MSK Flashcards

1
Q

2 major divisions of arthritis

A

OA (degenerative)
inflammation

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2
Q

3 main causes of joint inflammation

A
  1. infection
  2. crystal arthritis
  3. immune mediated (autoimmune)
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3
Q

which one is primary joint inflammation

A

autoimmune

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4
Q

which one is secondary joint inflammation

A

infection and crystal arthritis

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5
Q

examples of infection in joint inflammation (2)

A

septic arthritis
TB

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6
Q

examples of crystals arthritis in joint inflammation (2)

A

gout
pseudogout

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7
Q

which are sterile joint inflammation

A

crystal arthritis
autommune

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8
Q

which are non sterile joint inflammation

A

septic arthritis
TB

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9
Q

speed of onset of OA

A

slow

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10
Q

speed of onset of immune mediated arthritis

A

subacute

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11
Q

speed of onset of crystal arthritis and septic arthritis

A

rapid

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12
Q

which arthritis has both CRP & WCC elevated

A

septic arthritis

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13
Q

what is the key investigation of septic arthritis

A

joint aspiration and send fluid for gram stain and culture

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14
Q

management of septic arthritis

A

lavage (joint washout) and IV antibiotics

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15
Q

what are the 3 kinds of autoimmune arthritis

A
  1. lupus
  2. seronegative arthritis
  3. rheumatoid arthritis
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16
Q

where is the primary site of pathology of RA

A

synovium

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17
Q

where can synovium be found

A

synovial joints
tenosynovium surrounding tendons
bursa

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18
Q

sex bias of RA

A

F:M = 2:1

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19
Q

features of RA (4)

A

polyarthritis
chronic
pain, swelling, morning stiffness
joint erosions

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20
Q

what are detected in blood in RA

A

autoantibodies

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21
Q

what is the strongest genetic risk factor in RA

A

HLA-DR

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22
Q

what are in HLA class 1

A

HLA class A, B , C

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23
Q

what are in HLA class 2

A

HLA class D

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24
Q

where are HLA class 1 expressed on

A

all cells

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25
Q

what are associated with HLA class 1

A

CD8 killer cells

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26
Q

where are HLA class 2 expressed on

A

only on APCs eg dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells

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27
Q

what are associated with HLA class 2

A

CD4 helper cells with B cells

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28
Q

HLA class 1 associate with which disease in RA

A

ankylosing spondylitis

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29
Q

which HLA associate with ankylosing spondylitis

A

HLA-B27

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30
Q

why autoantibodies in RA but no ankylosing spondylitis

A

HLA class 2 implicates CD4 T cells and B cells

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31
Q

RA pattern of joint involvement (symmetry or not, how many joints, large or small joint)

A

symmetrical
polyarthritis
always small joints invovled

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32
Q

where do RA most commonly affect

A

hand and feet

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33
Q

common affected joints by RA

A

MCPJ
PIPJ
wrists
knees
ankles
MTPJ

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34
Q

which arthritis associate with morning stiffness

A

RA

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35
Q

which arthritis associate with worse with activities

A

OA

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36
Q

which joints are affected by OA

A

DIPJ
PIPJ
thumb CMCJ
MCPJ

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37
Q

what are some systemic symptoms of RA

A

fatigue
fever
weight loss

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38
Q

what are some organ-specific extra-articular features of RA

A

subcutaneous nodules
lung diseases (ILD, fibrosis, pleuritis)
vasculitis
neuropathies
amyloidosis
ocular inflammation (eye episcleritis)
felty’s syndrome

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39
Q

where are subcutaneous nodules found in RA

A

central area of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by histiocytes and peripheral layer of connective tissues

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40
Q

what can be found in RA in blood

A

rheumatoid factors (Ab that bind to IgG)
anti CCP antibodies

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41
Q

what is pannus in RA

A

synovium becomes proliferated mass of tissue due to neovascularisation, lymphangiogenesis, inflammatory cells

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42
Q

what cells does healthy synovial membrane has

A

macrophage like (type A synoviocyte)
fibroblast like (type B synoviocyte)
type 1 collagen

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43
Q

what are different types of RA pathogenesis (cellular and molecular pathways)

A

autoreactive B cells
autoreactive T cells
cytokines (TNF alpha, IL-6, IL-1)

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44
Q

treatment for autoreactive B cells RA

A

rituximab

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45
Q

treatment for autoreactive T cells RA

A

abatacept

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46
Q

treatment for cytokine related RA

A

anti-TNF alpha, anti IL-6 receptor

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47
Q

which cytokine is dominant pro-inflammatory cytokine in rheumatoid synovium

A

TNF-alpha

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48
Q

pathogenesis of TNF-alpha RA

A

inflammtory cell recruitment, angiogenesis, lymphangiogenesis, –> pannus formation
matrix matalloproteases –> cartilage loss
osteoclast activation –> bone loss (osteopenia, erosions)

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49
Q

blood test findings in RA

A

increase ESR, CRP
autoantibodies

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50
Q

what does ACPA do in RA

A

causes chronic joint destruction and systemic inflammation

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51
Q

Xray features in RA (3)

A

soft tissue swelling
peri-articular oeteopenia
bony erosions

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52
Q

which is better scan for RA

A

USS

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53
Q

USS features of RA

A

synovial thickening (synovial hypertrophy)
increased blood flow (doppler signal)
can detect erosion not found on RA

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54
Q

why not MRI for RA

A

expensive
time consuming

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55
Q

why need aggressive pharmacological treatment for RA

A

suppress inflammation

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56
Q

pharmacological treatment for RA

A

glococorticoid (steroids)
DMARDs(disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug)

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57
Q

first line pharmacological treatment for RA

A

combine DMARD therapy (methotrexate+hydroxychloroquine +/or sulfasalazine) and IM or oral steroid short course

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58
Q

second line pharmacological treatment for RA

A

biological therapies eg anti-TNF alpha blockade

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59
Q

methods to administer steroid in RA (4)

A

oral prednisolone
IM methyl prednisolone
IV
Intra - articular (IA)

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60
Q

steroid side effects

A

cushing’s syndrome

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61
Q

what is the scoring system for RA

A

DAS28 score

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62
Q

components of DAS28 scoring in RA

A

number of tender joints
number of swollen joints
patient visual analogue score (VAS)
ESR/ CRP

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63
Q

what are some biological therapies targeting cytokines in RA

A

inhibit TNF-alpha and IL-6

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64
Q

antibodies to inhibit TNF-alpha

A

infliximab
adalimumab
golimumab
cetrolizumab

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65
Q

antibodies to inhibit IL-6 receptor

A

tocilizumab
sarilumab

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66
Q

biological therapies targeting lymphocytes

A

B cell depletion
block T cell co-stimulating

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67
Q

example of biological therapies to target B cell depletion

A

Rituximab (IV infusion)

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68
Q

example of biological therapies to target blocking T cell co-stimulation

A

adatacept

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69
Q

what is seronegative inflammatory arthritis

A

RF CCP antibodies not present in blood
but are immune mediated

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70
Q

examples of seronegative inflammatory arthritis (3)

A

psoriatic arthritis
reactive arthritis
ankylosing spondylitis

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71
Q

what is psoriatic arthritis

A

immune mediated disease affecting skin

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72
Q

where does psoriatic arthritis mainly affect

A

skin
extensor surfaces (elbow, knees)
some also has joint inflammation

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73
Q

dominant pathogenic pathway in psoriatic arthritis

A

IL17-IL23

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74
Q

what are some clinical signs of psoriatic arthritis

A

nail pitting
onycholysis (nail separate from nail bed)

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75
Q

which joints do psoriatic arthritis affect

A

IPJs
tendon insertions (enthesitis), can hv sausage finger

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76
Q

is psoriatic arthritis symmetrical

A

can be both
asymmetric in IPJ
symmetric in small joints

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77
Q

what are some manifestations of psoriatic arthritis

A

spinal and sacroiliac joint inflammation
oligoarthritis of alrge koints
arthritis mutilans
symmentric involvement of small joints

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78
Q

what is reactive inflammation

A

sterile inflammation followed by infection elsewhere in body

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79
Q

what are some common infections causing reactive

A

urogenital infections
gastrointestinal infection (eg salmonella)

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80
Q

extra-articular manifestations in reactive arthritis

A

enthesitis (tendon inflammation)
skin inflammation
eye inflammation

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81
Q

reactive arthritis can be first manifestation of which disease

A

HIV
Hepatitis C infection

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82
Q

is septic arthritis same as reactive arthritis

A

no

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83
Q

difference between septic arthritis and reactive arthritis in terms of synovial fluid culture

A

septic: positive
reactive: sterile

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84
Q

difference between septic arthritis and reactive arthritis in terms of antibiotic therapy

A

septic: yes, IV
reactive: no (but yes for treating underlying infection of STI)

