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BACTERIOLOGY LECTURE > MTAP > Flashcards

MTAP Flashcards

1
Q

Specimen collection should be obtained during

A

Acute phase of infection (within 2-3 days for viruses).

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2
Q

Specimen collection should be collected before administration of

A

Antibiotics

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3
Q

For anaerobes, the preferred swab is

A

Aspirates

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4
Q

Specimens should be transported to the laboratory within

A

30mins -2 hours

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5
Q

The most temperature-sensitive bacteria is

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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6
Q

The most pH-sensitive bacteria is

A

Shigella

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7
Q

It is a transport medium that is used for both viral and bacterial transportation

A

Stuart transport medium

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7
Q

What are the examples of transport medium

A

Cary-Blair
Amies
Stuart

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8
Q

The examples of transport medium for virus

A

Earl’s transport medium
Hank’s transport medium

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9
Q

Viruses, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma should be stored at what temperature

A

4 degree celcius

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10
Q

Improper swab for Viruses and Chlamydia

A

Calcium alginate

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11
Q

It is a swab that is not appropriate for Chlamydia

A

Wood swab

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12
Q

It is a swab that is not appropriate for Neisseria, Bordetella, and other Obligate Anaerobes

A

Cotton swabs

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13
Q

Cotton swab is not appropriate for

A

Neisseria
Bordetella
and other Obligate Anaerobes

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14
Q

What is the growth inhibitor of cotton swab

A

Fatty acids

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15
Q

A preservative that is not used for bacterial examination but for ova & parasite examination

A

Formalin
Polyvinyl Alcohol

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16
Q

A ranking a microorganism’s ability to cause injury through disease

A

Risk groups

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17
Q

The agents not associated with disease in healthy adult humans.

A

Risk Group 1

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18
Q

What BSC is used for Risk Group 1

A

Biosafety Cabinet Class 1

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19
Q

The agents associated with human disease that is rarely serious and for which preventive or therapeutic interventions are often available.

A

Risk Group 2

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20
Q

What BSC is used for Risk Group 2

A

Biosafety Cabinet Class 2

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21
Q

It is the most commonly used BSC

A

Biosafety Cabinet Class 2

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22
Q

The agents associated with serious or lethal human diseases for which preventive or therapeutic interventions may be available (high individual risk but low community risk)

A

Risk Group 3

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23
Q

What BSC is used for Risk Group 3

A

Biosafety Cabinet Class 3

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24
Q

The agents likely to cause serious or lethal human diseases for which preventive or therapeutic interventions are not usually available (high individual risk and high community risk).

A

Risk Group 4

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25
Q

What BSC is used for Risk Group 4

A

Biosafety Cabinet Class 3

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26
Q

Risk Group 4 examples of pathogens

A

Ebola virus
Monkeypox virus

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27
Q

HEPA exhaust system that removes
particles equal to, or greater than to

A

0.3 microns

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28
Q

A hood with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters that provide personnel, environmental, and/or product protection when appropriate practices and procedures are followed.

A

HEPA filter

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29
Q

HEPA efficiency is

A

99.97%

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30
Q

Homogenization means

A

grinding or mincing of tissue specimen

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31
Q

Example of Solid Media

A

Blood Agar Plate

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32
Q

It is a medium for the culture of Salmonella

A

Selenite broth

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32
Q

Example of Liquid Media

A

Nutrient broth
Selenite broth

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33
Q

Example of Semi-solid media

A

Sulfide Indole Motility (SIM) Media

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34
Q

Examples of Basic Media

A

Nutrient broth
Nutrient agar
Saboraud’s broth (fungi; dextrose
agar)

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35
Q
  • All-purpose medium
  • Almost all organism can be cultured
A

Basic Media

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36
Q

Examples of Enriched Media

A

Blood Agar Plate
Chocolate Agar Plate

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37
Q

It is also known Nutritive Medium

A

Enriched Media

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38
Q

Used to support the growth of fastidious organism

A

Enriched Media

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39
Q

Organisms that grow on Enriched media

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Haemophilus influenzae

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40
Q

A type of culture medium that allows the growth of specific organisms while inhibiting growth of others

A

Selective culture medium

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41
Q

What is the inhibitor of MacConkey Agar

A

Crystal violet
Bile Salts

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42
Q

A culture medium the same as enriched media but different in consistency

A

Enrichment media

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43
Q

Enrichment media example

A

Selenite broth

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44
Q

A culture medium that differentiates organisms based on their appearance

A

Differential culture medium

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45
Q

It shows partial hemolysis

A

Alpha hemolysis

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46
Q

Alpha hemolysis shows

A

partial hemolysis (greenish)

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47
Q

It shows complete hemolysis (clear/colorless)

A

Beta hemolysis

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48
Q

It shows no hemolysis

A

Gamma hemolysis

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49
Q

What is an example of anaerobic medium

A

Thioglycollate

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50
Q

Anaerobic medium is also known as

A

Reduced medium

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51
Q
  • more commonly known as LJ medium
  • growth medium specially used for culture of Mycobacterium species, notably
    Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
A

Lowenstein-Jensen medium

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52
Q

General-purpose media that are commonly used for fungal culture are

A

Sabouraud dextrose (SDA)
Malt extract
Brain Heart Infusion (BHI)

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53
Q

It is used for systemic fungi culture medium

A

Brain Heart Infusion (BHI)

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54
Q

What is added to prevent contamination of the medium by bacteria

A

Chloramphenicol

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55
Q

What is the temperature range for the culture of fungi

A

28-30 degree celcius

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56
Q

What is the temperature range for the culture of most the bacteria, viruses, and acid-fast bacillus

A

35-37 degree celcius

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57
Q

Contents of culture media for aerobic microorganisms

A

21% Oxygen
0.03% Carbon dioxide

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58
Q

Contents of culture media for anaerobic microorganisms

A

5-10% Hydrogen
5-10% Carbon dioxide
80-90% Nitrogen
0% Oxygen

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59
Q

what is the duration of incubation?

A

16-24 hours

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60
Q

What is the steps of gram staining

A

Crystal violet
Iodine
Acetone alcohol
Safranin

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61
Q

What are the examples of stains?

A

Gram stain
Acid-fast stain
Modified acid-fast stain
Acridine orange
KOH and calcofluor-white

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62
Q

Is a distribution of bacterial cells on a slide for the purpose of viewing them under the microscope.

A

Smear

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63
Q

Prolonged heat fixation causes what

A

Vacuolation

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64
Q

The inventor of gram-stain

A

Hans Christian Gram

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65
Q

What is the color of gram-positive bacteria

A

violet blue

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66
Q

What is the color of gram-negative bacteria

A

red/pink

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67
Q

What is the color of acid-fast organism

A

red/pink

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68
Q

What is the color of non-acid-fast organism

A

blue/violet

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69
Q

What is the hot method of acid-fast stain

A

Ziehl Neelsen method

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70
Q

What is the cold method of acid-fast stain

A

Kinyoun Method

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71
Q

What is the primary stain of acid-fast stain

A

Carbolfuchsin

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72
Q

What is the counter stain of acid-fast stain

A

Methylene blue/Malachite green

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73
Q

What is the remarks of AFB grading of 0

A

No AFB seen in 300 OIO field

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74
Q

What is the remarks of AFB grading of +n

A

1-9 AFB seen in 100 OIO field

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75
Q

What is the remarks of AFB grading of +1

A

10-99 AFB seen in 100 OIO field

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76
Q

What is the remarks of AFB grading of +2

A

1-10 AFB seen in 50 OIO field

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77
Q

Is a method of staining acid-fast microorganisms, specifically
Mycobacterium and Nocardia and cryptosporidium oocyst.

A

Kinyoun method

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78
Q

What is the remarks of AFB grading of +3

A

> 10 AFB seen in 20 OIO field

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79
Q

Kinyoun method is used to detect what microorganisms

A

Mycobacterium
Nocardia
Cryptosporidium oocyst

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80
Q

What is the mordant used in Kinyoun method

A

Tergitol

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81
Q

It is an inexpensive fungal test to differentiate dermatophytes and Candida albicans symptoms from other skin disorders like psoriasis and eczema.

A

KOH wet mount preparation

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82
Q

KOH wet mount preparation is used to differentiate what fungi

A

Dermatophytes and Candida albicans

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83
Q

What is the content of KOH preparation

A

10g = KOH
10ml = Glycerin
80ml = Distilled water

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84
Q

What is the used of KOH in KOH wet mount preparation

A

To clear the sample

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85
Q

What is the term of fungal nail infection

A

Onicomycosis

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86
Q

What is required in KOH prep with calcofluor white

A

Fluorescent microscope

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87
Q

What color is produced in KOH prep with calcofluor white

A

Chalk white
Brilliant apple green

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88
Q

It is a dye that intercalates or binds with the nucleic acid (either DNA or RNA) present in organisms and fluoresce to emit various colors that help differentiate cellular organelles.

