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NUR256- 2016 > Multiple choice > Flashcards

Multiple choice Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse should inform the client who has been prescribed a nebuliser treatment with Salbutamol that a common adverse effect is:
A - an increased heart rate with palpations
B - a predisposition to infections
C - sedation
D - temporary dyspnoea

A

The nurse should inform the client who has been prescribed a nebuliser treatment with Salbutamol that a common adverse effect is:
A - an increased heart rate with palpations*
B - a predisposition to infections
C - sedation
D - temporary dyspnoea

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2
Q

The nurse understands that ipratropium bromide is an effective bronchodilator because it:
A -enhances the action of acetycholine
B - stimulates the beta-adrenergic cells in the bronchi
C - antagonises the action of acetycholine
D- blocks the histamine receptor in the bronchi

A

The nurse understands that ipratropium bromide is an effective bronchodilator because it:
A -enhances the action of acetycholine
B - stimulates the beta-adrenergic cells in the bronchi
C - antagonises the action of acetycholine*
D- blocks the histamine receptor in the bronchi

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3
Q

Examples of preventer respiratory medications are:
A - sympathomimetics and IgE monoclonal
B - Methylxanthines and corticosteroids
C - Mast cell stablisers and corticosteroids
D - Antimuscarinics and leukotriene receptor antagonists

A

Examples of preventer respiratory medications are:
A - sympathomimetics and IgE monoclonal
B - Methylxanthines and corticosteroids
C - Mast cell stablisers and corticosteroids*
D - Antimuscarinics and leukotriene receptor antagonists

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4
Q

Examples of corticosteroids used in the treatment of asthma are:
A - Fluticasone, budesonide and aminophylline
B - Beclamethasone, salbutamol and ipratropium
C - Ephedrine, eformetrol and theophylline
D - Budesonide, fluticasone and beclamethasone

A

Examples of corticosteroids used in the treatment of asthma are:
A - Fluticasone, budesonide and aminophylline
B - Beclamethasone, salbutamol and ipratropium
C - Ephedrine, eformetrol and theophylline
D - Budesonide, fluticasone and beclamethasone*

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5
Q 
Symbicort is a combination medication preparation containing:
A - Eformoterol and Budesonide
B - Ipratropium Bromide and Salbutamol
C - Fluticasone and Salmeterol
D - Emformoterol and Fluticasone
A 
Symbicort is a combination medication preparation containing:
A - Eformoterol and Budesonide*
B - Ipratropium Bromide and Salbutamol
C - Fluticasone and Salmeterol
D - Emformoterol and Fluticasone
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6
Q

Glucocorticoids are hormones which:
A- are released in response to high glucose levels
B- help to regulate electrolyte levels
C- help to regulate water balance in the body
D- promote the preservation of energy through increased glucose levels, protein breakdown and fat formation

A

Glucocorticoids are hormones which:
A- are released in response to high glucose levels
B- help to regulate electrolyte levels
C- help to regulate water balance in the body
D- promote the preservation of energy through increased glucose levels, protein breakdown and fat formation*

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7
Q

People who have been receiving corticosteriod therapy for a prolonged period and suddenly stop the drug will experience an adrenal crisis because their adrenal glands will not be producing any adrenal hormones. Your assessment of a person for the possibility of adrenal crisis may include:
A - physiological exhaustion, shock and fluid shift
B - Acne development and hypertension
C - Water retention and speed healing
D - Hyperglycaemia and water retension

A

People who have been receiving corticosteriod therapy for a prolonged period and suddenly stop the drug will experience an adrenal crisis because their adrenal glands will not be producing any adrenal hormones. Your assessment of a person for the possibility of adrenal crisis may include:
A - physiological exhaustion, shock and fluid shift*
B - Acne development and hypertension
C - Water retention and speed healing
D - Hyperglycaemia and water retension

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8
Q 
People who take corticosteroids would be expected to report which of the following:
A - weight gain
B - round or "moon"face appearance
C - feeling of well being
D - Weight loss
E - Excessive hair growth
F - fragile skin
A 
People who take corticosteroids would be expected to report which of the following:
A - weight gain*
B - round or "moon"face appearance*
C - feeling of well being*
D - Weight loss
E - Excessive hair growth
F - fragile skin*
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9
Q 
The primary modifiable risks with hypo tension are:
A) heredity
B) Environmental factors
C) Lifestyle behaviours
D) Genetics
A 
The primary modifiable risks with hypo tension are:
A) heredity
B) Environmental factors
C) Lifestyle behaviours*
D) Genetics
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10
Q 
ACE inhibitors work on the RAAS to prevent the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, because this occurs in the cells in the lungs, which is usually the site of this conversion, use of ACE inhibitors usually result in:
A) spontaneous pneumothorax
B) pneumonia
C) unrelenting cough
D) respiratory distress
A 
ACE inhibitors work on the RAAS to prevent the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, because this occurs in the cells in the lungs, which is usually the site of this conversion, use of ACE inhibitors usually result in:
A) spontaneous pneumothorax
B) pneumonia
C) unrelenting cough*
D) respiratory distress
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11
Q

A person taking an ACE inhibitor is scheduled for surgery. The nurse or midwife should:
A) stop the drug
B) alert the surgeon and mark the persons prominently
C) cancel the surgery and consult the prescriber
D) monitor the fluid levels and make sure the fluid levels are restricted before surgery

A

A person taking an ACE inhibitor is scheduled for surgery. The nurse or midwife should:
A) stop the drug
B) alert the surgeon and mark the persons prominently*
C) cancel the surgery and consult the prescriber
D) monitor the fluid levels and make sure the fluid levels are restricted before surgery

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12
Q

Enalpril is used to lower elevated blood pressure by:
A) blocking beta-adrenergic receptors in the cardiac muscle
B) interfering with the conversion on angiotensin I to angiotensin II
C) directly dilating peripheral arterioles
D) blocking the binding of angiotensin II to its receptors

A

Enalpril is used to lower elevated blood pressure by:
A) blocking beta-adrenergic receptors in the cardiac muscle
B) interfering with the conversion on angiotensin I to angiotensin II*
C) directly dilating peripheral arterioles
D) blocking the binding of angiotensin II to its receptors

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13
Q

The RAAS system is associated with which of the following:
A) intense vasoconstriction and blood pressure elevation
B) blood flow through the kidneys
C) production of surfactant in the lungs
D) release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex
E) retentsion of water and sodium levels in the kidneys
F) liver production of fibrogen

A

The RAAS system is associated with which of the following:
A) intense vasoconstriction and blood pressure elevation*
B) blood flow through the kidneys*
C) production of surfactant in the lungs
D) release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex*
E) retentsion of water and sodium levels in the kidneys*
F) liver production of fibrogen

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14
Q 
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic hypertension, the client is receiving Lostartan daily. Which client manifestations should the nurse conclude is an adverse effect of this medication:
A) irritability and tremors
B) headache and dizziness
C) sleepiness and slurred speech
D) pruritus and rash
A 
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic hypertension, the client is receiving Lostartan daily. Which client manifestations should the nurse conclude is an adverse effect of this medication:
A) irritability and tremors
B) headache and dizziness*
C) sleepiness and slurred speech
D) pruritus and rash
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15
Q

HMG-CoA inhibitors work in the:
A) process of bile secretion
B) process of cholesterol formation in the cell
C) intestinal wall to stop fat absorption
D) kidney to stop fat excretion

A

HMMG-CoA inhibitors work in the:
A) process of bile secretion
B) process of cholesterol formation in the cell*
C) intestinal wall to stop fat absorption
D) kidney to stop fat excretion

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16
Q

Which of the following would the healthcare provider include when teaching a person about HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors:
A) the person will not develop CAD
B) the person might develop cataracts as a result
C) the person will not have a heart attack
D) the person might stop absorbing fat soluble vitamins

A

Which of the following would the healthcare provider include when teaching a person about HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors:
A) the person will not develop CAD
B) the person might develop cataracts as a result*
C) the person will not have a heart attack
D) the person might stop absorbing fat soluble vitamins

17
Q 
The client taking atorvastatin reports weakness and fatigue, pain in the shoulders, and aching joints. The nurse initially assesses the client for which condition:
A) Rhabdomyolysis
B) renal failure
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) hepatic insufficiency
A 
The client taking atorvastatin reports weakness and fatigue, pain in the shoulders, and aching joints. The nurse initially assesses the client for which condition:
A) Rhabdomyolysis*
B) renal failure
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) hepatic insufficiency
18
Q

Teaching a person who is prescribed an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor to treat high cholesterol and high lipid levels should include which of the following:
A) the importance of exercise
B) the need for dietary changes to alter cholesterol levels
C) that taking a statin will allow a full unrestricted diet
D) that drug therapy is always needed when these levels are elevated
E) the importance of controlling blood pressure and blood glucose levels
F) that stopping smoking may help to lower lipid levels

A

Teaching a person who is prescribed an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor to treat high cholesterol and high lipid levels should include which of the following:
A) the importance of exercise*
B) the need for dietary changes to alter cholesterol levels*
C) that taking a statin will allow a full unrestricted diet
D) that drug therapy is always needed when these levels are elevated
E) the importance of controlling blood pressure and blood glucose levels*
F) that stopping smoking may help to lower lipid levels*

19
Q

A person with hyperglycaemia will present with:
A) polyuria, polydiphagia and polydipsia
B) polycythaemia, polyuria and polyphagia
C) polydenitis, polyuria and polydipsia
D) polydipsia, polycythaemia and polyarteritis

A

A person with hyperglycaemia will present with:
A) polyuria, polydiphagia and polydipsia*
B) polycythaemia, polyuria and polyphagia
C) polydenitis, polyuria and polydipsia
D) polydipsia, polycythaemia and polyarteritis

20
Q 
Insulin is available in several forms or suspensions, which differ in their:
A) effects on the pancreas
B) onset and duration of action
C) means of administration
D) tendency to cause adverse effects
A 
Insulin is available in several forms or suspensions, which differ in their:
A) effects on the pancreas
B) onset and duration of action*
C) means of administration
D) tendency to cause adverse effects
21
Q

A client with Type 1 diabetes will use a combination of insulin that include NPH and regular insulin. The nurse is explaining the importance of knowing the peak times for both insulins. Why is this important information for the client to know?
A) The client will be able to estimate the time for the next injection based on peaks
B) the risk of hypoglycaemic reaction is greatest around the peak of insulin activity
C) It is best to plan activities or exercise around peak insulin times for the best utilisation of glucose
D) additional insulin may be required at the peak periods to prevent hyperglycaemia

A

A client with Type 1 diabetes will use a combination of insulin that include NPH and regular insulin. The nurse is explaining the importance of knowing the peak times for both insulins. Why is this important information for the client to know?
A) The client will be able to estimate the time for the next injection based on peaks
B) the risk of hypoglycaemic reaction is greatest around the peak of insulin activity*
C) It is best to plan activities or exercise around peak insulin times for the best utilisation of glucose
D) additional insulin may be required at the peak periods to prevent hyperglycaemia

22
Q

Treatment of diabetes may include which of the following:
A) replacement therapy with insulin
B) control of glucose absorption through the GI tract
C) drugs that stimulate insulin release or increase insulin receptor sites
D) surgical clearance of the capillary basement membranes
E) slowing of gastric emptying
F) diet and exercise programs

A

Treatment of diabetes may include which of the following:
A) replacement therapy with insulin*
B) control of glucose absorption through the GI tract
C) drugs that stimulate insulin release or increase insulin receptor sites*
D) surgical clearance of the capillary basement membranes
E) slowing of gastric emptying
F) diet and exercise programs*

23
Q 
The nurse would consider which of the following assessment findings as adverse affect to specific to metformin therapy:
A) hypoglycaemia
B) gastrointestinal distress
C) lactic acidosis
D) weightloss
A 
The nurse would consider which of the following assessment findings as adverse affect to specific to metformin therapy:
A) hypoglycaemia
B) gastrointestinal distress
C) lactic acidosis*
D) weightloss
24
Q

When teaching a person recerving tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) it is important to remember that TCA’s are associated with many anticholinergic adverse effects. Teaching about these drugs should include anticipation of:
A) increased libido and increased appetite
B) polyuria and polydipsea
C) urinary retention, arrhythmias and constipation
D) hearing changes, cataracts and nightmares

A

When teaching a person recerving tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) it is important to remember that TCA’s are associated with many anticholinergic adverse effects. Teaching about these drugs should include anticipation of:
A) increased libido and increased appetite
B) polyuria and polydipsea
C) urinary retention, arrhythmias and constipation*
D) hearing changes, cataracts and nightmares

25
Q

Drugs that are commonly used to treat grand mal seizures include:
A) barbiturates, benzodiazapines and hydantoins
B) barbiturates, antihistamines and local anaesthetics
C) hydantions and phenobarbitones
D) benzodiazapines and sodium valproate

A

Drugs that are commonly used to treat grand mal seizures include:
A) barbiturates, benzodiazapines and hydantoins*
B) barbiturates, antihistamines and local anaesthetics
C) hydantions and phenobarbitones
D) benzodiazapines and sodium valproate

26
Q 
Haloperidol is a potent antipsychotic that is associated with:
A) severe extrapyramidal effects
B) severe sedation
C) severe hypotension
D) severe anticholinergic
A 
Haloperidol is a potent antipsychotic that is associated with:
A) severe extrapyramidal effects*
B) severe sedation
C) severe hypotension
D) severe anticholinergic
27
Q

Proper administration of an ordered narcotic:
A) Can lead to addiction
B) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger does
C)Would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it
D) should rely on the person’s request for medication

A

Proper administration of an ordered narcotic:
A) Can lead to addiction
B) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger does*
C)Would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it
D) should rely on the person’s request for medication

28
Q

The nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving opioids for pain relief. Which client is at risk of developing hypertension, respiratory depression, and mental confusion?
A) A 23 year old female, postoperative ruptured appendix
B) A 16 year old male, post motorcycle injury with lacerations
C) A 55 year old female, post-myocardial infarction
D) An 86 year old male, postoperative femur fracture

A

The nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving opioids for pain relief. Which client is at risk of developing hypertension, respiratory depression, and mental confusion?
A) A 23 year old female, postoperative ruptured appendix
B) A 16 year old male, post motorcycle injury with lacerations
C) A 55 year old female, post-myocardial infarction
D) An 86 year old male, postoperative femur fracture*

29
Q 
A patient asks if his paracetamol helps with his arthritis "like my aspirin does. Your basic response on the knowledge that pharmacotherapeutic action of paracetamol are:
A) analgesic and antipyretic
B) analgesic and anti inflammatory
C)  Anti inflammatory and anti platelet
D) Antipyretic and and anti-inflammatory
A 
A patient asks if his paracetamol helps with his arthritis "like my aspirin does. Your basic response on the knowledge that pharmacotherapeutic action of paracetamol are:
A) analgesic and antipyretic*
B) analgesic and anti inflammatory
C)  Anti inflammatory and anti platelet
D) Antipyretic and and anti-inflammatory
30
Q 
Naxolone hydrochloride is classified as:
A) opioid analgesic
B) opioid agonist
C) opioid partial agonist
D) opioid antagonist
A 
Naxolone hydrochloride is classified as:
A) opioid analgesic
B) opioid agonist
C) opioid partial agonist
D) opioid antagonist*
31
Q 
The parenteral opioid analgesic that contains the greatest risk for respiratory depression with it's use is:
A) Fentanyl citrate
B) Morphine sulphate
C) Hydromorphone
D) Pethidine
A 
The parenteral opioid analgesic that contains the greatest risk for respiratory depression with it's use is:
A) Fentanyl citrate
B) Morphine sulphate
C) Hydromorphone*
D) Pethidine

NUR256- 2016 (11 decks)

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