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85
Q

difference between septic arthritis and reactive arthritis in terms of joint lavage

A

septic: yes
reactive: no

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86
Q

In trauma, what are the 3 main components in hold

A

plaster
external fixator
internal fixator

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87
Q

how long is rehab in truama

A

~6 weeks

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88
Q

ABCD in truama

A

airway
breathing
circulation
disability

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89
Q

what to look for when assessing fractures

A

pain
swelling
crepitus
deformity
collateral (nerve, vessel)

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90
Q

imaging for investigations in fractures

A

XRay
CT
MRI

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91
Q

what is CT for in assessing fractures (2)

A

assess pattern and make diagnosis

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92
Q

how to describe a fracture radiograph (6)

A

Location: which bone and which part of bone?
Pieces: simple/multifragmentary?
Pattern: transverse/oblique/spiral
Displaced/undisplaced?
Translated/angulated?
X/Y/Z plane

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93
Q

what are the 4 types of displacement in trauma fractures

A

translation
angulation
rotation
impaction

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94
Q

what kind of translation of displacement in trauma fracture (4)

A

medial
lateral
dorsal
volar

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95
Q

what kind of angulation of displacement in trauma fracture (2)

A

valgus
varus

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96
Q

when is direct fracture healing possible? (3)

A

1.anatomical reduction
2. absolute stability / compression
3. no callus or deformity

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97
Q

when is indirect fracture healing possible? (3)

A
  1. Sufficient reduction
  2. Micromovement
  3. Callus
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98
Q

3 stages of indirect fracture healing

A
  1. inflammation
  2. repair
  3. remodelling
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99
Q

what is wolff’s law in indirect fracture healing

A

Bone Grows and Remodels in response to the forces that are placed on it

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100
Q

steps in indirect fracture healing (4)

A
  1. haematoma formation
  2. fibrocartiliginous callus formation
  3. bony callus formation
  4. bone remodelling
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101
Q

what is involved in inflammation stage in indirect fracture healing (3)

A
  1. Haematoma formation
  2. Release of Cytokines
  3. Granulation tissue and blood vessel formation
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102
Q

what is involved in repair stage in indirect fracture healing (2)

A
  1. Soft Callus formation
    (Type II Collagen - Cartilage)
  2. Converted to hard callus
    (Type I Collagen - Bone)
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103
Q

what is involved in remodelling stage in indirect fracture healing (2)

A
  1. Callus responds to activity, external forces, functional demands and growth
  2. Excess bone is removed
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104
Q

2 kinds of reduction in management of fractures

A

closed
open

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105
Q

3 kinds of hold in management of fractures

A

Plaster/splint
External fixation
Internal fixation

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106
Q

3 kinds of rehabiliate in management of fractures

A

Early / late
Weight bearing
Physiotherapy

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107
Q

2 kinds of closed reduction in management of fractures

A

manipulation
traction

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108
Q

2 kinds of open reduction in management of fractures

A

mini incision
full exposure

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109
Q

how to describe fixations (3)

A

internal/external
intra/extra medullary
mono/multiplanar

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110
Q

general fracture complication examples

A

Fat embolus
DVT
Infection
Prolonged immobility (UTI, chest infections, sores)

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111
Q

specific fracture complication examples

A

Neurovascular injury
Muscle/tendon injury
Non union/mal union
Local infection
Degenerative change (intraarticular)
Reflex sympathetic dystrophy

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112
Q

what are mechanical factors affecting healing (2)

A

movement
forces

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113
Q

what are biological environment factors affecting healing (4)

A

blood supply
immune function
infection
nutrition

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114
Q

causes of fractured of neck of femur (3)

A

Osteoporosis (older)
Trauma (younger)
Combination

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115
Q

what’s important in history for fractured neck of femur

A

Age
Comorbidityrespiratory/cardiovascular/diabetes/cancer
Preinjury mobilityindependent/shopping/walking/sports
Social hx: relatives, stairs, alcohol

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116
Q

what are different types of neck of femur fractures

A

subcapital
transcervical
basicervical
subtrochanteric & intertrochanteric (both not femur fractures technically)

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117
Q

which of the femur fractures is intracapsular

A

subcapital

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118
Q

which of the femur fractures is extracapsular

A

transcervical
basicervical

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119
Q

what are the 2 types of problems arouse from neck of femur fracture for blood supply compromised

A

avascular necrosis
non-union(broken bone fails to heal)

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120
Q

exeample of management of neck of femur fractures for extracapuslar fractures

A

DHS (dynamic hip screw)

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121
Q

presentation of shoulder dislocation

A

pain
restricted movement
loss of normal shoulder contour
related to direct trauma usually

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122
Q

which neurovascular status need to be assessed in shoulder dislocation

A

axillary nerve

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123
Q

investigation for shoulder dislocation

A

x-ray to identify fracture (humeral neck, glenoid etc)

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124
Q

what is the safest management for shoulder dislocation

A

traction countertraction +/- gentle internal rotation to disimpact humeral head

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125
Q

management of shoulder dislocation

A

adequate analgesia , vigorous/twisted manipulation should be avoided to avoid fractures
traction

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126
Q

what are the 3 views for xray in shoulder dislocation

A

AP
true AP
Y-view

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127
Q

what is hill-sachs defect in shoulder dislocation

A

defect at humerus head under glenoid

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128
Q

temporary management of any distal radius fracture

A

reduction of fracture and placement into cast until definitive fixation

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129
Q

exrtra-articular secpfic distal radiu fracture management

A

MUA and K-wire fixation

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130
Q

distal radius fracture not suitable for K-wires or intra-articular fracture management

A

Open Reduction Internal Fixation (ORIF) with plate and screws

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131
Q

main function of proximal tibial

A

key weightbearing surface of knee joint

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132
Q

what can cause tibial plateau fracture

A

valgus or varus force
axial loading across knee
impaction pf femoral condyles cause soft bone of tibial plateau

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133
Q

non-operative management of tibial plateau fracture

A

CT imaging

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134
Q

operative management of tibial plateau fracture

A

restore articular surface using combination of plate and screws
bone graft or cement to prevent further depression after fixation

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135
Q

non operative management of ankle fracture

A

non-weightbearing below knee cast for 6-8 weeks, can transfer to walking boot then PT

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136
Q

what is weber A fracture

A

below syndesmosis and thought to be stable

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137
Q

what is weber B fracture

A

fracture at same level of syndesmosis

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138
Q

do weber A or B need operative management

A

no
weber B if no instability then no need

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139
Q

operative management for ankle fracture

A

Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF)

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140
Q

what is weber C fracture

A

above level of syndesmosis therefore unstable

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141
Q

curvature of cervical and lumbar in spine

A

normal lordosis

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142
Q

curvature of thoracic spine

A

kyphosis

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143
Q

how many bones do vertebrae of spine have

A

24 (7C, 12 T, 5L)

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144
Q

function of intervertebral discs (2)

A

shock absorber
allow segmentation and multi-directional movement

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145
Q

what does the spinal column made up of (4)

A

vertebrae
muscles
intervertebral joints
facet joints

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146
Q

which level does spinal cord end

A

L2 vertebrae

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147
Q

where do we do lumbar puncture

148
Q

what is the most distal part of spinal cord called

A

conus medullaris

149
Q

what are the movements of the spine (4)

A

flexion
extension
lateral flexion
rotation

150
Q

what is important to distinguish in terms of back pain (2)

A

mechanical back pain and serious pathology

151
Q

which type of back pain is usually self limiting

A

acute back pain

152
Q

characteristic of mechanical back pain (2)

A

reproduced
worse with movement

153
Q

common causes of mechanical back pain (4)

A

-Muscular tension (e.g. chronic poor posture, weak muscles)
-Acute muscle sprain/spasm
-Degenerative disc disease
-Osteoarthritis of facet joints

154
Q

what is sciatica

A

pain radiating down one leg

155
Q

causes of sciatica

A

disc herniation contacting the exiting lumbar nerve root

156
Q

causes of back pain (7)

A

tumor
infection
inflammatory spondyloarthropathy
fracture
large disc prolapse
referred pain (pancreas, kidney, aortic aneurysm)

157
Q

bacteria that cause back pain

A

Staphylococcus, streptococcus, tuberculosis (TB)

158
Q

infection causes of back pain (4)

A

Discitis
Vertebral osteomyelitis
Paraspinal abcess
Microbiology: Staphylococcus, streptococcus, tuberculosis (TB)

159
Q

inflammatory causes of back pain

A

ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)-associated

160
Q

what are the red flags of back pain

A

Pain at night or increased pain when supine
Constant or progressive pain
Thoracic pain
Weight loss
Previous malignancy
Fever/night sweats
Immunosuppressed
Bladder or bowel disturbance (Sphincter dysfunction)
Leg weakness or sensory loss
Age <20 or >55 yrs

