Myelopathies, Radiculopathies, Neuropathies Flashcards

1
Q

The patient’s left eye is incapable of adduction and the right eye develops
nystagmus. What is it?
a. defect of N. abducensa
b. internuclear ophthalmoplegia
c. one and a half syndrome

A

b. internuclear ophthalmoplegia

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2
Q

In the case of n. abducens malfunction, the patient will:
a. rotating the head in the direction of the malfunction
b. rotate your head to the other side
c. lateral flexion of the head in the direction of the defects
d. lateral flexion of the head in the opposite direction

A

a. rotating the head in the direction of the malfunction

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3
Q

In glossopharyngeal neuralgia, it may be present:
a. Tearing
b. cataplexy
c. Syncope
d. runny nose

A

c. Syncope

Due to excessive activation of the vagal tone

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4
Q

The gentleman feels low back pain and paresthesias on the back of the thigh and
lateral side of the foot. He has no motor blackouts. What should we expect?
a. Positive Babinski
b. Altered Achilles reflex
c. accentuated patellar reflex

A

b. Altered Achilles reflex

Related to S1-S2 radiculopathy

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5
Q

Sudden loss of vision, pain in the eye area and colour vision impairment support
the diagnosis:
a. amaurosis fugax
b. embolism of the a.centralis retinae
c. occipital infarction
d. Optic neuritis
e. carotid/carotid fistula

A

d. Optic neuritis

Because of the pain, vascular aetiology excluded

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6
Q

Which medicine is used to treat trigeminal neuralgia?
a. antiepileptic
b. opiate
c. NSAID

A

a. antiepileptic

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7
Q

Persistent trigeminal neuralgia would be treated with :
a. radiofrequency thermocoagulation of the Gasserian ganglion
b. morphine
c. xylocaine patch
d. trigeminal nerve resection

A

a. radiofrequency thermocoagulation of the Gasserian ganglion

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8
Q

A middle-aged gentleman had acute back pain. He now experiences loss of
sensation and urinary and faecal incontinence. The most likely diagnosis?
a. cauda equine syndrome
b. tumour in the lumbosacral spinal cord
c. A-V epidural fistula in the lumbosacral spine

A

a. cauda equine syndrome

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9
Q

Perianal and genital anaesthesia, incontinence:
a. cauda equine syndrome
b. the other options were heavy nonsense and didn’t involve a cone &
epicone, which could confuse things

A

a. cauda equine syndrome

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10
Q

A man who cycles for a long time is likely to have compression:
a. N. obturatorius
b. N. pudendus
c. N. femoralis
d. N. ishiadicus
e. N. cutaneous femoris lateralis

A

b. N. pudendus

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11
Q

A woman who cycles for a long time is likely to have compression:
a. N. obturatorius
b. N. pudendus
c. N. femoralis
d. N. ishiadicus
e. N. cut. fem. lateralis

A

b. N. pudendus

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12
Q

What can cause a bump on the elbow?
a. The clawed hand

A

a. The clawed hand

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13
Q

Which brain nerve is most commonly affected by diabetes?
a. II.
b. III.
c. IX.
d. XII.

A

b. III.

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14
Q

A patient presents to the emergency neurology clinic with pain in the N.
ischiadicus area. What will you check/ask him/her?
a. Does it have problems with water drainage.

A

a. Does it have problems with water drainage.

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15
Q

37-year-old alcoholic - impaired wrist extension. Which nerve is damaged?
a. n. radialis
b. n.medianus
c. n. ulnaris
d. n. brachioradialis
e. n. musculocutaneus

A

a. n. radialis

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16
Q

Mr progressive hearing loss in the right ear. You put a fork in the middle of his
forehead, he hears better in the left ear. What’s wrong with him?
a. right-sided conductive hearing loss
b. right-sided sensorineural hearing loss
c. left-sided sensorineural hearing loss
d. left-sided conductive hearing loss
e. bilateral conductive hearing loss

A

b. right-sided sensorineural hearing loss

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17
Q

It does not cause foot drop:
a. motor cortex damage
b. L5 defect
c. peroneal failure
d. tibialis defect
e. okvara ishiadicusa

A

d. tibialis defect

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18
Q

Acute polyradiculitis will be treated with:
a. corticosteroids
b. cytostatics
c. human immunoglobulins
d. interferon beta

A

c. human immunoglobulins

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19
Q

Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) will be treated with:
a. corticosteroids
b. cytostatics
c. human immunoglobulins
d. interferon beta

A

a. corticosteroids

Interferonbeta only for MS

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20
Q

The predominantly sensory polyneuropathy will be at:
a. polyneuropathy in diphtheria
b. Guillain-Barre syndrome
c. lead poisoning
d. alcoholic polyneuropathy

A

d. alcoholic polyneuropathy

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21
Q

A treatment for neuropathic pain
is:
a. haloperidol
b. diazepam
c. amitriptyline
d. risperidone

A

c. amitriptyline

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22
Q

In polyneuropathy, monoclonal
gammopathy of undetermined
significance is most commonly
found in:
a. Anti-MAG antibodies
b. Anti-MOG antibodies
c. Anti-MBP antibodies
d. Anti-GM-1 antibodies

A

a. Anti-MAG antibodies

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23
Q

The most common hereditary motor
and sensory polyneuropathy is:
a. HMSN I
b. HMSN II
c. HMSN III
d. HSMN IV

A

a. HMSN I

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24
Q

Immunomodulatory treatments of choice in a patient with acute polyradiculitis are:
a. corticosteroids or human immunoglobulins
b. human immunoglobulins or plasmapheresis
c. plasmapheresis or cytostatics
d. cytostatics or interferon beta

A

b. human immunoglobulins or plasmapheresis

Autoimmune disease, so elimination of antibodies

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25
Q

Which diseases are affected by CIDP:
a. inflammatory bowel disease
b. chronic hepatitis
c. monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined cause
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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26
Q

Not so for alcoholic polyneuropathy:
a. slow progress
b. distal paresthesias and pain
c. is of the demyelinating type
d. reflexes extinguished

A

c. is of the demyelinating type

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27
Q

Miller-Fischer syndrome is a variant of acute polyradiculitis that is not characterised
by:
a. limb ataxia
b. tetraplegia
c. areflexia
d. outer eye muscle involvement

A

b. tetraplegia

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28
Q

Miller-Fischer syndrome:
a. ophthalmoplegia, reduced reflexes, ataxia
b. ophthalmoplegia, hyperreflexia, apraxia
c. ophthalmoplegia, normal reclef, apraxia
d. ophthalmoplegia, hyperreflexia, ataxia

A

a. ophthalmoplegia, reduced reflexes, ataxia

Variantof Guillan Barrè syndrome

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29
Q

A peripheral nerve biopsy will be most useful for:
a. vasculitic polyneuropathy
b. Hereditary sensory and motor neuropathies
c. acute polyradiculitis
d. diabetic polyneuropathy

A

a. vasculitic polyneuropathy

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30
Q

Asymmetric sensory atactic polyneuropathy is seen in:
a. Sjogren’s syndrome
b. diabetes
c. Alcoholism
d. davici

A

a. Sjogren’s syndrome

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31
Q

In which disease is neuropathy painless:
a. sarcoidosis
b. diabetes

A

b. diabetes

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32
Q

Treatment of orthostatic hypotension in diabetic autonomic neuropathy does not
include:
a. diuretics
b. salting
c. of a raised headrest
d. elasticated socks

A

a. diuretics

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33
Q

Not true for motor neuropathy with translation blocks:
a. asymmetric motor nerve impairment, usually starting in the hands
b. frequently positive anti-GM-1 antibodies
c. good response to treatment with human immunoglobulins
d. axonal involvement of peripheral nerves

A

d. axonal involvement of peripheral nerves

Demyelinating

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34
Q

Bilateral acute ophthalmoplegia occurs in all syndromes except:
a. Miller-Fisher syndrome
b. Guillain-Barré syndrome
c. granulomatous meningitis
d. pre-tectal infarction
e. Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

c. granulomatous meningitis

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35
Q

The GBS smear is:
a. Elevated protein concentration and normal cell count.

