MTAP 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Bacteria are prokaryotes or eukaryotes

A

prokaryotes

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2
Q

It is an organism that does not have a true nucleus

A

prokaryotes

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3
Q

prokaryotes have both

A

DNA and RNA

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4
Q

The average size of bacteria

A

0.4 - 2.0 micra

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5
Q

The smallest organism

A

Mycoplasma
Ureaplasma

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6
Q

The largest organism

A

Bacillus

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7
Q

Released by all major gram-positive
organisms

A

Exotoxins

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8
Q

It does not produce exotoxins

A

Listeria

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9
Q

What gram-negative bacteria produce exotoxins

A

Vibrio
E.coli

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10
Q

A toxin that is unstable with heat

A

Exotoxins

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11
Q

A toxin that is stable with heat

A

Endotoxins

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12
Q

A toxin with HIGH toxicity

A

Exotoxins

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13
Q

A toxin with LOW toxicity

A

Endotoxins

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14
Q

Usually excreted or released by living
bacterial cells; does not require cell death
for release

A

Exotoxins

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15
Q

Released only when cells are
destroyed (cell death/lysis)

A

Endotoxins

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16
Q

Examples of Exotoxins

A

Diphtheria toxin
Botulinum toxin
TSST-1
Coagulase

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17
Q

A toxin that kills host cells

A

Cytotoxin

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18
Q

A toxin that destroys cells of GIT

A

Enterotoxin

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19
Q

A bacteria that produces enterotoxin

A

E. coli
S. aureus

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20
Q

Used to detect the
presence of endotoxin

A

Limulus lysate test

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21
Q

The Limulus lysate test uses an aqueous extract of blood cells of

A

Horseshoe crabs

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22
Q

Limulus lysate test positive result

A

Clumping

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23
Q

Slimy area surrounding the cell wall

Responsible for mucoid colonies (encapsulated bacteria)

A

Capsule

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24
Q

A capsular swelling test

A

Neufeld Quellung Test

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25
Q

Capsule (+):

A

Bacillus anthracis
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae

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26
Q

Defines the shape of bacteria; the main component is peptidoglycan

Point of anchorage for flagella

Site of antibiotic action

A

CELL WALL (murein layer, peptidoglycan layer)

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27
Q

The sugars found in cell walls

A

N-acetylglucosamine
N-acetyl muramic acid

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28
Q

Bacteria without cell walls

A

Mycoplasma
Ureaplasma

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29
Q

What bacteria is a T-strain Mycoplasma

A

Ureaplasma urealyticum

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30
Q

Major virulence factor of S. pyogenes

A

M protein

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31
Q

Major virulence factor of S. aureus

A

A protein

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32
Q

Responsible for the acid-fastness of Mycobacterium and prevents digestion during phagocytosis

A

Mycolic acid

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33
Q

Surrounds the cytoplasm; site of energy synthesis

A

Plasma membrane/Cell membrane

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34
Q

For adherence or attachment to host cells

A

Pili or Fimbriae

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35
Q

for gene conjugation (transfer of genetic material)

A

Sex pili

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36
Q

Bacteria that has pili or fimbriae

A

E.coli
N. gonorrhoeae
Pseudomonas

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37
Q

Has terminally located spores

A

C. tetani

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38
Q

has subterminal spores

A

C. botulinum

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39
Q

has centrally located spores

A

B. anthracis

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40
Q

Endospore are resistant to

A

calcium dipicolinate or dipicolinic acid

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41
Q

Microscopes used to visualize spirochetes

A

Fluorescence microscope
Dark field microscope

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42
Q

Ways to demonstrate motility:

A

Hanging drop
Flagellar stains (Gray’s & Leifson)
Semi-solid media (SIM)

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43
Q

single flagellum at one end

A

Monotrichous

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44
Q

single flagellum at both ends

A

Amphitrichous

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45
Q

absence of flagella

A

Atrichous

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46
Q

tuft of flagella at one or both ends

A

Lophotrichous

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47
Q

surrounded with flagella

A

Peritrichous

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48
Q

Monotrichous bacteria

A

Vibrio
Pseudomonas

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49
Q

Amphitrichous bacteria

A

C. jejuni

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50
Q

Lophotrichous bacteria

A

S. maltophilia

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51
Q

Peritrichous bacteria

A

E. coli

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52
Q

With gliding motility

A

Capnocytophaga

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53
Q

With darting motility

A

Campylobacter

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54
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae granules

A

Babes Ernst Granules

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55
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis granules

A

Much granules

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56
Q

Yersinia pestis granules

A

Bipolar bodies

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57
Q

Nocardia and Actinomycetes granules

A

Sulfur granules

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58
Q

Extrachromosomal DNA carries an antibiotic-resistant gene

A

Plasmid

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59
Q

confers resistance to beta lactams

A

Large plasmid

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60
Q

confers resistance to tetracycline and chloramphenicol

A

Small plasmid

61
Q

Can be used for cell wall deficient organism

A

Acridine orange

62
Q

Aerobe and Catalase (+)

A

Bacillus

63
Q

Anaerobe and Catalase (-)

A

Clostridium

64
Q

Aerobe and Catalase reagent

A

15% H2O2

65
Q

Uses inorganic compounds as
carbon source i.e. carbon dioxide

A

Autotrophs/Litotrophs

66
Q

Uses organic compounds as carbon
source i.e. glucose

A

Heterotrophs/Organotrophs

67
Q

Facultative anaerobes bacteria

A

Enterobacteriaceae

68
Q

Microaerophilic bacteria

A

Streptococci
Campylobacter
Spirochetes

69
Q

Obligate Aerobes

A

Brucella
Mycobacterium
Francisella

70
Q

Can tolerate cold enrichment

A

Yersinia enterocolitica
Listeria

71
Q

Incubation temperature for most bacteria and viruses

A

37 degree celsius

72
Q

Incubation temperature for fungi

A

Room Temperature

73
Q

Incubation temperature and time for aerobes

A

37 degree celsius for 18-24 hours

74
Q

Incubation temperature and time for anaerobes

A

37 degree celsius for 24-48 hours

75
Q

Blood bag contaminants at 4 degree celsius

A

Pseudomonas fluorescens
Yersinia enterocolitica
Serratia liquefaciens

76
Q

pH of media for fungi

A

pH 5-6

77
Q

Salt concentration of Enterococci

A

6.5%

78
Q

Salt concentration of Vibrio

A

8-10%

79
Q

Salt concentration of S. aureus

A

7.5%

80
Q

Increase in size but not in number

A

Lag phase or Rejuvenescence phase

81
Q

to sterilize used and unused media

A

121C, 15 psi, 15-30 minutes

82
Q

to sterilize medical waste

A

132C, 15 psi, 30-60 minutes

83
Q

100C for 30 minutes, for 3 consecutive days

Uses: flowing steam

A

TYNDALLIZATION

84
Q

75-80C for 2 hours, for 3 consecutive days

A

INSPISSATION

85
Q

Fractional sterilization will kill:

A

1st: vegetative cells
2nd: Spores
3rd: Remaining cells

86
Q

IONIZING RADIATION/COLD STERILIZATION indicator

A

Bacillus pumilus

87
Q

Commonly used antiseptic (but not the best)

A

70% ethyl alcohol or
isopropyl alcohol

88
Q

Regarded as the best antiseptic

Iodine + detergent

A

Iodophors

89
Q

used for cleansing of wounds

A

10% hydrogen peroxide

90
Q

anticoagulant used in viral culture, may inhibit gram positive organisms and yeast

A

Heparin

91
Q

To maintain an accurate colony count, if there is a delay in the processing of urine, this
preservative may be added

A

Boric acid

92
Q

Viral PCR anticoagulant

A

EDTA

93
Q

Not to be used in microbiology

A

EDTA
Citrate

94
Q

0.025% SPS inhibits what bacteria

A

Neisseria
G. vaginalis
P. anaerobius

95
Q

Spore stains

A

Schaeffer and Fulton

96
Q

Schaeffer and Fulton primary stain

A

Malachite green

97
Q

Capsular stains

A

Muir
Anthony’s
Tyler
Hiss

98
Q

Flagellar stains

A

Gray’s and Leifson
Fisher and Conn

99
Q

Nucleic acid stain

A

Feulgen

100
Q

Polar bodies stain

A

Wayson

101
Q

Spirochetes stain

A

Fontana-Tribondeau
Warthin-Starry
Levaditi

102
Q

Most critical step in gram staining

A

Decolorization

103
Q

Intracellular organism

A

Rickettsiae
Chlamydia

104
Q

Considered as the best for DSSM (direct sputum smear microscopy)

A

Ziehl-Neelsen/Hot Method

105
Q

Best method to stain AF organisms
in tissues

A

Kinyoun’s/Cold Method

106
Q

Most sensitive method for AFB

A

Audamine Rhodamine (Fluorochrome)

107
Q

Example of Liquid media

A

Brain-heart infusion
Nutrient broth
Alkaline peptone water

108
Q

Example of Biphasic media

A

Castaneda (for Brucella)
Human blood bilayer tween

109
Q

Agar solidifies at what temperature

A

40-50C

110
Q

Agar melts at what temperature

A

80-90C

111
Q

to differentiate M. smegmatis (blue) from M. tuberculosis (red)

A

Pappenheim’s (urine)

112
Q

to differentiate M. leprae (red) from M. tuberculosis (blue)

A

Baumgarten’s (tissue)

113
Q

M. leprae (used as counterstain is hematoxylin)

A

Fite Faraco’s

114
Q

Bacteria that use sheep blood agar

A

Streptococci

115
Q

Bacteria that use horse blood agar

A

Haemophilus

116
Q

Bacteria that uses human blood agar

A

G. vaginalis

117
Q

A medium for M. tuberculosis; inhibitor is Malachite Green

A

Lowenstein Jensen

118
Q

A medium for C. diphtheriae; inhibitor is Potassium tellurite

A

Cystine Tellurite Blood
Agar (CTBA)

119
Q

For Streptococci
Bacitracin Chocolate agar – for Haemophilus

A

Gentamicin blood agar

120
Q

An agar for Aeromonas

A

Blood agar with
ampicillin

121
Q

Prevent swarming organisms

A

Chloral hydrate

122
Q

Selective enrichment media for S. agalactiae in female genital specimens

Used to detect genital carriage of Group B Streptococci during pregnancy

A

TODD-HEWITT BROTH

123
Q

An agar for gram positive organisms

A

CNA (COLUMBIA-COLISTIN-NALIDIXIC ACID)

124
Q

Standard inoculum for broth dilution

A

5 x 10^5 CFU/mL

125
Q

Standard inoculum for agar dilution

A

1 x 10^4 CFU/mL

126
Q

0.5 McFarland Standard composition

A

0.5 mL of barium chloride
99.5 mL of 1% sulfuric acid

127
Q

Used to detect the ability of the organism to produce the enzyme beta
lactamase

A

CEPHALOSPORINASE TEST

128
Q

Also known as: Duran Raynal factor

A

Hyaluronidase

129
Q

An enzyme that promote destruction of WBCs

A

PVL/Panton Valentine Leukocidin

130
Q

An emerging pathogen of immunocompromised patients causing endocarditis and bacteremia

A

Stomatococcus

131
Q

Test to determine if rashes are due to scarlet fever or not

A

Schultz Charlton
Test Or Blanche
Phenomenon

132
Q

Susceptibility test for Scarlet fever

To determine if the patient is at risk for developing
scarlet fever

Positive: erythema (redness) at the site of injection

A

Dick’s test

133
Q

Detects hydrolysis of sodium hippurate to benzoic acid and glycine

A

HIPPURATE TEST

134
Q

Screening test for Group D Non-Enterococci and Enterococci

A

Bile Esculin test

135
Q

Flesh-eating bacteria

Major throat pathogen

Diseases caused: pharyngitis /Strep throat; Necrotizing fasciitis, Erysipelas
(a skin infection), Scarlet fever

A

GROUP A - Streptococcus pyogenes

136
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis is also known as

A

galloping gangrene

137
Q

Erysipeloid is caused by

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

138
Q

manifest with “strawberry tongue”

A

Scarlet fever

139
Q

Repeated episodes of pharyngitis cause what post-sequalae complications

A

Acute glomerulonephritis or Bright’s disease
Rheumatic fever

140
Q

Regarded as the # 1 cause of Neonatal meningitis

A

GROUP B - Streptococcus agalactiae

141
Q

Reverse CAMP test is for

A

Clostridium perfringens

142
Q

The reagent sodium hippurate is hydrolyzed into two end products

A

benzoic acid and glycine

143
Q

Regarded as # 1 cause of adult bacterial meningitis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

144
Q

Skin test for pneumonia

A

Francis test

145
Q

Test that will differentiate Pneumococci from other alpha-hemolytic Streptococci

A

Optochin Disk Test

146
Q

Major throat flora

Cause subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)

Normal flora of the URT, GIT, and GUT

A

Viridans streptococci

147
Q

All Neisseria are catalase and cytochrome oxidase test (+) except

A

N. elongata

148
Q
A