A

Acridine orange

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89
Q

What is emitted when acridine orange is bounded to dsDNA

A

Green fluorescence

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90
Q

What is emitted when acridine orange is bounded to ssDNA or RNA

A

Red fluorescence

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90
Q

What is emitted when acridine orange bound to bacteria and yeast

A

bright orange

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91
Q

What is emitted when acridine orange is bound to Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Orange or Red with yellow-green nucleus

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91
Q

The family of micrococci includes

A

Staphylococci
MIcrococci
Stomatococcus (animals)
Planococcus (animals)

92
Q

It can be visualized on acridine orange staining

A

Mycoplasma
Ureaplasma

93
Q

What is the arrangement of Micrococci

A

Tetrads
Sarcina

94
Q

What is the alternative for 5% sheep blood agar

A

Horse’s blood
Rabbit’s blood

95
Q

It is a small zone of alpha hemolysis surrounded by a zone of beta hemolysis after refrigeration

A

Alpha prime hemolysis

96
Q

It is an enzyme that causes intravascular hemolysis

A

hemolysins

97
Q

The purpose of this media is an enrichment of the pigment production of Staphylococcus

A

Loeffler’s Serum Slant

98
Q

What is the pigment of S. aureus

A

Golden-yellow pigment

99
Q

What is the pigment of S. citreus

A

Lemon-yellow pigment

100
Q

What is the pigment of S. albus

A

Porcelain-white pigment

101
Q

Specific for S. aureus and Differential

A

Mannitol Salt Agar

102
Q

What is the carbohydrate of MSA

A

Mannitol

103
Q

What is indicator of MSA

A

Phenol Red

104
Q

Inhibitor of MSA

A

7.5% NaCl

105
Q

Give the example of CoNS

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus saprophyticus

106
Q

Classic test that Differentiates Staphylococcus and Streptococcus

A

Catalase test

107
Q

Catalase test reagent

A

3% H2O2

108
Q

The positive result of Catalase test

A

bubbling formation
effervescence
gas bubbles

109
Q

Catalase test positive organism

A

Staphylococcus
Micrococcus

110
Q

On acridine orange stain, Human epithelial and inflammatory cells and tissue debris appear

A

pale green to yellow.

111
Q

Reagent of Modified Oxidase Test/Microdase Test

A

1%tetramethylparaphenylenediaminedihydrochloride in dimethylsulfoxide
(DMSO)

112
Q

Indicator of microdase test

A

Bromthymol blue

113
Q

A bacteria is positive in microdase test

A

Micrococcus luteus

114
Q

Most definitive test/determinant to S. aureus (+)

A

Coagulase test

115
Q

It detects cell bounded coagulase/clumping factor

A

Slide coagulase test (screening)

116
Q

It detects free coagulase

A

Tube coagulase test (confirmatory)

117
Q

Enzyme that can possibly dissolve clot

A

Fibrinolysin / Staphylokinase

118
Q

cell wall, anti-phagocytic, virulence factor of S. aureus

A

Protein A

119
Q

1 wound infection

#1 osteomyelitis (septic arthritis)

A

S. aureus

120
Q

S. aureus is resistant to what antibiotics

A

Beta-lactam (CEFOXITIN)

121
Q

Treatment for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

122
Q

Detects DNase (deoxyribonuclease)

A

DNase test

123
Q

It degrades DNA

A

DNase

124
Q

What are the DNase positive bacteria

A

Serratia marcescence
Moraxella catarrhalis
Aeromonas
Streptococcus pyogenes
Helicobacter pylori
Vibrio cholerae
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
Staphylococcus aureus

125
Q

Differentiates: (CoNs) Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus; Identification of
Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

Novobiocin Test (5ug)

126
Q

A bacteria that causes endocarditis (associated with Prosthetic Heart Valve Surgery infection)

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

127
Q

A bacteria that is considered as blood culture contaminant

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

128
Q

A bacteria that causes UTI in young women

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

129
Q

Novobiocin zone mm for resistant

A

less than 16 mm

130
Q

A test that detects specific antigens of S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, N. gonorrheoae and
H. influenzae

A

Staph A Coagglutination Test

131
Q

Staph A Coagglutination Test positive bacterias

A

S. pneumoniae
N. meningitidis
N. gonorrheoae
H. influenzae

132
Q

It inhibits phagocytosis

A

protein A

133
Q

it destroys stratum granulosum of skin (SSS - Scalded Skin Syndrome)

A

exfoliatin

134
Q

white “pinpoint” colonies on SBA

A

Streptococci

135
Q

selective medium for streptococci

A

Phenyl Ethyl Alcohol Agar (PEA)

136
Q

medium of choice for streptococci

A

SBA

137
Q

It is based on the antigens (polysaccharides or carbohydrates) present on the surface of their cell wall (A, B, C, D)

A

Lancefield frouping

138
Q

it is based on hemolytic reactions (a,b, y)

A

Smith and Brown’s grouping

139
Q

A classification of streptococci based on temperature

A

Bergey’s grouping

140
Q

cell wall, anti-phagocytic, virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes (group A)

A

M-protein

141
Q

O2 labile, Antigenic, anerobic, lytic

A

Streptolysin O

142
Q

O2 stable, Non-antigenic

A

Streptolysin S

143
Q

Result of Streptococcus pyogenes on Bacitracin test

A

Susceptible (+)

144
Q

What toxin that causes scarlet fever

A

Erythrogenic toxin

145
Q

The leading cause of flesh-eating bacteria (necrotizing fasciitis)

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

146
Q

Disease-associated of Streptococcus pyogenes (group A) infection

A

Rheumatic Heart Disease/ Rheumatic Fever
Acute Glomerulonephritis (AGN)

147
Q

The bacteria that is common in mother-baby transmission

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (group B)

148
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae is the #1 cause of

A

Neonatal meningitis

149
Q

It differentiates Group D from other Streptococcus; presumptive test for Group D

A

Bile Esculin Hydrolysis Test

150
Q

The indicator of Bile Esculin Hydrolysis Test

A

Ferric ammonium citrate

151
Q

The medium of Bile Esculin Agar (BEA) composition

A

40% bile and Esculin

152
Q

What is the positive control of Bile Esculin Hydrolysis Test

A

Enterococcus faecalis

153
Q

(+) result of CAMP Test

A

Arrow-head zone of β-hemolysis

154
Q

Bacteria that are CAMP test (+)

A

Streptococcus agalactiae
Listeria monocytogenes
Helicobacter pylori

155
Q

what is the indicator of Sodium-Hippurate Hydrolysis Test

A

Ninhydrin reagent

156
Q
  • Best test to identify S. pyogenes
  • Test to differentiate Group A from Group B Streptococcus
A

Bacitracin Susceptibility Test (Taxo A)

157
Q

What group is susceptible (+) to bacitracin

A

Group A

158
Q

What group is susceptible (+) Sulfamethoxazole

A

Group C, F and G

159
Q

What bacteria has capsule as virulence factor

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

160
Q

causative agent of Lobar pneumonia / pneumococcal pneumonia / Diplococcus
pneumonia (#1 community acquired pneumonia in the Philippines)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

161
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the #1 causative agent of

A

adult bacterial meningitis
otitis media

162
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae causes

A

Meningitis
Otitis media
Pneumonia
Sinusitis

163
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the normal flora of

A

nasopharynx
oropharynx

164
Q

It causes Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE)

A

Viridans

165
Q

Bacteria that causes dental plaques/caries

A

Streptococcus mutans

166
Q

An antibiotic that is used to identify S. pneumoniae

A

Optochin Disk Test (Taxo P)

167
Q

Optochin Disk Test (Taxo P) zone of inhibition

A

> 14 mm

168
Q

Detects pneumococcal antibody; skin test for S. pneumoniae infection

A

Francis test

169
Q

Detects erythrogenic antigen; skin test for S. pyogenes infection;

A

Dick’s test

170
Q

A skin test and immunity test for scarlet fever that uses antitoxin to the
erythrogenic toxin of S. pyogenes subcutaneously;

A

Schultz-Charlton Test

171
Q

A positive result on Schultz-Charlton Test

A

Blanching (rash fade)

172
Q

A positive result on Dick’s test

A

Redness

173
Q

Neisseria spp. are catalase positive except

A

Neisseria elongata

174
Q

Neisseria spp. on superoxol test

A

Positive

175
Q

Transport system for Neisseria

A

JEMBEC system

176
Q

Pigmented Neisseria

A

Neisseria subflava
Neisseria flavescens

177
Q

How many percent of carbon dioxide Neisseria spp. needs

A

5-10% CO2

178
Q

It is presumptive (screening) test for gram negative cocci

A

Oxidase test/Taxo N

179
Q

Reagent of Superoxol Catalase Test

A

30%H2O2

180
Q

What is the virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Pili

181
Q

also known as super bug

A

(PPNG) penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrheoa

182
Q

Neisseria meningitidis virulence factor

A

Capsule
Endotoxin

183
Q

What are the serotypes of N. meningitidis

A

A
B
C
Y
W135

184
Q

Meningococcemia can lead to

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

185
Q

Causative agent of Waterhouse- Friderichsen Syndrome

A

N. meningitidis

186
Q

It is the disease of the adrenal gland caused by N. meningitidis

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome

187
Q

A bacteria with former names: Neisseria catarrhalis or Branhamella catarrhalis

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

188
Q
  • It is Tributyrin Hydrolysis (Butyrate Esterase Disc Test) = (+)
  • Assacharolytic – most of sugars; cannot ferment
A

Moraxella catarrhalis

189
Q

The #3 most causative agent of otitis media

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

190
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis culture media

A

Cysteine Trypticase Agar (CTA)

191
Q

What is the indicator of Cysteine Trypticase Agar (CTA)

A

Phenol red

192
Q

Thayer-Martin Agar (TMA) composition

A

CAP with
Vancomycin
Colistin
Nystatin

193
Q

Modified TMA composition

A

CAP with
Vancomycin
Colistin
Nystatin
Trimethoprim

194
Q

NYC Agar composition

A

CAP with
Vancomycin
Colistin
Amphotericin B
Trimethoprim

195
Q

Martin-Lewis Agar composition

A

CAP with
Vancomycin
Colistin
Anisomycin
Trimethoprim

196
Q

what is the #1 blood culture contaminant

A

Propionibacterium acnes (Cutibacterium acnes)

197
Q

Causative agent of bacterial vaginitis

A

Mobiluncus
Garnerella vaginalis

198
Q

A bacteria with horse manure odor

A

C. difficile

199
Q

A bacteria with breadcrumb colony

A

Fusobacterium nucleatum

200
Q

A bacteria with Molar tooth colonies,
sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces israelli

201
Q

A bacteria that causes pitting agar

A

Bacteroides ureolyticus

202
Q

All Enterobacteriaceae are motile except

A

Klebsiella
Shigella

203
Q

All Enterobacteriaceae are catalase-positive except

A

Shigella dysenteriae

204
Q

All Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase-negative except

A

Vibrio
Pleisiomonas
Aeromonas

205
Q

All Enterobacteriaceae are nitrate-positive except

A

Erwinia
Pantoea agglomerans

206
Q

Enterobacteriaceae that are H2S producers

A

Salmonella
Proteus
Arizona
Citrobacter freundii
Edwardsiella

207
Q

Bacteria that are Rapid Urease

A

Proteus
Providencia
Morganella

208
Q

Rapid urease reacts within

A

2 hours

209
Q

Bacteria that are Slow urease

A

Citrobacter
Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Yersinia
Serratia

210
Q

rapid test to detect β-galactosidase

A

ONPG test

211
Q

Bacteria that are Late lactose fermenters

A

Salmonella arizonae
Shigella sonnei
Hafnia
Yersinia
Citrobacter
Serratia

212
Q

1 cause of UTI

A

Escherichia coli

213
Q

2 cause of meningitis in infant

A

Escherichia coli K2

214
Q

Causative agent of Montezuma revenge (Turista or Traveller’s diarrhea)

causes “Childhood diarrhea”

A

ETEC

215
Q

causes dysentery – painful passage of stool

Causes Shigella-like infection or diarrhea (invasin)

A

EIEC

216
Q

Other name: VTEC - Verotoxin Escherichia coli

A

EHEC

217
Q

Most virulent strains of E.coli

A

O157:H7

218
Q

source of OX2 and OX19

A

Proteus vulgaris

219
Q

source of OXK

A

Proteus mirabilis

220
Q

can be isolated from cold and warm blooded animals (tilapia)

A

Edwardsiella tarda

221
Q

Yersinia pestis vector

A

Xenopsylla cheopsis (rat flea)

222
Q

Yersinia pestis inclusion bodies

A

bipolar bodies (safety pin appearance)

223
Q

Yersinia pestis stain

A

Wayson

224
Q

1 blood bag contaminant

causes zoonotic infections through ingestion of unpasteurized milk

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

225
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica appearance

A

bull’s eye appearance/colony

226
Q

1 ICU (Intensive Care Unit) isolate

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

227
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the causative agent of

A

Whirlpool dermatitis / “Jacuzzi” Hot Tub Syndrome

228
Q

Causative agent of “Vietnamese Time Bomb Disease”

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

229
Q

A bacteria with common name of Pfieffer’s Bacillus

A

Haemophilus influenzae

230
Q

A bacteria with Seagull wings appearance

A

Campylobacter

231
Q

Causative agent of chancroid or soft chancre

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

232
Q
A

BACTERIOLOGY LECTURE (5 decks)

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