A

a. Elevated protein concentration and normal cell count.

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36
Q

A patient with a current sharp “knife-like” pain in her lower right jaw, which
occurs when brushing her teeth and feeding. It is most likely:
a. trigeminal neuralgia

A

a. trigeminal neuralgia

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37
Q

Which polyneuropathy are the nails affected with:
a. arsenic poisoning
b. Fabry disease
c. nodular polyarteritis
d. cryoglobulinaemia

A

a. arsenic poisoning

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38
Q

What would you not find in an EMG examination of axonal polyneuropathy?
a. significant slowdown in translation
b. absence of a sensory signal
c. reduced AP amplitude
d. signs of denervation in the muscle

A

a. significant slowdown in translation

Sign of demyelination

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39
Q

Which polyneuropathy is predominantly motor:
a. Guillain-Barré syndrome
b. alcoholic
c. diabetic
d. in monoclonal gammopathy of unclear significance

A

a. Guillain-Barré syndrome

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40
Q

What forms of peripheral nerve involvement are seen in diabetes:
a. distal sensory, predominantly axonal polyneuropathy
b. thoracic radiculopathy
c. monoparesis of the third cranial nerve
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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41
Q

Not true for acute polyradiculoneuritis :
a. symmetrical generalised involvement of proximal and distal muscle groups
b. generalised areflexia
c. autonomic dysfunction
d. the nerves of the brain are never affected

A

d. the nerves of the brain are never affected

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42
Q

In Miller-Fischer syndrome, antibodies are often present. Which ones?
a. anti-HU
b. anti-ganglioside
c. anti-gliadin
d. Anti-nuclear

A

b. anti-ganglioside

Same as GBS

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43
Q

Neuropathy is most likely to be expected in someone:
a. with a cockerel walk
b. with negative Romberg

A

a. with a cockerel walk

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44
Q

A man with sensory loss, then motor loss, spreading from his legs to his arms. Two
weeks earlier he had diarrhoea. Most likely:
a. Guillain-Barre syndrome.

A

a. Guillain-Barre syndrome.

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45
Q

Diagnosis of peripheral neuropathies. We measure:
a. motor translation
b. sensory translation
c. migraine
d. rafali

A

a. motor translation
b. sensory translation

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46
Q

Which is the axonopathy of the polyneuropathies?
a. Charcot-Marie-Tooth tip 2
b. Charcot-Marie-Tooth tip 1.

A

a. Charcot-Marie-Tooth tip 2

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47
Q

In peripheral polyneuropathy, the following examination gives us the least information:
a. oligoclonal bands
b. EMG
c. Urea and electrolytes
d. measurement of B12 concentration
e. OGTT

A

a. oligoclonal bands

For MS

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48
Q

A herniated disc between L4 and L5 most commonly presses on which root?
a. L3
b. L4
c. L5
d. S1

A

c. L5

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49
Q

Where the most common disc prolapse occurs and which nerve is damaged:
a. L4/L5 and L5 nerve
b. L4/L5 and L4 nerve
c. L5/S1 and L5 nerve
d. L5/S1 and S1 nerve

A

a. L4/L5 and L5 nerve

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50
Q

A picture of an orthosis for foot drop, something the patient certainly does not have:
a. S1 defects
b. L5 defects
c. severe polyneuropathy
d. muscle atrophy in the anterior tibial arch

A

a. S1 defects

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51
Q

How to check polyneuropathy:
a. comparative right-left
b. comparative distal-proximal
c. the level is determined on the hull
d. according to peripheral nerves

A

b. comparative distal-proximal

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52
Q

In Sjogren’s neuropathy, which fibres are most commonly affected?
a. motor
b. Sensory
c. Autonomous
d. all fibres equally
e. Sjogren’s syndrome does not cause neuropathy

A

b. Sensory

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53
Q

Which of the following is not acute inflammatory polyneuropathy?
a. Guillain-Barré syndrome
b. acute motor and sensory axonal neuropathy
c. acute motor axonal neuropathy
d. Miller-Fischer syndrome
e. all of the above are acute inflammatory polyneuropathies

A

e. all of the above are acute inflammatory polyneuropathies

54
Q

A pinched ulnar nerve in the wrist is called:
a. Wrist passage syndrome
b. palmar aponeurosis syndrome
c. piriformis syndrome
d. Guyon’s canal syndrome
e. pronator syndrome

A

d. Guyon’s canal syndrome

55
Q

Neuralgic amyotrophy is primarily about disability:
a. roots
b. knitting
c. peripheral nerves
d. nerve-muscle contact
e. Muscle

A

b. knitting

56
Q

A 70-year-old patient suffered a sudden, painless loss of vision in one eye. He is
hypertensive and has diabetes. What could it be?
a. Optic neuritis in MS
b. ischaemic neuritis
c. bleeding in the corpus vitreum
d. amaurosis fugax

A

b. ischaemic neuritis
d. amaurosis fugax

57
Q

A diabetic patient notices a tingling sensation in both hands that does not
wake up at night. What causes this?
a. diabetic angiopathy
b. symmetrical sensorimotor neuropathy
c. bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome
d. cervical plexopathy

A

b. symmetrical sensorimotor neuropathy

diabetic neuropathy (not angiopathy!)

58
Q

Which diseases are not respiratory threats?
a. ALS
b. myasthenia gravis
c. Guillan-Barre syndrome
d. polyneuropathy in a diabetic

A

d. polyneuropathy in a diabetic

59
Q

MRI of the lumbosacral spinal cord showing complete root disruption
between L5 and S1. What to expect:
a. drop foot (L4, L5)
b. knee extension paresis (L2-L4)
c. absent patellar reflex (L2-L4)
d. Absent Achilles reflex (S1, S2)
e. plantar response in extension (upper motor neuron defect)

A

d. Absent Achilles reflex (S1, S2)

60
Q

T2 spinal cord injury, how long does it take to go into spasticity?
a. 3-4 days
b. 2 months
c. one year

A

a. 3-4 days

61
Q

Sphincter/urination dysfunction is the result of spinal cord dysfunction:
a. cervical
b. Thoracic
c. lower cross segments
d. All

A

d. All

62
Q

Which adjective do we not associate with Guillain-Barré syndrome?
a. acute
b. Chronic
c. Inflammatory
d. axon
e. demyelinating

A

b. Chronic

63
Q

An HCV patient complains of burning feet. Joint position and vibration perception is
preserved. Most likely diagnosis:
a. thin-fibre neuropathy

A

a. thin-fibre neuropathy

64
Q

What is true for GBS?
a. reduced nerve conduction velocity
b. Elevated cells & proteins in CSF
c. respiratory muscles are never affected
d. the bulbar muscles are never affected
e. steroids are good therapy

A

a. reduced nerve conduction velocity

65
Q

A gentleman who tingles in his hands finds it harder to walk. A week ago he
had diarrhoea and fever. What does he have?
a. ALS
b. Guillain-Barré syndrome

A

b. Guillain-Barré syndrome

66
Q

Which hereditary neuropathy is axonal:
a. CMT1
b. CMT2
c. Dejarine-Sotasova
d. hereditary predisposition to oppressive neuropathies
e. all are demyelinating

A

b. CMT2

67
Q

Guillain-Barré polyneuropathy, the most common autonomic disorder:
a. Orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia.

A

a. Orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia.

68
Q

Which branch is most commonly affected in trigeminal neuralgia?
a. mandibular
b. maxillary
c. ophthalmic

A

a. mandibular

69
Q

The patient complains of fatigue, pain and tingling, which started in the lower limbs
and a few days later in the upper limbs. He has had difficulty walking since
yesterday, and a week ago he suffered from diarrhoea and high fever. Which is the
most likely diagnosis?
a. dermatomyositis
b. multiple sclerosis
c. Guillain-Barre syndrome
d. tropical spastic paraparesis
e. tumour in the thoracic spinal cord

A

c. Guillain-Barre syndrome

70
Q

CIDP, what are we not using?
a. glatiramer acetate
b. corticosteroids (prednisolone)
c. plasmapheresis
d. IVIG

A

a. glatiramer acetate

71
Q

A professor of neurology (60 years old) has been vaccinated against pandemic
influenza. Within a week, he lost proximal and distal muscle strength, walked with a
staggering gait, took only a few steps with the help of… He also lost the sense of
vibration in his legs and other sensory disturbances in his arms and legs. No
information on how the disturbances started. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Guillain-Barré syndrome
b. polymyositis
c. metabolic toxic neuropathy
d. acute toxic polyneuropathy
How would you treat it?
e. corticosteroids
f. immunoglobulin
g. cytostatics

A

a. Guillain-Barré syndrome
f. immunoglobulin

72
Q

Which polyneuropathy is least likely to affect thin fibres?
a. diabetes
b. amyloidosis
c. HSAN
d. HMSN

A

d. HMSN

73
Q

Which nerve is biopsied in polyneuropathy?
a. n. suralis
b. n. medianus
c. n. femoralis

A

a. n. suralis

74
Q

Which is the most common monoclonal gammopathy?
a. MGUS

A

a. MGUS

75
Q

How is trigeminal neuralgia best treated?
a. carbamazepine
b. valproate
c. botulinum
d. baclofen
e. all of the above

A

a. carbamazepine

76
Q

Which neuropathy has no autonomic signs?
a. porphyria
b. Guillain-Barré syndrome
c. Alcohol
d. diabetes
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above

77
Q

Humerus fracture. After the acute phase, the patient feels worse elbow flexion
and tingling on the volar side of the hand and radially. Which nerve has been
injured?
a. ulnar
b. radialis
c. musculocutaneus

A

c. musculocutaneus

78
Q

What is not used to treat chronic inflammatory polyneuropathy?
a. immunoglobulins
b. plasmapheresis
c. corticosteroids
d. azathioprine
e. rivastigmine

A

e. rivastigmine

79
Q

Which sign helps us diagnose peripheral neuropathy?
a. Tinel’s sign.

A

a. Tinel’s sign.

80
Q

A patient comes in for a check-up some time after having a cold, cannot close his
eye, and his mouth does not move. What does he have?
a. Bell’s palsy

A

a. Bell’s palsy

81
Q

In a diabetic, CN III defects will first be noticeable:
a. pupil unresponsiveness to accommodation and light
b. eyeball turned laterally and downwards, ptosis, oculomotor palsy
c. ptosis, miosis.

A

b. eyeball turned laterally and downwards, ptosis, oculomotor palsy

82
Q

A lady comes for a check-up because of thigh pain, and her status shows only weak
hip flexion and knee extension. What is definitely not there?
a. polyneuropathy
b. diabetic amyotrophy
c. Bannwarth syndrome

A

a. polyneuropathy

83
Q

What do I need to pay special attention to when examining a patient with
polyneuropathy?
a. Comparison of sensory by dermatome
b. Comparison of sensory peripheral nerve areas
c. Comparison of proximal and distal sensory

A

c. Comparison of proximal and distal sensory

84
Q

A 40-year-old gentleman presents for a check-up for a right foot drop that has been
going on for three weeks. He denies pain in the lumbar spine and sphincter
disorders. On examination, he has impaired dorsiflexion of the right foot and big toe,
and impaired inversion and eversion of the right foot. The strength of the other
muscle groups is preserved. The reflexes are all symmetrically challenged. The gait
is cocked on the right foot. He indicates a weaker sense of touch on the outside of
the tibia and on the dumb side of the tarsus to the right. There are no other
abnormalities in neurological status. Which statement is correct?
a. according to the neurological examination, it could also be a proximal
lesion, so we will perform an MRI
b. you will be referred to a neurosurgeon for urgent surgery
c. the gentleman does not need further diagnostics, and we can expect the
condition to improve slowly
d. peroneal nerve damage on the right, have an EMG scan of the lower limbs
e. it is an S1 root defect, so we will perform an MRI of the L/S spine