161
Q

symptoms or signs of cauda equina syndrome

A

Saddle anaesthesia (loss of sensation)
Bladder/bowel incontinence
Loss of anal tone on PR
Radicular leg pain
Ankle jerks may be absent

162
Q

investigation of cauda equina syndrome

A

MRI L spine

163
Q

causes of cauda equina syndrome

A

large disc herniation, bony mets, myeloma, TB, paraspinal abcess

164
Q

treatment for cauda equina syndrome

165
Q

do we need investigations in absence of red flags

166
Q

what are the treatment for low back pain without red flags

A

analgesia (NSAIDS, ibuprofen, paracetamol, codeine)
avoid bed rest
Physiotherapy

167
Q

blood tests components to test for back pain

A

ESR
CRP
FBC
ALP
calcium
PSA

168
Q

increase ESR indications in back pain

A

increase in myeloma
chronic inflammation
TB

169
Q

increase alkaline phosphatase(ALP) indication

A

bony metastases

170
Q

imaging investigations for back pain

A

X-ray
CT
MRI

171
Q

advantages and disadvantages of using MRI for back pain

A

-Best visualization of soft tissue structures like tendons and ligaments
-Best for spinal imaging: can see spinal cord and exiting nerve roots
-Expensive and time-consuming

173
Q

treatment for herniated disc

A
  1. Conservative as for LBP without sciatica
    -Analgesia especially NSAIDs
    -Physiotherapy to improve core strength and treat associated muscle spasm
  2. Nerve root injection (local anaesthetic and glucocorticoid)
  3. Surgery if neurological compromise or symptoms persist
174
Q

examples of inflammatory spondyloarthritis (SpA)

A

ankylosing spondylitis
psoriatic arthritis
IBD

175
Q

where are the most common inflammation site of Spondyloarthritis

A

spine (spondylitis) and sacro-iliac joints (sacro-iliitis), peripheral joints, entheses (tendon insertions)

176
Q

what are some extra-articular manifestations of inflammatory spondyloarthritis (4As)

A

Anterior uveitis (iritis) – ocular inflammation
Apical lung fibrosis
Aortitis/aortic regurgitation
Amyloidosis – due to chronically serum amyloid A (SAA) depositing in organs

177
Q

major characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis

A

enthesitis
loss of spinal movement

178
Q

strongest genetic risk factor of ankylosing spondylitis

179
Q

is ankylosing spondylitis mono or poly genetic

A

polygenetic

180
Q

what are the cytokines that are important in ankylosing spondylitis (3)

A
  1. tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)
  2. interleukin-17 (IL-17)
  3. interleukin-23 (IL23)
181
Q

what features on MRI of sacroiliac joint suggest inflammation of bone marrow

A

white on either side of sacroiliac joint

182
Q

features of untreated ankylosing spondylitis

A

Spinal enthesitis
Bridging syndesmophytes
(new bone growth between adjacent vertebra)
Spinal fusion

183
Q

what feature on MRI suggest ankylosing spondylitis

A

shiny corners

184
Q

management of ankylosing spondylitis

A
  1. physiotherapy
  2. Medicine (NSAIDs, biological therapies)
185
Q

examples of pharmacological treatment for ankylosing spondylitis

A

1st line: NSAIDs
-e.g. ibuprofen,
-Selective COX2 inhibitors (e.g. celecoxib) reduce GI ulcer risk

2nd line: ‘Biological’ therapies
Therapeutic monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) targeting specific molecules
Use if inadequate disease control after trying 2 NSAIDs
Anti-TNF-alpha (e.g. infliximab, golimumab)
Anti-IL17 (e.g. secukinumab)

186
Q

what are overlap symptoms in autoimmune connective tissue disorders

A

have both lupus and inflammatory

187
Q

examples of autoimmune connective tissue disorders

A

SLE
scleroderma
autoimmune inflammatory muscle disease
sjogren’s syndrome

188
Q

where is main site of inflammation in RA

189
Q

what are the autoantibodies associated with RA (2)

A

Rheumatoid factor
anti CCP(citrullinated peptide) antibodies

190
Q

does ankylosing spondylitis have autoantibodies

A

no, it is seronegative

191
Q

examples of seronegative inflammatory arthritis

A

Ankylosing spondylitis
Reactive Arthritis
Arthritis associated with psoriasis (psoriatic arthritis)
Arthritis associated with gastrointestinal inflammation (enteropathic arthritis)

192
Q

where is site of inflammation in ankylosing spondylitis

A

spinal inflammation
enthesis (tendon, ligament, joint capsule)

193
Q

does SLE affect innate or adaptive immune system

194
Q

where are site of inflammation of SLE

A

multi-site
joints
skin
kidney

195
Q

what is raynaud’s phenomenon

A

color change in hand and feet

196
Q

what is typical color change in raynaud’s phenomenon and what do colors mean (3)

A

WHITE -> Vasospasm leads to blanching of digit
BLUE -> Cyanosis as static venous blood deoxygenates
RED -> Reactive hyperaemia

197
Q

describe the color change in raynaud’s phenomenon

A

triphasic color changes

198
Q

why are serum autoantibodies in autoimmune connective tissue disorders important

A

Useful diagnostically
Some correlate with disease activity
May be directly pathogenic

199
Q

are arthralgia and arthritis erosive

200
Q

is male or female more common in SLE

A

female
9:1 ratio

201
Q

typical onset of age of SLE

202
Q

in SLE, do X-ray show bony erosiion

203
Q

typical clinical features of SLE

A

swan neck deformity
arthritis and deformity of fingers

204
Q

causes of deformity in SLE

A

soft tissue damage

205
Q

swan neck deformity is characteristic of which RA

206
Q

skin and mucosa clinical features of SLE

A

Skin and mucosa:
Malar rash – erythema that spares the nasolabial fold
Photosensitive rash
Mouth ulcers
Hair loss

207
Q

vascular clinical features of SLE

A

raynaud’s phenomenon

208
Q

MSK clinical features of SLE

A

arthralgia
arthritis
usually non-erosive

209
Q

haematological clinical features of SLE

A

autoimmune thrombocytopenia (low platelets)
haemolytic anaemia
Lymphopenia

210
Q

systemic clinical features of SLE

A

renal disease(glomerulonephritis)
cerebral disease
serositis
myocarditis

211
Q

is lymphadenopathy clinical features of SLE

212
Q

which antibody can be found in SLE (2)

A

anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA)
antiphospholipid antibodies(APL)

213
Q

is ANA found in all SLE patients

A

yes, so absence of ANA rules out SLE
but ANA not specific to SLE

214
Q

what antibodies can be present in SLE (5)

A

Anti-ds-DNA antibodies
Anti-Ro
Anti-La
Anti-Smith (Sm)
Anti-RNP

215
Q

what are APL (antiphospholipid)antibodies associated with increase risk of

A

thrombosis (arterial – stroke, venous – DVT)
pregnancy loss

216
Q

what does Persistent presence of APL + a clinical event mean

A

anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome

217
Q

what is primary anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome

A

Anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome absence in SLE

218
Q

which antibodies are specific to SLE

A

anti-dsDNA
Anti-Sm

219
Q

which antibodies in SLE are specific to SLE and serum level correlates to disease activity

A

anti-dsDNA

220
Q

which antibodies in SLE are specific to SLE and serum level DONT correlates to disease activity

221
Q

which immunopathology in SLE is innate immunity (2)

A

Overactivity of type 1 interferon pathway

Complement pathway abnormalities

222
Q

which immunopathology in SLE is adaptive immunity

A

autoreactive B & T cells

223
Q

in SLE how did immune system generate a response to nuclear antigen

A
  1. Apoptosis leads to translocation of nuclear antigens to membrane surface
    2.Impaired clearance of apoptotic cells results in enhanced presentation of nuclear antigens to immune cells
  2. B cell autoimmunity
  3. Tissue damage by antibody effector mechanisms e.g. complement activation and Fc receptor engagement
224
Q

what is the hypothesis called in SLE to describe the stimulation of immune system to generate a response to nuclear antigen

A

waste disposal hypothesis

225
Q

what are the key investigations to do in SLE

A

bloods
urine
imaging

226
Q

blood results in SLE

A

high ESR
normal CRP (unless infection/serositis/arthritis)

227
Q

why need to check urine in SLE

A

glomerulonephritis
urinalysis + quantify urine protein:creatinine ratio

228
Q

what are some immunological findings to test for in SLE

A

Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)
Anti-dsDNA antibodies
Complement consumption – e.g. low C4 and C3
antiphospholipid antibodies (APL)

229
Q

relationship of complement C3 and C4 and anti-dsDNA in SLE patients

A

when C3 & C4 reduce
anti-dsDNA increase

230
Q

kidney findings to test for SLE

A

creatinine in blood
creatinine in urine
eGFR
protein in urine
Protein:Creatinine ratio (PCR)
CKD EPI
albumin in blood

231
Q

haemological findings to test for SLE

A

Hb
platelet
lymphocyte
reticulocyte

232
Q

what are the treatment goals in SLE

A

remission or low disease activity and prevention of flares
Balance of controlling disease vs avoiding iatrogenic harm (especially steroids)

233
Q

steroids side effects when treat SLE

A

Infection
Osteoporosis
Avascular necrosis (AVN) - often affects hips: higher incidence in lupus, especially in presence of APL Abs

234
Q

medication for mild SLE

A

Hydroxychloroquine (main)

steroids for acute flare (but aim withdraw asap)

235
Q

medication for serious SLE

A

immunomodulatory agents (mycophenolate, methotrexate, azathioprine)

236
Q

medication for SLE + kidney disease

A

Mycophenolate +/- rituximab

237
Q

SLE B-cell targeted therapies

A

Rituximab = anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody: depletes B cells
Belimumab = anti-BAFF antibody (BAFF = a B cell survival factor/cytokine)

238
Q

myocarditis + SLE medication

A

iv steroids + iv cyclophosphamide (+/- rituximab)

239
Q

Patients with SLE and antiphospholipid antibody syndrome medications

A

anticoagulation (warfarin)

240
Q

what is an emerging therapy for SLE

A

anifrolumab (interferon receptor blockade)

241
Q

what needs to be considered when treating SLE women with pregnancy

A

Consider both risk of disease & drugs to both mother and to fetus
aim get to remission first

242
Q

medical treatment for SLE pregnant women

A

Hydroxychloroquine, azathioprine, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) safe

243
Q

which antibody in SLE can cause miscarriage

244
Q

what medication can help reduce miscarriage risk in SLE

A

aspirin or heparin

245
Q

where are heberden’s nodes

246
Q

where are bouchard’s nodes

247
Q

if we see symmetrical small joint polyarthritis affecting DIPJs and PIPJs, and patient’s hand cannot grip properly, what’s likely diagnosis

248
Q

treatment for OA

A

analgesia
hand therapy

249
Q

are there any disease modifying therapy for OA

250
Q

raynaud’s phenomenon is a characteristic of what disease

251
Q

positional chest pain in context of SLE is what

A

might suggest pericarditis
may come from soft tissue pr ribs

252
Q

pain on inspiration in context of SLE implication

A

maybe pulmonary embolism as SLE patients have APL antibodies which predispose them to thrombosis

253
Q

urine tests in SLE

A

urinalysis (urine dip)
UPC ratio to quantify proteinuria

254
Q

bloods in SLE (need test what)

A

FBC
ESR, CRP
ANA, APL antibodies
complements C3 and C4

255
Q

imaging for SLE

A

CXR ( look for pleural effusion, enlarged contour of heart if large pericardial effusion)
echocardiogram (look for pleural effusion)
CT pulmonary angiogram

256
Q

symmetrical polyarthritis affecting both large and small joints suggest what

A

RA
lupus (so needa check antibodies)

257
Q

is arthralgia or arthritis more common in SLE

A

arthralgia

258
Q

RA treatment

A

DMARDs(disease modifying antirheumatic drugs) eg methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine)
short course of oral steroids for acute inflammation but avoid long term steroids

259
Q

how many bones do a child skeleton has

260
Q

how many bones do adult hv

261
Q

where do long bone growth occurs post-natally

A

physis (at proximal and distal end)

262
Q

bone development step for flat bone

A

intramembranous mesenchymal cells –> bone –> flat bones

263
Q

bone development step for long bone

A

endochondral mesenchymal –> cartilage –> bone –> long bones

264
Q

steps for intramembranous ossification

A
  1. condensation of mesenchymal cells then differentiate into oesteoblasts where ossification centre forms
  2. secreted osteoid traps osteoblasts which become osteocytes
  3. trabecular matrix and periosteum form followed by angiogenesis
  4. compact bone develops superficial to cancellous bone
  5. crowded blood vessels condense into red bone marrow
265
Q

how many ossification centre do endochondral ossification involve

A

2
primary and secondary

266
Q

does flat bone formation involve 1 or 2 ossification centre

267
Q

does long bone formation involve 1 or 2 ossification centre

268
Q

what is primary ossification centre

A

Sites of pre-natal bone growth through endochondral ossification from the central part of the bone

