Musculoskeletal CORETEX Flashcards

1
Q

What is the cause of an enchondroma?

A

Failure of normal enchondral ossification at the growthplate

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2
Q

How may simple bone cysts present?

A

Asymptomatic incidental finding on xray.

Pathological fracture

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3
Q

What is treatment for a simple and aneurysmal bone cyst?

A

Curettage
Bone grafting
Stabilisation may be required

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4
Q

What is thought to be the cause of aneurysmal bone tumours?

A

Small arteriovenus malformation

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5
Q

What is the microscopic appearance of giant cell tumour of bone?

A

Multi-nucleate giant cells

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6
Q

What is the treatment for giant cell tumous of the lung?

A

Intralesional excision
Destruction of remaining bone tumour with phenol, bone cement or liquid nitrogen.
Joint replacement may be required

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6
Q

What is the treatment for giant cell tumous of the lung?

A

Intralesional excision
Destruction of remaining bone tumour with phenol, bone cement or liquid nitrogen.
Joint replacement may be required

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7
Q

What is the appearance of fibrous dysplasia?

A

Angular deformities
The affected bone is wider with thinned cortices
Shepherd’s crook deformity

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8
Q

What is the treatment for fibrous dysplasia?

A

BISPHOSPHONATES - may reduce pain

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9
Q

What are signs of malignant primary bone tumours on x-ray?

A

Cortical destruction
Periosteal reaction - raised periosteum producing bone
New bone formation
Exstention into the surrounding soft tissue envelope

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10
Q

What is the most common method of spread of osteosarcoma?

A

Haematogenous

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11
Q

What is osteosarcoma?

A

Malignant tumour producing bone

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12
Q

What is chondrosarcoma?

A

Cartilage producing primary bone tumour

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13
Q

What is the most common location for chondrosarcoma?

A

Pelvis and proximal femur

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14
Q

What are fibrosarcoma and malignant fibrous histiocytoma?

A

Fibrous malignant primary bone tumours that tend to occur in abnormal bone.

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15
Q

What is ewings sarcoma?

A

A malignant tumour of primative cells in the marrow

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16
Q

What are the main signs of ewings sarcoma?

A

Fever
Raised inflammatory markers
Warm swelling

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17
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

A cancer of round cells of the lymphyocytic system/macrophages

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18
Q

What is myeloma?

A

A malignant B cell proliferation that arises from the marrow

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19
Q

What is a lipoma?

A

A neoplastic proliferation of fat

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20
Q

What is the most common location of a lipoma?

A

Subcutaneous fat

however this may occur in the muscle

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21
Q

What can lead to the formation of a Ganglion Cyst?

A

herniation or out‐pouching of a weak portion of joint capsule or tendon sheath.

22
Q

What are the features of a ganglion cyst?

A

well‐defined, may be quite firm and readily transilluminate.

23
Q

What is a bursa?

A

A small fluid filled sac lined by synovium

24
Q

What leads to bursitis?

A

Repeated pressure or trauma

Bacterial infection

25
Q

What can lead to abscess formation?

A

Cellulitis
Bursitis
Penetrating wound
Infected sebaceous cyst

26
Q

What is avascular necrosis?

A

An ischaemic necrosis of bone predominantly in adults

27
Q

What can lead to avascular necrosis?

A
Fracture
Idiopathic
Alcoholism
Steroid use/abuse
Thrombophilia
Sickle Cell disease
Antiphospholipid deficiency
Cassions disease
28
Q

How do alcoholism and steroid use lead to avascular necrosis?

A

Alter fat metabolism which can result in mobilisation of fat into the circulation which can sludge up the capillary system and promote coagulability

29
Q

What is cassions disease?

A

Decompression sickness - Nitrogen gas bubble form in the circulation after too rapid a depressurisation after deep sea diving

30
Q

What are the characteristics of osteoporosis?

A

Reduced bone mineral density

Increased porosity

31
Q

What are the two types of osteoporosis?

A

Type 1 - Post-menopausal Osteoporosis

Type 2 - Osteoporosis of old age

32
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

Chronic Disease
Inactivity
Reduced sunlight exposure
Fracture

33
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

A qualitative defect of bone with abnormal softening of the bone due to deficient mineralisation of osteoid (immature bone) secondary to inadequate amounta of calcium and phosphorus

34
Q

What are the principle causes of osteomalacia and rickett’s?

A

Insufficient calcium absorption from the intestine due to lack of dietary calcium or resistance to the action of vitamin D.
Increased renal phosphate loss

35
Q

What are the symptoms of osteomalacia and rickett’s?

A

Bone pain
Deformities of the soft bone
Pathological fracture
Hypocalcaemia

36
Q

What is hyperparathyroidism?

A

Involves overactivity of the parathyroid glands with high levels of parathyroid hormone.

37
Q

What is a seropositive condition?

A

Auto-antibodies are present in the serum

38
Q

What are autoantibodies?

A

antibodies generated by the immune system against the body’s own proteins, usually within cells.

39
Q

What are some of the risk factors for osteoarthritis?

A

Joints with an abnormal allignment
Previous injuries
Strenuous work

40
Q

What are the four broad groups of inflammatory arthropathies?

A

Seropositive
Seronegative
Infections
Crystal Deposition Disorders

41
Q

What is a cause of many inflammatory arthropathies?

A

Auto-immune mediated conditions

42
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment for inflammatory arthropathies?

A

Simple analgesia
Anti-inflammatories - Steroids; NSAIDs
Steroid Injections
Disease modifying anti rheumatic drugs

43
Q

What are some triggers for RA?

A

Smoking
Infection
Trauma

44
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

A chronic inflammatory disease of the spine and sacroiliac joints which can lead to fusion of the intervertebral joints and SI joints

45
Q

What is gout?

A

A crystal arthropathy caused by deposition of urate crystals within a joint

46
Q

What is the cause of gout?

A

High serum uric acid levels

47
Q

What are features of gout?

A

Red, painful hot swollen joint - may mimic septic arthritis

Gouty tophi

48
Q

How is gout diagnosed?

A

Analysis of synovial fluid - negatively biofringent needle shaped crystals

49
Q

What is the treatment for acute gout?

A

NSAIDs
Corticosteroids
Opioid Analgesics
Colchicine

50
Q

What is the treatment for chronic gout?

A

Allopurinol - urate lowering therapy

51
Q

What is pseudogout?

A

A crystal arthropathy that leads to acute arthritis caused by calcium pyrophosphate crystals

52
Q

What does chondrocalcinosis mean?

A

When calcium pyrophosphate deposition occurs in cartilage and other soft tissues in the absence of acute inflammation

53
Q

Where are the typical locations for pseudogout?

A

Knee
Wrist
Ankle