A

a. according to the neurological examination, it could also be a proximal
lesion, so we will perform an MRI

85
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia:
a. It is an intermittent pain, triggered by non-painful stimuli.

A

a. It is an intermittent pain, triggered by non-painful stimuli.

86
Q

One who already has sensorimotor diabetic polyneuropathy. On examination, he
does not feel well up to his knees, his legs burn and tingle. Now he has tingling in
his hands. What is the cause of this in his hands?
a. Progressive diabetic polyneuropathy.

A

a. Progressive diabetic polyneuropathy.

87
Q

Where does multifocal motor neuropathy belong?
a. inflammatory neuropathies
b. metabolic neuropathies
c. hereditary neuropathies

A

a. inflammatory neuropathies

88
Q

. Mr Butcher, who works in the cold during the day, has tingling on both sides,
although one side is more painful at night. On examination, nothing is found. What
does he have?
a. bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome
b. cervicobrachialgia
c. C7 sealing both sides

A

a. bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome

89
Q

It is difficult to get up from a squatting position, but at the same time you get a tingling
sensation in your thighs. What is not affected?
a. spinal cord
b. root
c. peripheral nerve
d. Muscle
e. none of the above

A

d. Muscle

90
Q

In trigeminal neuralgia, seizures last:
a. seconds
b. minute
c. hours
d. days
e. weeks

A

a. seconds

91
Q

A woman with rheumatoid arthritis presents with pain and tingling in the upper limb,
with disturbance of touch on the palmar side of the 2nd and 3rd fingers and pain on
flexion of the wrist.
a. radial nerve injury
b. ulnar nerve damage
c. carpal tunnel syndrome
d. polyneuropathy
e. not-know-what kind of amyotrophy

A

c. carpal tunnel syndrome

92
Q

Wrist-passage syndrome is not characteristic:
a. tingling sensation on the volar side of the first three fingers
b. otherwise normal neurological status
c. a positive Tinel’s sign
d. tenar atrophy
e. usahel 1. dorsal interosseus

A

usahel 1. dorsal interosseus

93
Q

What is the first test to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. Peripheral nerve ultrasound
b. CT
c. MRI of the wrist
d. EMG
e. The Yendrasikov manoeuvre

A

d. EMG

94
Q

What is not a risk factor for carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. male sex
b. pregnancy
c. rheumatoid arthritis
d. thyroid disease

A

a. male sex

95
Q

A man has been cycling all day and in the evening he is unable to cut his steak
(he holds the knife in his right hand). There is no pain, he feels nothing special. What
is the most likely cause?
a. ruptured flexor tendon of the thumb
b. acute carpal tunnel syndrome
c. muscle fatigue

A

a. ruptured flexor tendon of the thumb

96
Q

How do we prove carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. EMG and sensory conductivity
b. EMG and motor conduction

A

a. EMG and sensory conductivity

97
Q

It does not help to solve the problems caused by the wrist passage:
a. regular finger and wrist exercises
b. corticosteroids
c. brace
d. decompression

A

a. regular finger and wrist exercises

98
Q

What do we see in cervical spine syringomyelia?
a. areflexia of at least one reflex
b. hyperreflection
c. pseudohypertrophy

A

a. areflexia of at least one reflex

99
Q

IMAGE: hands with small burns/marks. What does the patient have?
a. diabetes
b. cavities in the spinal cord
c. C8 radiculopathy

A

b. cavities in the spinal cord

100
Q

Characteristic of syringomyelia:
a. dissociated loss of pain and temperature
b. dissociated loss of touch

