Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Adult Health I > Muscleskeletal > Flashcards

Muscleskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

What is Osteoarthritis?

A

Degenerative joint disease

**most common among joint disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two different classifications of OA?

A

Primary or Idiopathic - no prior event or disease related to it

Secondary - results from previous injury or inflammatory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are causes of OA?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are S/S of OA?

A

Pain
Stiffness
Functional impairment
Usually worse in AM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

Autoimmune inflammatory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Differences between OA and RA PT history

A

OA:
-C/O palpable bony joint
-morning stiffness
-pain

RA:
-pain duration > 6 weeks
-morning stiffness
-Systemic symptoms (fatigue, anorexia, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Differences between OA and RA: physical exam

A

OA:
-Reduced ROM
-Joint malalignment
-Crepitus

RA:
-Synovitis
-joint involvement, symmetrical
-joint destruction
-extra-articular manifestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Differences between OA and RA Tests:

A

OA:
-Osteophytes
-joint space narrowing
-lab: clear synovial fluid

RA:
-Erosion on X-ray / MRI
-synovitis noted by ultrasound
-ESR or C-reactive protein
-Anti-CCP
-Reheumatoid factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Differences between OA and RA Tests:

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ways to prevent OA

A

Weight reduction
prevention of injuries
perinatal screening for congenital hip disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some medical managements options for OA

A

-Heat
-Weight reduction
-joint rest
-Orthotic devices
-Pharm
*NSAID
*APAP (Tylenol)
*Cox-2 inhibitors (Celebrex)
*Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are surgical options for OA

A

-Osteotomy
-Arthroplasty (replacement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nursing interventions for OA:

A

-weight loss
-assistive devices
-Exercise
-Analgesic
-Physical therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is lower backpain

A

leading cause of occupational disability in the world!

-most common cause of missing work days

-50-80% cause of ppl who miss work is bc of this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some caused of lower back pain

A

80-90% = mechanical
5-15% = neurogenic
1-2% = non-mechanical spinal condition
1-2% referred visceral pain
1-4% = other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are mechanical causes

A

-unknown
-degenerative disc or joint disease
-vertebral fracture
-Congenital deformity
-Spondylolysis
-Instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are neurogenic causes?

A

-Herniated disc
-Spinal Stenosis
-Osteophytic nerve root composition
-Ammular fissure with chemical irritation to nerve root
-Failed back surgery
-Infection (Herpes Zoster)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are non-mechanical spinal conditions?

A

-Neoplastic (primary or secondary) *cancer / tumor
-infection (osteomyelitis, deicitis, or abscess)
-Inflammatory arthritis
-Paget’s disease (type of cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Red Flag Syndroms

A

These must be ruled out before diagnosis:

-onset at age <20 or >50
-non-mechanical pain (aka unrelated to a specific activity)
-Thoracic pain
-Prev history of carcinoma, steroids or HIV infections
-Fever, night sweats, unexplained weight loss (fear of cancer
-widespread neurological symptoms especially sphincter disturbance (loss of bowel or bladder control)
-Structural spinal deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Red Flags for spinal fractures

A

-Very sudden onset of severe central pain in the spine which is releived by lying down

-major trauma

-minor trauma

-structural deformity of spine

-pint tenderness over vertebral body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Red Flag for malignancy or infection

A

-pain that remains when lying down, aching at night, disturbed sleep

-onset age 50+

-history of cancer

-S/S of infection

-Recent bacterial infection

–Immune suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are pharmacological treatment options for back pain

A

-simple analgesia
-NSAID
-Opiates *try not to go here due to dependence
-Steroids
-Muscle relaxant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are other therapy options for lower back pain?

A

-Physical therapy
-regular activities
-group exercise
-Massage / manipulation
-Acupuncture, electrotherapies & spinal injections
-Epidural Injections
-Radiofrequency Denervation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are surgery options for lower back pain?

A

-Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty
-spinal laminectomy / spinal decompression
-discectomy
-foraminotomy
-nucleoplasty, also called plama disk decompression
-spinal fusion
-artificial disc replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Arthroplasty?

A

Joint replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Whi is arthroplasty indicated for?

A

-irreversibly damaged joints with loss of function and unremitting pain

-selected fractures

-joint instability

-congenital hip disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Osteoporosis?

A

Weak bone density

-new bone does not keep up with removal of old bone

-bones become weak and brittle leaving the pt with an increased risk for Fx (fractures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Osteopenia?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is Primary osteoperosis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is secondary osteoporosis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are T-scores and Z-scores?

A

T-score = compares your results to healthy YOUNG ADULT 20-35

Z-score = compares your results to a person of same gender and age as self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do Z-scores mean

A

Z-score between 1 and -2.5 = Osteopenia
Z-score < -2.5 = Osteoperosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are causes of osteoporosis

A

-Genetics
-Age
-Nutrition (low calcium intake, low vitamin D, high phosphate intake)
-lack of physical activity
-lifestyle choices
-medications (corticosteroids, anti seizure medications, heparin, thyroid hormone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are manifestations of Osteoporosis?

A

-Fractures
-Kyphosis
-Decreased calcitonin
-decreased estrogen
-increased parathyroid hormone

35
Q

How can we help prevent Osteoperosis?

A

-Identifying it early
-diet
-activities
-lifestyles

36
Q

What are medical management options for osteoperosis?

A

-diet
-exercise
-fracture management

37
Q

What is pharmacologic therapy for osteoperosis?

A

Calcium supplements with vitamin D
-Bisphosphonates
-calcitonin
-Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMS)

38
Q

What are surgical management options for osteoperosis?

A

-joint replacement
-closed or open reduction with internal fixation
-open reduction, internal fixation

39
Q

What are fractures??

A

complete or incomplete disruption in the continuity of the bone structure

-defined according to type and extent

40
Q

What adjacent structures are affected during a fracture?

A

soft tissue edema
hemorrhage
joint dislocation
ruptured tendons
severed nerves
damaged blood vessels

41
Q

What is a complete fracture?

A

break across the entire cross-section of the bone and is frequently displaced

42
Q

What is an incomplete fracture

A

involved a breakthrough only part of the cross section of the bone

43
Q

what is a comminuted fracture

A

one that produces several bone fractures

44
Q

what is a closed fracture

A

one that does not cause a break in skin

45
Q

what is an open fracture

A

one wehre there is a break in skin

46
Q

what is a pathological fracture

A

caused by weaking of the bone as a result of a disease

47
Q

What are causes of fractures?

A

direct blows
crushing forces
sudden twisting motions
extreme muscle contractions

48
Q

What are manifestations of a fracture

A

-pain
-loss of function
-displacement
-shortening of extremity
-crepitus
-localized edema and ecchymosis

49
Q

What are complications of fractures

A

-hypovolemic shock (due to bleeding)
-fat embolism syndrome (higher risk with long bone and pelvic fat)
-compartment syndrome (usually in extremities)

50
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

All bones are in their own compartments - so everything starts to swell really big and it runs out of room and needs to be cut open to relieve pressure

51
Q

What are medical management options for fractures

A

-immediate immobilization
-splinting
-sterile dressing
-fracture reduction (closed or open *open is surgical)

52
Q

What needs to be completed during a nursing assessment for fractures

A

-Neurovascular checks (if no pulse, nurse can make minor adjustments)
-open or closed
-S/S of infection
-S/S of hemorrhage or shock
-S/S of compartment syndrome

53
Q

What are the different materials a cast can be made out of?

A

Nonplaster (fiberglass)
plaster of paris

54
Q

What position should a bone be in before casting it?

A

in its position of function

55
Q

What are the types of splints?

A

-Stirrup - foot
-Volar cock-up splint - wrist
-Sugar-tong splint - more complex forearm and wrist fractures (some elbow)
-double sugar tone - elbow fractures
-Ulnar Gutter splint - 4th & 5th metacarpal fractures (boxers fractures)
-Thumb spica - for a thumb break
-HARE Traction splint - if we have a displaced fracture of femur
-Sager Traction splint - both legs
-SAM splint (great for travel bags)

56
Q

What is a cast

A

Rigid external immobilizing devise molded to contours of body part

57
Q

How do we care for a patient with a brace, splint, or cast

A
58
Q

What are the 6 Ps for assessing neurovascular changes in a pt with a brace, splint, or cast?

A

-pain
-poikilothermic
-paresthesia
-paralysis
-pulses
-pallor

59
Q

What are potential problems from having a cast?

A
60
Q

What causes pressure ulcers with casts?

A

Inappropriately applied casts

-creating a hotspot or tightness

61
Q

What is disuse syndrome?

A

muscle atrophy and loss of strength

62
Q

What should a pt report when they have a cast

A

-persistent pain or swelling
-changes in sensation, movement, color, temp
-s/s of infection
-pressure areas

63
Q

What is a reduction of fractures?

A

putting fraction back

Non-surgical: closed reduction
Surgical: ORIF / OREF *uses pins
O:Open
R:Reduction
I:internal / external
F:fixation

64
Q

What is traction?

A

(pulling force to a part of the body)
When you have something attached to your body that has weights and pulls limb to give “traction” to bone to get back to normal

Skin
-buck extension traction *boot with weight
-Cervical head halter *create traction
-Pelvic traction *pin in through bone, attach weight to

Skeletal
-pin through bone, and weight pulls on that

65
Q

Why use traction?

A

-reduce muscle spasm
-reduce, align and immobilize fracture
-reduce deformity
-increase space between opposing forces

*short term intervention until other modalities are possible

66
Q

Traction principles

A

-Must have counterforce
-must be continuous
-never interrupt skeletal traction
-weights are not removed unless intermittent traction has been ordered
-weights must hang freely
-knots or footplate must not touch the food of bed
-skeletal traction - all traction needs to be applied in two directions “vectors of force”

67
Q

What are nursing management for patients in traction

A

-assessing anxiety
-assisting with self-care
-monitor and manage complications
*pressure ulcer
*atelectasis (alveoli collapse)
*pneumonia
*constipation
*anorexia
*Urinary stasis
*infection
*DVT

68
Q

What do pts with a hip replacement need

A

-preventing dislocation of hip prosthesis
-mobility and ambulation
-drain use postoperatively
-Prevent infection
-prevent DVT
-Pt education and rehab

69
Q

What do pts with a knee repalcement need?

A

Postoperatively
-compression on knee
-assess neurovascular **every 2-4 hours
-monitor for complications (infection, bleeding, VTE)

Wound suction drain
-removed in 24-48 hours
-antibiotics prophylactically
-autotransfusion of extensive bleeding

70
Q

Needs of pts with knee replacement

A

-CPM (continuous passive motion)
-PT
-Acute rehab (1-2 weeks)

Total recovery time: 6 weeks

71
Q

Things that need to be assessed during preoperative bone surgery

A

-routine preop assessment
-hydration
-medication history
-possible infection
-knowledge
-support and coping

72
Q

Things that need to be assessed during postoperative bone surgery

A

-pain
-VS, breath sounds
-LOC
-neurovascular tissue
-S/S of bleeding
-wound drainage
-mobility and understanding of mobility restritctions
-bowel sounds and elimination
-flatulence
-urinary output
-s/s DVT

73
Q

Potential complications - postoperative

A

-hypovolemic shock
-atelectasis
-pneumonia
-urinary retention
-infection
-thromboembolism: DVT or PE
-constipation or fecal impaction

74
Q

Nursing interventions post surgery

A

-Give meds
-alternative method of pain relief (reposition, distraction, guided imagery)
-pain control
-Muscle setting (exercises)
-nutrition
-skin care measures
-follow up PT
-set realistic goals

75
Q

What is an amputation

A

total or partial surgical removal of an extremity or digit

76
Q

What are the types of amputations

A

BKA - below the knee
AKA - above the knee
Upper extremity

77
Q

What are reasons for BKA

A

-peripheral vascular disease
-facilitates successful adaptation to prosthesis bc of retained knee function

78
Q

what are reasons for AKA

A

necessitated by trauma or extensive disease

79
Q

What are reasons for upper extremity amputation

A

severe trauma
malignant tumors
congenital malformation

80
Q

What needs to be assessed after amputation

A

-neurovascular
-history of health problems
-clients understanding of extent of surgery
-coping status
-support system

81
Q

What re nursing interventions for amputation?

A
82
Q

What is Kyphosis

A

an outward curvature of the spine
“hunch back”

83
Q

What is lordosis?

A

an inward curvature of the spine
*lumbar spine

84
Q

What is scoliosis

A

lateral curvature of spine

Adult Health I (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions