Muscle Flashcards

1
Q

what are some difference in infants when considering bone growth

A

not fully ossified at birth, make the infants bones more flexible, increased bone healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is an infant muscle development

A

full range of motion, normal muscle tone, deep tendon reflexes present, 25% of total body weight is muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what helps an adolescents muscle development

A

hormones assist in muscle development, they grow rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when does the neural tube start to change and what into

A

at 3-4 weeks it begins to differentiate into brain and spinal cord - puts premature infants at a higher risk for neural tube defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

why do you have to support an infants head

A

because the spine is very mobile especially the cervical spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

when and how does myleinization happen

A

progresses and complete by 2 years of age, proceeds in head to toe (cephalocaudal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the normal findings of an infants legs and feet

A

legs have a bowed appearance, toes fold inward- straighten out by 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

why is hemoglobin/hematocrit important for CBC when looking a muscle development

A

shows where the RBC are created - bone marrow in the long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how is a radiography complete and what is it for

A

two views obtained AP and lateral, detects fractures and other anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the nursing considerations for a radiography

A

calm the child, is there is trauma make sure the cervical spine remains immobilized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is a bone biopsy

A

a procedure where a small sample of the bone is taken from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the considerations for a bone biopsy

A

very painful, informed consent is needed, child is sedated, frequently check post-procedure for pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how does a CT work

A

Non-invasive x-ray study that looks at tissue density and structures. can be used with dye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the considerations for a CT

A

can be lengthy, assess for allergies if dye is being used (iodine or shellfish), encourage fluids after if contrast is used to flush it out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how does an MRI work

A

doesnt require contrast, uses bodys own composition of hydrogen atoms to capture imaging, can assess for inflammation, congenital abnormalities, neural tube defects, hard and soft tissue and bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are some considerations for a MRI

A

remove metal objects from child, child cannot move during scan so sedation might be needed, can be scary for the child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how is congenital clubfoot managed

A

begins at birth, serial casting every 2 weeks, may require corrective shoes/braces, if severe surgery might be needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the ss of congenital clubfoot

A

resembles a golf club, inability to move it into correct position (it will just go back), inversion (turned in) or eversion (turned out)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are some teaching and interventions for congenital clubfoot

A

encourage parent to hold the infant, neurovascular checks, skin integrity, cast care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is development dysplasia of the hip : acetabular dysplasia

A

shallow ir sloping displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is development dysplasia of the hip : sublaxation

A

partial disloaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is development dysplasia of the hip : dislocation

A

total dislocation - no contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the ss of development dysplasia of the hip

A

asymmetrical folds on posterior thigh, limited hip abduction, shortening of femur, positive ortalani test, positive barlow test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is a positive ortalani test

A

put the infant supine and flex the knees 90 degrees at the hip, grasp inner part of thigh and abduct the hips, while applying upward pressure, listen for sounds a clunk sound suggest development hip dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is a positive barlow test

A

the infant in supine, grasp inner thighs, adduct the thighs while applying outward and downward pressure, feel or listen for a clunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are some interventions and teaching for developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

encourage parents to hold child, palvilk harness is the most common, bryant traction, hip spica cast

27
Q

what is the nursing care for a hip spica cast

A

make sure the cast area is clean and dry, preventing cast from getting soiled from diaper changing- skin care is very important

28
Q

what is leg calve perthes disease

A

avascular necrosis of femoral head, boys 4-8 years old

29
Q

what is revascularization in leg calve perthes disease and when does it happen

A

can occur as blood vessels develop, phase is 18-24 months during this time the bone is soft and at risk to fracture during this phase

30
Q

what are the interventions and teaching for leg calce perthes disease

A

maintain shape of femoral head, anti-inflammatories, limit activity, bracing, casting, traction, serial x-rays, no contact sports, promotion of swimming/bicycling to promote mobility of unaffected body part

31
Q

what are the ss of leg calve perthes disease

A

painless limp, mild hip pain, limited ROM, shortening of affected leg, muscle wasting because they arent using the affected leg as much

32
Q

what is osteogenesis imperfecta

A

genetic bone disorder, results in low bone mass, increased fragility of bones and other connective tissue problems,

33
Q

what is classification I osteogenesis imperfecta

A

mild form, 50% of all cases, blue sclera, hearing loss, frequent shoulder/elbow dislocations, after growth complete fractures diminishes, gross motor skill delays

34
Q

what is classification II osteogenesis imperfecta

A

most severe form, lethal die within fist year of life, low birth weight, short limbs, small chest, soft skull, dark blue/gray sclera

35
Q

what is classification III osteogenesis imperfecta

A

most severe nonleathal, sclera white to blue, fractures in utero, results in significant diability, marked short stature

36
Q

what is classification IV osteogenesis imperfecta

A

moderately severe, sclera light blue then lighten to white in teens, fragile bones, may present at birth with in utero fractures or bowing of lower long bones

37
Q

what are the interventions for osteogenesis imperfecta

A

minimize fractures, maintain mobility, fracture care, PT and OT, braces, splints, severe cases may require surgical insertion of steel rods into long bones

38
Q

what is pamidronate (bisphosphonate) med used for

A

used to increase bone mineral density, given at 4 month intervals, causes a decrease in serum calcium level (bc increase in phosphate decreases calcium)

39
Q

what is scoliosis

A

lateral curvature of the spine exceeding 10 degrees, congenital or idiopathic (most often), early screening and detection are key

40
Q

what are the interventions for scoliosis

A

prevent further curvature (brace/surgery), treatment based on age, serial examinations to monitor progression, curvature greater then 25-45 degrees bracing is needed, braces depend on location and severity of the curve

41
Q

what are some surgical interventions for scoliosis

A

insertion of rods and bone grafting or partial fusion with many of corrective surgeries

42
Q

what is the physical assessment of scoliosis

A

asymmetry of shoulders and hips,

43
Q

what is the education for scoliosis

A

compliance with bracing, educate family on putting on and taking off brace, promote positive body image,

44
Q

What are the common sites for fractures

A

forearm and the wrist

45
Q

what fractures can occur at birth

A

midclavicular, humerus, femur fractures

46
Q

where is the most vulnerable portion of the childs bones

A

ephiseal plate - frequently the site of injury

47
Q

what is a buckle fracture

A

not complete- the bone is broken but still connected

48
Q

what is a green stick fracture

A

pulled and twisted - most indicative of abuse

49
Q

Bc child bone are more flexible what does that mean about fractures

A

it takes alot of force to break their bones, but they heal quicker

50
Q

what are some interventions for fractures

A

casting to provide comfort and allow for activity, manual traction may be required for disabled fractures, severe fractures may require traction for a period of time followed by casting, cold therapy, tetanus vaccine ( if no booster in last 5 years), cast care, discourage risky behavior

51
Q

how is an assessment performed for a fracture

A

palpate the joint or injured part - tenderness could indicate a fracture, x-ray will confirm fracture diagnosis

52
Q

what is the education and interventions for casts

A

used for fracture reduction, dislocations or correct a deformity, must do neurovascular checks

53
Q

what is the nursing care for traction

A

frequent neurovascular checks (q4), prevent infection, provide pin site care - chlorhexidine or alcohol with non shedding material

54
Q

where is compartment syndrome normally seen

A

commonly seen in traumatic long bone fractures or crushing injuries

55
Q

what is the nursing care for compartment syndrome

A

frequent neurovascular checks, monitor urinary output, fasciotomy may be required

56
Q

what are the 4 Ps of neurovascular checks

A

pain, pallor, pulses, paresthesia

57
Q

what is osteomyelitis

A

bacterial infection of the bone and soft tissues, inflammatory response,

58
Q

what are the interventions for osteomyelitis

A

aspirate for culture and sensitivity, 4-6 week antibiotic, pain, bed rest,

59
Q

what is the assessment of osteomyelitis

A

pain, fever, ss of worsening infection, redness, edema, warmth, tenderness

60
Q

what kind of pain is helped with acetaminophen

A

mild-moderate pain, most often combined with narcotic such as codeine for increased effect

61
Q

what are the considerations for narcotic analgesics

A

assess pain location/quality/intensity/duration, assess respiratory rate and periodically after, monitor sedation level,

62
Q

what are some side effects of narcotic analgesics

A

nausea, vomiting, constipation, pupil constriction

63
Q

what are the considerations for NSAIDs

A

for mild-moderate pain, administer with water or food to decrease GI upset

64
Q

what are the side effects for NSAIDs

A

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation