Muscles (General, Skeletal, Smooth) Flashcards

Generated from Lectures 13-17

1
Q

Skeletal muscle fibers can be up to __________ cm long.

A

30

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2
Q

A muscle cell from a biceps contains approximately __________ sarcomeres.

A

100,000

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3
Q

The protein __________ connects F-actin to the dystroglycan complex.

A

Dystrophin

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4
Q

__________ is a protein greater than 1 µm in length found in skeletal muscle.

A

Titin

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5
Q

The thick filaments of skeletal muscle are __________ nm in diameter.

A

16

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6
Q

The __________ complex is a heterotrimer consisting of three different proteins.

A

Troponin

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7
Q

The troponin subunit TnT binds to __________.

A

Tropomyosin

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8
Q

The troponin subunit TnC has two pairs of __________ binding sites.

A

Ca2+

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9
Q

When intracellular ATP is depleted, skeletal muscles enter a state of __________.

A

Rigor (death!!!!)

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10
Q

__________ muscle is not under voluntary control.

A

Smooth

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11
Q

Skeletal muscle receives excitatory neuronal input via __________ motor neurons.

A

Somatic

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12
Q

The __________ is a specialized region of the skeletal muscle fiber membrane where a motor neuron terminates.

A

Motor end plate

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13
Q

Curare is a plant alkaloid that inhibits the __________ receptor

A

Nicotinic acetylcholine

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14
Q

__________ is an autoimmune disease in which antibodies block acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.

A

Myasthenia gravis

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15
Q

The __________ receptor in the T-tubule triggers Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

A

Dihydropyridine

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16
Q

The dihydropyridine receptor physically interacts with the __________ receptor to release Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

A

Ryanodine

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17
Q

RyR1 is the primary ryanodine receptor isoform expressed in __________ muscle.

A

skeletal

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18
Q

Diltiazem and amlodipine are examples of dihydropyridine receptor __________.

A

antagonists

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19
Q

Ryanodine is a _______ alkaloid that can act as a ryanodine receptor agonist or antagonist depending on the concentration.

A

plant

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20
Q

Caffeine activates ryanodine receptors by potentiating their sensitivity to __________.

A

Ca2+

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21
Q

Malignant hyperthermia is a rare, life-threatening condition often caused by mutations in the __________ receptor gene.

A

Ryanodine

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22
Q

.
__________ is a muscle relaxant that prevents Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and is used to treat malignant hyperthermia.

A

Dantroline

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23
Q

Tacrolimus is an __________ drug that binds to FKBP12, a protein that regulates ryanodine receptor activity.

A

immunosuppressant

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24
Q

SERCA stands for sarco/endoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ -__________.

A

ATPase

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25
Q

__________ is a regulatory protein that inhibits SERCA activity.

A

Phospholamban

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26
Q

Increased β-adrenergic stimulation __________ the association between SERCA and phospholamban.

A

reduces

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27
Q

The protein __________ connects actin filaments to the Z-line

A

α-actinin

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28
Q

In an __________ contraction, muscle length remains constant while force increases

A

isometric

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29
Q

In an __________ contraction, muscle shortens while force remains constant.

A

isotonic

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30
Q

__________ contraction is analogous to isovolumetric contraction in the heart.

A

Isometric

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31
Q

__________ contraction is analogous to ventricular ejection in the heart.

A

Isotonic

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32
Q

A muscle __________ is a single contraction-relaxation cycle in response to a single action potential.

A

twitch

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33
Q

The __________ of shortening is the speed at which a muscle changes length during contraction

A

velocity

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34
Q

The maximum velocity of shortening occurs at the __________ load.

A

smallest

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35
Q

The maximum force a muscle can generate occurs at the __________ load.

A

greatest

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36
Q

__________ occurs when a muscle fiber is stimulated at a high frequency and does not relax completely between stimuli.

A

Tetanus

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37
Q

__________ muscles oppose the action of agonist muscles

A

Antagonist

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38
Q

Bones act as __________ in the lever systems of the body

A

levers

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39
Q

Joints act as __________ in the lever systems of the body.

A

fulcrums

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40
Q

A __________ lever system amplifies velocity.

A

third-class

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41
Q

The force developed by a single muscle cell increases with increasing __________ of stimulation.

A

frequency

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42
Q

The force developed by a whole muscle can be increased by recruiting more __________.

A

motor units

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43
Q

__________ muscle fibers have the fastest contractile speeds.

A

Fast/Type II

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44
Q

__________ muscle fibers utilize oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP.

A

Slow/Type I

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45
Q

__________ muscle fibers have the largest diameter

A

Type IIb

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46
Q

The __________ isoform determines a muscle fiber’s type.

A

Myosin heavy chain (MHC)

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47
Q

Skeletal muscle can produce ATP through three main pathways: direct phosphorylation, __________ glycolysis, and __________ cellular respiration.

A

anaerobic, aerobic

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48
Q

__________ is a molecule stored in muscle that can rapidly regenerate ATP from ADP.

A

Creatine phosphate

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49
Q

Creatine supplementation can modestly improve performance in __________ , __________ exercise lasting less than 30 seconds.

A

intensive, repetitive

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50
Q

Caffeine can __________ the ergogenic benefit of creatine.

A

counteract

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51
Q

__________ is the primary energy source for muscle contraction.

A

ATP

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52
Q

During short-duration exercise, ATP stored in muscles is used __________.

A

first

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53
Q

After about 10 seconds of exercise, ATP is formed from __________ and ADP.

A

creatine phosphate

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54
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis becomes the primary source of ATP production after about __________ seconds of exercise.

A

30-40

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55
Q

The anaerobic threshold is the point at which muscle metabolism shifts from __________ to __________ pathways for ATP production.

A

aerobic, anaerobic

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56
Q

During prolonged-duration exercise, ATP is generated by the breakdown of nutrient energy fuels through the __________ pathway.

A

aerobic

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57
Q

__________ is a byproduct of anaerobic glycolysis.

A

Lactic acid

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58
Q

Lactic acid can be used as fuel by the liver, __________, and __________.

A

kidneys, heart

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59
Q

The liver can convert lactic acid back into __________ or glucose.

A

pyruvic acid

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60
Q

Amateur runners often experience “hitting the wall” around kilometer 30-35 due to the depletion of __________ stores.

A

glycogen

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61
Q

__________ is the largest glycogen storage organ in the body.

A

Muscle

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62
Q

A single bout of exercise can improve whole-body __________ sensitivity for up to 48 hours.

A

insulin

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63
Q

The aerobic pathway for ATP production utilizes __________, pyruvic acid, free fatty acids, and amino acids as fuel sources.

A

glucose

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64
Q

Aerobic respiration produces approximately __________ ATP molecules per glucose molecule.

A

32

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65
Q

Approximately __________% of the energy released during muscle activity is given off as heat.

A

60

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66
Q

__________ is the body’s response to cold temperatures, involving rapid muscle contractions to generate heat.

A

Shivering

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67
Q

Malignant hyperthermia occurs due to mutations in the __________ receptor, leading to uncontrolled muscle contraction and heat production.

A

Ryanodine

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68
Q

Muscle __________ is the physiological inability to contract despite continued stimulation.

A

fatigue

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69
Q

Muscle fatigue is not primarily caused by the __________ of ATP.

A

depletion

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70
Q

Factors contributing to muscle fatigue include lactic acid buildup, __________ command fatigue, and failure of excitation-contraction coupling.

A

central

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71
Q

During recovery from exercise, __________ reserves are replenished, lactic acid is converted to pyruvic acid, glycogen stores are replaced, and ATP and creatine phosphate reserves are replenished.

A

oxygen

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72
Q

Excess __________ consumption is required after exercise to return the muscle to its resting state.

A

oxygen

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73
Q

Muscle __________ are sudden, involuntary contractions that can be painful.

A

cramps

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74
Q

Factors that can contribute to muscle cramps include dehydration, low blood levels of calcium, magnesium, or __________, and certain medications.

A

potassium

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75
Q

__________ exercise involves muscle shortening while contracting.

A

Concentric

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76
Q

__________ exercise is the most efficient way to induce muscle hypertrophy.

A

Isometric

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77
Q

__________ exercise occurs when a muscle attempts to contract while being passively stretched

A

Eccentric

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78
Q

Delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and muscular injury typically result from __________ exercise.

A

Eccentric

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79
Q

During prolonged exertion, muscles produce H+ and __________, leading to acidification.

A

lactate

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80
Q

The sensation of muscle fatigue is actually a function of the __________.

A

brain

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81
Q

Muscle pain during exercise is primarily due to __________ accumulation.

A

harmful metabolite (H+, lactate, ATP(?))

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82
Q

__________ is a plant compound that activates TRPV1 receptors, which are involved in sensing lactate and muscle pain.

A

Capsaicin

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83
Q

The first phase of DOMS is thought to be caused by __________ of the muscle.

A

microtrauma

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84
Q

The second phase of DOMS involves __________ and __________ infiltration to remove damaged muscle tissue.

A

macrophages, neutrophils

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85
Q

__________ produced by macrophages contribute to the soreness experienced during DOMS.

A

Prostaglandin E2

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86
Q

DOMS typically disappears after a few __________ .

A

days

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87
Q

Muscle hypertrophy is the __________ in the size of muscle fibers.

A

increase

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88
Q

Muscle __________ is the decrease in the size of muscle fibers.

A

atrophy

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89
Q

__________ atrophy occurs when a muscle is not used, such as when immobilized in a cast.

A

Disuse

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90
Q

__________ atrophy occurs due to nerve damage, leading to loss of muscle function.

A

Denervation

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91
Q

Smooth muscle contraction is __________ (faster/slower) than skeletal muscle contraction.

A

slower

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92
Q

Smooth muscle cells lack __________ , which is present in skeletal muscle and regulates contraction.

A

troponin

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93
Q

In smooth muscle, Ca2+ activates __________ that eventually phosphorylate myosin heads, leading to cross-bridge formation.

A

kinases

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94
Q

__________ smooth muscle exhibits continuous, low-level contraction.

A

Tonic

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95
Q

__________ smooth muscle is only active for discrete periods of time.

A

Rhythmic/phasic

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96
Q

__________ smooth muscle cells act independently, while __________ smooth muscle cells function as a single unit.

A

Multi-unit, single-unit

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97
Q

Dense bodies in smooth muscle contain __________ that anchor intermediate filaments.

A

α-actinin

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98
Q

__________ is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter causing relaxation of smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract.

A

Nitric oxide

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99
Q

What is the name of the calcium-binding protein that, when bound to calcium, can bind to and activate myosin light chain kinase in smooth muscle?

A

Calmodulin

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100
Q

Why is calmodulin important in smooth muscle?

A

This complex is important because once myosin light chain kinase is activated, it can phosphorylate myosin light chains, allowing myosin to interact with actin and initiate contraction

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101
Q

What enzyme is responsible for dephosphorylating myosin light chains in smooth muscle, leading to relaxation?

A

Myosin light chain phosphatase

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102
Q

Name the most potent constrictor and the most common vasodilator involved in the local humoral control of smooth muscles.

A

The most potent constrictor is endothelin, and the most common vasodilator is adenosine

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103
Q

After the motor neuron action potential in skeletal muscle contraction, ______ enters voltage-gated channels and acetylcholine is released into the synapse.

A

Ca2+

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104
Q

VX nerve gas is a/an ________ inhibitor.

A

acetylcholinesterase

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105
Q

After acetylcholine binds to the motor end plate in skeletal muscle, ______ enters the muscle through channels.

A

sodium

106
Q

What is the latent period in muscle contraction?

A

The amount of time it takes to generate force in a muscle after an action potential; it is not instantaneous.

107
Q

EMG stands for __________ and is used to measure and observe _________.

A

Electromyography; individual motor unit action potentials

108
Q

T-tubules full name is _______-tubules and they are found on top of the _________ in all striated muscle (cardiac and skeletal, not smooth).

A

transverse-tubules, sarcolemma

109
Q

After an action potential in skeletal muscle, the connection between the dihydropyridine receptors and the ryanodine receptors is altered; this allows for the _________ receptors to release calcium into the _________.

A

ryanodine, cytosol

110
Q

Ryanodine receptors are located on the _________ in skeletal muscle.

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum cisterna

111
Q

Dihydropyridine receptors are located on the ________ in skeletal muscle.

A

sarcolemma (inside the t-tubule)

112
Q

Dihydropyridine receptors in skeletal muscle are ________-gated.

A

voltage

113
Q

True or False: there are multiple isoforms of ryanodine receptors.

A

True

114
Q

RyR1 receptors are primarily expressed in _______ muscle.

A

skeletal

115
Q

In skeletal muscle, ryanodine receptors are ______-sensitive.

A

voltage

116
Q

In cardiac muscle (and neurons), ryanodine receptors are ______-sensitive.

A

calcium

117
Q

True or False: in skeletal muscle, there is physical coupling of dihydropyridine receptors and ryanodine receptors.

A

True

118
Q

RyR2 is primarily expressed in the _________.

A

myocardium

119
Q

[Skeletal] Once calcium leaves the SR via ryanodine and dihydropyridine coupling, it activates _______ to cause muscle contraction.

A

troponin C

120
Q

The reason why caffeine can make some people “twitchy” is because it can cause _______ receptors to become more sensitive, leading to more muscle contraction.

A

ryanodine

121
Q

What receptor gene is defective in most cases of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Ryanodine receptor gene (RYR1)

122
Q

The activity of RyR can be up-regulated by ______ phosphorylation
upon the activation of β-adrenergic receptor on the plasma membrane

A

PKA

123
Q

The rate at which _________ moves calcium across the SR
membrane can be controlled by the regulatory
protein phospholamban.

A

SERCA

124
Q

Increased β-adrenergic stimulation
__________ the association between SERCA and PLB
by the phosphorylation of PLB by PKA.

A

reduces

125
Q

[skeletal] When PLB
is associated with SERCA, the rate of calcium
movement is ________; upon dissociation of PLB,
calcium movement _________.

A

reduced, increases

126
Q

In stressed skeletal muscle, hyperphosphorylation of RyR1 leads to calcium leak in the _______ and less calcium available for release during contraction.

A

sarcoreticulum

127
Q

__________ is a calcium-dependent,
non-lysosomal cysteine protease.

A

Calpain

128
Q

A muscle fiber develops its greatest tension when there is optimal overlap between thick and ____ filaments.

A

thin

129
Q

True or False: velocity doubles when there are multiple sarcomeres in series.

A

True

130
Q

True or False: force doubles when there are multiple sarcomeres in series.

A

False, no change; doubles when multiple are in parallel

131
Q

Name the three ways that muscle fibers can form ATP

A
  1. creatine phosphate
  2. glycolysis
  3. oxidative phosphorylation
132
Q

_________ (type of macromolecule) enhance muscle creatine uptake.

A

Carbohydrates

133
Q

Creatine is used (therapeutically) in ________ and _______.

A

chronic heart failure, mitochondrial disorders

134
Q

True or False: creatine shows significant benefits on endurance aerobic exercise.

A

False!

135
Q

Creatine in combination with caffeine and ephedra may cause _________.

A

stroke

136
Q

During a long term event like a marathon, most ATP is produced _________ (aerobically/anaerobically)

A

aerobically

137
Q

The anaerobic threshold is _________.

A

the point at which muscle metabolism converts to anaerobic

138
Q

Direct phosphorylation makes _____ ATP, requires ________ (oxygen/no oxygen), and the duration of energy provided is ______ seconds.

A

1 ATP per creatine phosphate, no oxygen to make ATP (yes to make CP), 15 sec

139
Q

Direct phosphorylation is the coupled reaction of _______ and ________ to make ATP.

A

creatine phosphate (CP) and ADP

140
Q

The energy source for the anaerobic pathway is ________.

A

glucose

141
Q

The anaerobic pathway produces _______ ATP per glucose, requires _______ (oxygen/no oxygen), and the duration of the energy provided lasts ______ seconds.

A

2 ATP per glucose, no oxygen, 30-40ish seconds

142
Q

The anaerobic pathway (also known as glycolysis) makes _______ and ________.

A

ATP, lactic acid

143
Q

Lactic acid is converted back to ______ or ______ by the ______.

A

glucose or pyruvate, liver

144
Q

Lactic acid is used as fuel by what three organs?

A

liver, kidneys, heart

145
Q

In anaerobic glycolysis, lactic acid accumulation can result in _________, which may slow down the reaction.

A

lowering the pH

146
Q

“Hitting the wall” is a loss of _______ stores.

A

glycogen

147
Q

A single bout of exercise improves whole-body insulin sensitivity for up to _____ hours.

A

48

148
Q

The aerobic pathway uses oxygen to create ______ ATP per glucose, and the duration of energy produced lasts _______.

A

32, hours

149
Q

What percent of energy released in muscle activity is useful as work?

A

~40%

150
Q

The remaining energy not used as work generated in muscle activity is _________.

A

given off as heat, ~60%

151
Q

Malignant hyperthermia results is __________.

A

muscle rigidity, acidosis, very high body temperatures

152
Q

Type I muscle fibers have ______ (high/low) myosin-ATPase activity, and high ______ (glycolytic/oxidative) capacity.

A

low, oxidative

153
Q

Type IIa muscle fibers have ______ (high/low) myosin-ATPase activity, and high ______ (glycolytic/oxidative) capacity.

A

high, oxidative

154
Q

Type IIb muscle fibers have ______ (high/low) myosin-ATPase activity, and high ______ (glycolytic/oxidative) capacity.

A

high, glycolytic

155
Q

What is muscle fatigue?

A

Physiological inability for muscles to contract despite continued stimulation

156
Q

Muscle fatigue occurs when ___________ imbalances interfere with E-C coupling, and/or prolonged exercise damages the _______ and interferes with calcium regulation and release.

A

ionic imbalances (K+, Ca2+, inorganic phosphate), SR

157
Q

In order to fix oxygen debt after exercise, what occurs?

A

High heart rate and breathing rate continue after exercise stops, elevated blood flow

158
Q

How do you prevent skeletal muscle cramps?

A

Hydration, fitness, and an adequate diet

159
Q

Delayed onset muscle soreness and muscular injury
usually results from extensive __________ exercise.

A

eccentric

160
Q

Some of the pH receptors in afferent neurons that help to signal that muscle damage may be occurring (muscle fatigue) are ________.

A

ASIC (acid sensing ion current) receptors, Transient Receptor Potential Channel (TRPV1), Purinergic (P2X) receptors

161
Q

ASIC receptors sense ______ when muscle damage occurs.

A

H+ (low pH)

162
Q

TRPV1 receptors sense ________ when muscle damage occurs.

A

lactate (lactic acid)

163
Q

Purinergic (P2X) receptors sense ______.

A

ATP

164
Q

A sensation of fatigue occurs when the pH is _____, the concentration of ATP is _______nM, and the concentration of lactate is _______mM.

A

7.3, 400nM ATP, 1mM lactate

165
Q

A sensation of pain occurs when the pH is _____, the concentration of ATP is _______nM, and the concentration of lactate is _______mM.

A

7.2, 500nM ATP, 10mM lactate

166
Q

Soreness in the second phase of DOMS is thought to be due to _________.

A

inflammatory bradykinin

167
Q

Muscles that aren’t used will atrophy, represented in the phrase “____________”.

A

use it or lose it

168
Q

_______ represent the largest mass of cells within our body.

A

Muscle cells

169
Q

______________ lipids increase with increase adipose tissue, leading to insulin-signaling disruption and impaired glucose uptake.

