avoid

A

crowds

213
Q

Calcereniun inhibitors treat

A

psoriasis

214
Q 
Simulect and Zanapax treat
A: rejection of organ transplants
B: Autoimmune disorders
C: Psoriasis
D: Inflammation
A

A

215
Q 
Remicade treats
A: rejection of organ transplants
B: Autoimmune disorders
C: Psoriasis
D: Inflammation
A

B

216
Q

If a patient is taking immunostimulants they should be well

A

hydrated

217
Q

Immunostimulants can cause
A: Sucidal ideation
B: Decrease in heart function
C: Muscle dysfunction

A

A

218
Q 
Immunosuppressants are contraindicated in
A:Leukemia
B:Metastatic cancer
C: Active infection
D: All of the above
A

D

219
Q

Thrombocytopenia and Leukopenia can be caused by

A

Immunosuppressants

220
Q

If a patient is taking imuran they should be monitored for
A: Secondary malignancies
B: Heart Failure
C: Kidney Failure

A

A

221
Q 
When giving Hep B vaccine what should you keep available?
A: Epinephrine 1- 10000
B: Epinephrine 1 - 1000
C: Regitine
D: None of the above
A

B

222
Q 
Cyclosporine is used for 
A: Prophylacis of organ transplant rejection
B: Heart Failure
C: Kidney Failure
D: None of the above
A

A

223
Q

What can not be taken with cyclosporine?
A: Lemonade
B: Grapefruit juice
C: Orange juice

A

B

224
Q

Calerenium inhibitors can cause
A: Ototoxicity
B: Nephrotoxicity
C: Autoimmune disorders

A

B

Nursing N368 Pharmacology I (16 decks)

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