A

a. dissociated loss of pain and temperature

101
Q

Affection of the posterior columns of the spinal cord is seen in:
a. syringomyelia
b. vitamin B12 deficiency
c. Adamkiewicz artery closure
d. posterolateral disc protrusions

A

b. vitamin B12 deficiency

102
Q

A slipped disc that crushes the spinal cord is:
a. extradural extramedullary expansive process
b. intradural extramedullary expansive process
c. intradural intramedullary expansive process

A

a. extradural extramedullary expansive process

103
Q

Charcot-Marie-Tooth, what does not
apply:
a. Axonal or demyelinating
b. EMG helps to identify the type
c. It can be X-linked inheritance
d. Autoimmune aetiology

A

d. Autoimmune aetiology

104
Q

What is not used in the treatment of CIDP?
a. Glatiramer acetate
b. Human immunoglobulins
c. Plasmapheresis
d. Corticosteroids
e. Immunomodulators

A

a. Glatiramer acetate

105
Q

The hallmark of the meralgia of paresthetics is:
a. Hypesthesia lateral to the thigh
b. Quadriceps femoris weakness
c. Tingling sensation in the toes
d. Plantar response in extinction

A

a. Hypesthesia lateral to the thigh

106
Q

A 28-year-old mother who has had pain behind her right ear for 2 days. The pain
started after a cold 4 days earlier. She says that the right side of her face is strange,
she finds it difficult to close her eye, her mouth is asymmetrical. During examination,
the forehead does not wrinkle, the eye does not close, it is red, the right angle of the
mouth does not move when laughing, the right corneal reflex is less well developed.
What is wrong with her?
a. Bell’s paresis on the right
b. pons defect
c. motor cortex infarction
d. ALS

A

a. Bell’s paresis on the right

107
Q

A 45-year-old worker is brought to the emergency room after falling from
a height. He has a fractured cervical vertebra and spinal cord injury. What
do you find?
a. impaired tendon reflexes
b. reinforced tendon reflexes
c. reinforced superficial reflexes
d. hemiparezo

A

a. impaired tendon reflexes

108
Q

How fast is axonal reinnervation after peripheral nerve injury?
a. 1 mm/day

A

a. 1 mm/day

109
Q

50-year-old diabetic. For the last year, he has been experiencing tingling
sensations in his feet, and on examination, the following sensory deficit is found:
a. affected ankles feeling vibrations

A

a. affected ankles feeling vibrations

110
Q

A patient undergoing abdominal aortic surgery has spastic lower limbs and a
dissociated sense of pain/temperature and touch. What is the most likely cause of
the defect?
a. syringomyelia
b. postoperative epidural haematoma
c. defects in the branches of the Adamkiewicz artery due to surgery

A

c. defects in the branches of the Adamkiewicz artery due to surgery

111
Q

What is not characteristic of subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord?
a. spasticity
b. plantar response in extensia
c. miosis
d. palanesthesia
e. ataxia

A

c. miosis

112
Q

Which muscle is not weakened in a specific L5 root defect?
a. m. gastrocnemius
b. m. tibialis posterior (L4-L5)
c. m. tibialis anterior (L4-L5)
d. m. extensor hallucis longus (L5-S1)
e. m.extensor digitorum longus (L5-S1)

A

a. m. gastrocnemius

113
Q

What causes the highest percentage of sensorimotor polyneuropathies?
a. Alcohol
b. diabetes

A

b. diabetes

114
Q

Which nerve is affected in meralgia paresthetica?
a. n. femoralis
b. n. cutaneous femoris lateralis
c. n. ischiadicus
d. n. peroneus communis

A

b. n. cutaneous femoris lateralis

115
Q

Which diseases are not associated with α-motor neurons?
a. multiple sclerosis
b. ALS
c. poliomyelitis
d. botulinism
e. spinal muscular atrophy

A

a. multiple sclerosis

116
Q

A man was riding, felt pain in his neck, then tingling in his arm, and had less
feeling in his thumb and index finger. After a while he has problems with awkward
walking and with urination - spinal bladder described. What is wrong?
a. C6 cervical radiculopathy and cervical myelopathy
b. C7 cervical radiculopathy and lumbosacral myelopathy

A

a. C6 cervical radiculopathy and cervical myelopathy

117
Q

Which segment is impaired in someone who has poorer sensation on the 2nd
and 4th fingers, triceps reflex is impaired, elbow extension is impaired.
a. C6
b. C7
c. C8
d. Th1

A

b. C7

118
Q

What advice would you give to someone who has a spinal bladder and has
about 200ml of urine stuck in the bladder?
a. multiple catheterisation cysts
b. anticholinergics

A

a. multiple catheterisation cysts
b. anticholinergics

119
Q

The contraction of the biceps muscle when the doctor elicited the styloradial
reflex is due to:
a. neuropathies
b. myopathy
c. radiculopathies
d. myelopathy

A

d. myelopathy

120
Q

It is pure motor neuropathy:
a. neuropathy in prophyria
b. neuropathy due to vitamin B12 deficiency
c. alcoholic neuropathy
d. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

A

a. neuropathy in prophyria

121
Q

A cook whose feet are fried in the evening probably has:
a. ethyl neuropathy
b. tarsal tunnel syndrome
c. diabetic polyneuropathy

A

c. diabetic polyneuropathy

122
Q

What is found in diabetic neuropathy?
a. painful CN III defect
b. numbness of the toes
c. inability to flex at the hip and extend at the knee
d. unilateral flank pain along the rib arch
e. painful paresis
f. all of the above

A

f. all of the above

123
Q

For meralgia paresthetica:
a. is the most common oppressive neuropathy of the lower limbs
b. it is a defect of the posterior cutaneous femoral nerve
c. is caused by spondylosis of the lumbar spine
d. is caused by herniation of an intervertebral disc
e. may be the first sign of polyneuropathy

A

a. is the most common oppressive neuropathy of the lower limbs

124
Q

What convinces us that it is lumboishialgia?
a. pain radiating to the knee
b. the patient is burning when he goes on the water
c. the patient is in pain when sitting and standing
d. the patient reports tingling sensations on the back of the foot
e. if the patient has back pain when sneezing

A

d. the patient reports tingling sensations on the back of the foot

125
Q

If we cannot extend the fingers, which root is damaged?
a. C5
b. C6
c. C7

A

c. C7

126
Q

What is the most characteristic of the syndrome of the artery spinalis anterior:
a. Positive Babinski
b. Achilles reflexes areflexia
c. loss of vibration sensation in the lower limbs
d. loss of surface sensation in the lower limbs
e. loss of coordination
f. dissociated sensory loss in the lower limbs

A

f. dissociated sensory loss in the lower limbs

127
Q

Anterior spinal artery ischaemia. What is preserved:
a. deep sensitivity
b. sphincter function
c. feeling of pain and temperature in the feet
d. leg motor skills
e. coordination of the legs

A

a. deep sensitivity

128
Q

Spondylotic myelopathy:
a. frequency and urgency present
b. emergency incontinence will be clear
c. stress incontinence will be present
d. clear urgency incontinence
e. frequent lower urinary tract infections

A

a. frequency and urgency present

129
Q

Not applicable to CIDP:
a. sensory-motor deficits in all four limbs, symmetrical
b. accelerated erythrocyte sedimentation can be detected
c. associated with infections or cancerous lesions
d. the liquor is normal

A

d. the liquor is normal

130
Q

A spinal abscess is most commonly found:
a. epidural
b. subdural
c. intramedullary

A

a. epidural

131
Q

Which of the following diseases is not related to diabetes:
a. diabetic neuropathy
b. distal symmetrical sensory polyneuropathy
c. cranial neuropathy
d. autonomic neuropathy
e. multifocal motor neuropathy

A

e. multifocal motor neuropathy