A

Intramyocellular lipids (IMCL)

170
Q

Type I fibers have _____ (many/few) mitochondria, ______ (many/few) capillaries, ______ (high/low) myoglobin content, and have a _______ rate of fatigue.

A

many, many, high (red), slow

171
Q

Type IIa fibers have _____ (many/few) mitochondria, ______ (many/few) capillaries, ______ (high/low) myoglobin content, and have a _______ rate of fatigue.

A

many, many, high (red), intermediate

172
Q

Type IIb fibers have _____ (many/few) mitochondria, ______ (many/few) capillaries, ______ (high/low) myoglobin content, and have a _______ rate of fatigue.

A

few, few, low (white), fast

173
Q

Red or white muscle is determined by _______ content.

A

myoglobin; high myoglobin = red, low myoglobin = white

174
Q

Type I fibers are also known as __________.

A

slow-oxidative

175
Q

Type IIa fibers are also known as _______.

A

fast-oxidative-glycolytic

176
Q

Type IIb fibers are also known as _______.

A

fast-glycolytic

177
Q

Skeletal muscle maintains a more _______ resting membrane potential than neurons.

A

negative

178
Q

In skeletal muscle, the t-tubule membranes contain a ______ channel that helps contribute to Vm.

A

chloride (ClC-1)

179
Q

True or False: smooth muscle has sarcomeres.

A

False, only cardiac and skeletal have sarcomeres

180
Q

The regulatory proteins for contraction in skeletal muscle are ______________.

A

troponin and tropomyosin

181
Q

The regulatory proteins for contraction in smooth muscle are ______________.

A

calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase

182
Q

The regulatory proteins for contraction in cardiac muscle are ______________.

A

troponin and tropomyosin

183
Q

The M line in a sarcomere is ___________.

A

the region in the center of the H zone that contains proteins that hold thick filaments together at the center of the sarcomere.

184
Q

The Z discs in a sarcomere are ___________.

A

narrow, plate-shaped regions of dense material that separate one sarcomere to the next.

185
Q

The A band in a sarcomere is ___________.

A

the dark, middle part of the sarcomere that extends the entire length of the thick filaments, and includes those parts of the thin filaments that overlap thick filaments.

186
Q

The I band in a sarcomere is ___________.

A

the lighter, less dense area of the sarcomere that contains remainder of thin filaments but no thick filaments. A Z disc passes through center of each I band.

187
Q

The H zone in a sarcomere is ___________.

A

the narrow region at the center of each A band that contains thick filaments but no thin filaments.

188
Q

One tropomyocin has _____ actin monomers.

A

7

189
Q

Muscle is relaxed when there is _______ (low/high) cytosolic calcium.

A

low

190
Q

Muscle is activated when there is _____ (low/high) cytosolic calcium.

A

high

191
Q

In the troponin complex, TnI binds to _______ and inhibits contraction.

A

actin

192
Q

In the troponin complex, TnC binds to ________.

A

calcium

193
Q

In the troponin complex, TnT binds to _________.

A

tropomyosin

194
Q

_________ is a structural protein that forms the M line of a sarcomere; it binds to titin and connects adjacent _____ filaments.

A

Myomesin, thick

195
Q

________ is a structural protein that wraps around the entire length of each _____ filament. It helps anchor _____ filaments to Z discs.

A

Nebulin, thin

196
Q

________ is a structural protein that helps to transmit tension generated by sarcomeres to tendons.

A

Dystrophin

197
Q

Smooth muscle thin actin filaments lack ______.

A

troponin

198
Q

Smooth muscle Ca2+ activates ________ that will eventually induce conformational changes of the myosin heads in order to form cross bridges

A

kinases

199
Q

True or False: Smooth muscle cell overall contraction squeezes the cell from every direction

A

True

200
Q

Contraction is much ________ (faster/slower) in smooth muscle relative to striated muscle

A

slower

201
Q

Single-unit smooth muscle have _________ gap junctions than multi-unit smooth muscle.

A

more

202
Q

Multi-unit smooth muscle is ______ (location), while single-unit smooth muscle is found in the _______ (location).

A

vascular, GI tract

203
Q

Filaments in smooth muscle are organized in _______.

A

slightly
diagonal chains

204
Q

In smooth muscle, _______ attach intermediate filaments (vimentin & desmin) which serve as anchors from which the thin filaments can exert force

A

dense bodies

205
Q

True or False: In smooth muscle, actin myosin overlap persists in stretched state, meaning that there is no loss of cross bridge potential.

A

True

206
Q

True or False: In smooth muscle, resting length is above optimal length

A

False, resting length is below optimal length

207
Q

The most potent intrinsic constrictor in smooth muscle is ________.

A

peptide endothelin

208
Q

The most common intrinsic vasodilator in smooth muscle is ________.

A

adenosine

209
Q

True or False: There is no specialized connection between the nerve fiber and the smooth muscle cell, unlike in skeletal muscle

A

True

210
Q

True or False: Smooth muscle can be made to contract by hormones and paracrine agents

A

True

211
Q

Smooth muscle myosin needs to be _________ to bind actin

A

phosphorylated

212
Q

In smooth muscle, myosin phosphorylation by _______ allows actin-myosin interaction

A

Myosin Light Chain Kinase (MLCK)

213
Q

In smooth muscle, phosphorylation of myosin light chain by protein kinase C _______ (inhibits/activates) actin-myosin interaction.

A

inhibits

214
Q

True or False: In smooth muscle, MLCK & PKC phosphorylation sites on myosin light chain are different

A

True

215
Q

In the absence of Ca2+ , caldesmon binds ______.

A

actin, analogous to troponin in skeletal muscle (remember, smooth muscle doesn’t have troponin!)

216
Q

In smooth muscle, calcium ______ (promotes/inhibits) contraction.

A

promotes

217
Q

True or False: Smooth muscle cell response can be a graded response.

A

True

218
Q

True or False: In smooth muscle, there cannot be contraction without a change in resting membrane potential.

A

False, no change in Vm is needed (example: IP3 calcium release, kinase activity)

219
Q

In skeletal muscle, the resting membrane potential is around _____.

A

-90mV

220
Q

In skeletal muscle, the Vm is greater (-90mV) because of an increased ________ gradient, an increased ________ gradient, and a greater resting _______ permeability.

A

sodium, chlorine, chlorine

221
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum contains ________, a calcium-binding protein.

A

calsequestrin

222
Q

Of the two pairs of calcium-binding sites in TnC, one high-affinity and always ___________, while the other is low-affinity and calcium binding results in _________.

A

bound under physiological conditions (to calcium or magnesium); results in a conformational change

223
Q

A myofibril cross-section has ______ arrangement; this means that ____ thick filaments surround a thin filament and ______ thin filaments surround a thick filament.

A

3-6 arrangement; 3; 6

224
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

Fluid/pressure build up in
a muscle compartment

225
Q

What type of disorder is fibromyalgia?

A

A non-articular rheumatic disorder

226
Q

Contraction regulation in smooth muscle can be controlled by many things, name some.

A

ACh and NE; hormones; local chemical changes; stretching

227
Q

True or False: Skeletal muscle has no junctions between fibers.

A

True

228
Q

_________ is a movement disorder in which involuntary sustained or intermittent muscle contractions cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, or both.

A

Dystonia

229
Q

_________ is an ongoing random-appearing sequence of one or more discrete involuntary movements or movement fragments.

A

Chorea

230
Q

True or False: Skeletal muscle doesn’t hyperpolarize.

A

True (tetanus wouldn’t be possible if it did)

231
Q

Name the five stages of the Muscle Contraction Cycle (Power-Stroke)

A

Attached State; Released State; Cocked State; Cross-Bridge State; Power-Stroke State

232
Q

In the Muscle Contraction Cycle, ADP is released from the myosin head between the ________ State and the _________ State.

A

Power-Stroke, Attached

233
Q

In the Muscle Contraction Cycle, what occurs to change from the Attached State to the Released State?

A

ATP binds to the myosin head, causing dissociation of the actin-myosin complex

234
Q

In the Muscle Contraction Cycle, what occurs to change from the Released State to the Cocked State?

A

ATP is hydrolyzed, causing the myosin heads to return to their resting conformation

235
Q

In the Muscle Contraction Cycle, what occurs to change from the Cocked State to the Cross-Bridge State?

A

An increase in calcium causes a cross-bridge to form, and the myosin head binds to a new site on actin

236
Q

In the Muscle Contraction Cycle, what occurs to change from the Cross-Bridge State to the Power-Stroke State?

A

Inorganic phosphate is released. The myosin heads change conformation, resulting in the power stroke. The filaments slide past each other

237
Q

In the Muscle Contraction Cycle, what occurs to change from the Power-Stroke State to the Attached State?

A

ADP is released

238
Q

The sources of calcium in both cardiac and smooth muscle are the SL and the SR; however, it is only the _____ in skeletal muscle.

A

SR

239
Q

In skeletal muscle, cytosolic calcium can be removed via _____ which pumps out calcium, and ______ which exchanges sodium and calcium.

A

PMCA, NCX

240
Q

_________ is used to re-sequester calcium into the SR.

A

SERCA

241
Q

In the SR, calcium is bound by ________ and _________.

A

calreticulin, calsequestrin

242
Q

PMCA stands for __________.

A

Plasma Membrane Ca2+ ATPase

243
Q

SERCA stands for __________.

A

Sarco/Endoplasmic Reticulum Ca2+ -ATPase

244
Q

SERCA is normally inhibited by ______, with which it is closely associated.

A

phospholamban (PLB)

245
Q

In the NCX, ______ sodium are exchanged for 1 calcium.

A

3

246
Q

In smooth muscle, thromboxane and TXA receptor binding releases ______.

A

Rho

247
Q

In smooth muscle, Rho binds to Rho kinase and activates it. Rho kinase inactivates ________.

A

MLCP (myosin light chain phosphatase)

248
Q

________ is a calcium binding protein that tonically inhibits the ATPase activity of myosin in smooth muscle.

A

Calponin

249
Q

In the smooth muscle, the absence of calcium causes _______ to bind actin.

A

caldesmon

250
Q

In smooth muscle, calcium release from the SR can occur due to calcium-induced calcium release or ___________.

A

IP3 activation of SR calcium channels

251
Q

In smooth muscle, calcium enters the cytoplasm via channels located in _______.

A

caveoli

252
Q

The two types of action potentials in smooth muscle are __________ and ___________.

A

Pacemaker potentials, Oscillation potentials

253
Q

In smooth muscle, acetylcholine release causes ________.

A

contraction via muscarinic receptors

254
Q

In smooth muscle, epinephrine/norepinephrine release causes ________.

A

a variable response, depends on what receptor (alpha, beta adrenergic)

255
Q

In smooth muscle, nitric oxide release causes ________.

A

the production of cGMP, which relaxes smooth muscle

256
Q

In general in smooth muscle, the parasympathetic nervous system ______ (raises/lowers to cause depolarization/hyperpolarization) Vm while the sympathetic nervous system ________ (raises/lowers Vm to causes depolarization/hyperpolarization).

A

Para raises to cause depolarization, sympa lowers to cause hyperpolarization (usually)

257
Q

What are varicosities in smooth muscle?

A

Swellings in nerve fibers that release neurotransmitter when it passes “close” to the smooth muscle cells

258
Q

What is myogenic autoregulation in smooth muscle?

A

It’s a type of intrinsic control where stretching of the smooth muscle cells induces spontaneous depolarization and contraction.

259
Q

What are some examples of humoral control compounds in smooth muscle?

A

angiotensin II, ADH (vasopressin), epinephrine, ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)

260
Q

In smooth muscle, sympathetic activation of α adrenergic receptors primarily causes _________, while β adrenergic receptors causes __________.

A

contraction, relaxation