269
Q

what is secondary ossification centre

A

Occurs post-natal after the primary ossification centre and long bones often have several (the physis)

270
Q

steps for endochondral primary ossification formation

A
  1. mesenchymal differentiation at primary ossification centre
  2. cartilage model of future bony skeleton forms
  3. angiogenesis, capillaries penetrate cartilage
  4. calcification at primary ossification centre to form spongy bone
  5. perichondrium transform into periosteum
  6. cartilage and chondrocytes continue to grow at ends of bone to form secondary ossification centre
271
Q

where does post bone growth happen

A

secondary ossification centre (physis)

272
Q

what are the 6 parts at growth plate / physis

A
  1. growth plate zones
  2. reserve zone
  3. proliferative zone
  4. maturation and hypertrophy
  5. calcified matrix
  6. zone of ossification
273
Q

what happens at the growth plate/ physis

A
  1. Zone of elongation in long bone
  2. Contains cartilage
  3. Epiphyseal side – hyaline cartilage active and dividing to form hyaline cartilage matrix
  4. Diaphyseal side – Cartilage calcifies and dies and then replaced by bone
274
Q

where do prenatal bone growth occur

A

primary ossification centre

275
Q

in what 4 ways are children’s skeleton differ to adult

A
  1. elasticity
  2. physis
  3. remodelling potential
  4. speed of healing
276
Q

why children’s bone can bend more than adult

A

have a higher proportion of cartilage and collagen

277
Q

why children bone more prone to plastic deformity, buckle fracture, greenstick injury

A

higher density of haversian canals

278
Q

which 3 injuries are children more prone to

A

plastic deformity(bends before break)
buckle fracture(compress out)
greenstick injury (like a tree)

279
Q

when does growth of physis stop for girls and boys

A

Girls 15-16
Boys 18-19

280
Q

what are the classification for physeal injuries

A

salter-harris

281
Q

what can physeal injury lead to

A

growth arrest, then deformity

282
Q

causes of physeal injury

A

trauma
tumor
chemo

283
Q

what do speed of healing and remodeling potential of skeleton depend on

A

location and the age of the patient

284
Q

physis at which part grows more (2)

A

knee
extreme of upper limb (shoulder/ wrist)

285
Q

what are the 4 common children’s congenital conditions in skeleton fracture

A
  1. developmental dysplasia of hip(DDH)
  2. club foot
  3. achondroplasia
  4. osteogenesis imperfecta
286
Q

what is developmental dysplasia of hip(DDH)

A

Group of disorder of the neonatal hip where the head of the femur is unstable or incongruous in relation to the acetabulum

287
Q

what does normal development of femur relies on

A

the concentric reduction and balanced forces through the hip

288
Q

describe the spectrum of DDH (3)

A

dysplasia – subluxation – dislocation

289
Q

risk factors of DDH

A

Female
First born
Breech
FHx
Oligohydramnios
Native American/Laplanders – swaddling of hip
Rare in African American/Asian

290
Q

examination of DDH in baby

A

screening to check range of movement

291
Q

investigation of DDH

A

USS (birth to 4 months)
Xray (after 4 months)
measure acetabular dysplasia and hip position

292
Q

treatment for DDH

A

pavlik harness

293
Q

what happens if failed pavlik harness when treating DDH

A

secondary changes to capsule and soft tissue
treat with MUA + Closed reduction and Spica

294
Q

what is another name of clubfoot

A

Congenital Talipes Equinovarus

295
Q

what is clubfoot/Congenital Talipes Equinovarus

A

congenital deformity of foot

296
Q

risk factors of club foot

A

genetic
Highest in Hawaiians
M2:1F

297
Q

what is the gene associated in Highest in clubfoot

A

PITX1 gene inactivation

298
Q

mnemonic of deformity in Congenital Talipes Equinovarus / clubfoot

299
Q

what does CAVE stand for in deformity of Congenital Talipes Equinovarus

A

Cavus –high arch: tight intrinsic, FHL, FDL
Adductus of foot: Tight tib post and ant
Varus: Tight tendoachillies, tib post, tib ant
Equinous: tight tendoachilles

300
Q

name and describe treatment for clubfoot

A

Ponseti method
1. First a series of casts to correct deformity
2. Many require operative treatment
, Soft tissue releases
3. Foot orthosis brace
4. Some will require further operative intervention to correct final deformity.

301
Q

which is the most common skeletal dysplasia

A

achondroplasia

302
Q

nature of achondroplasia

A

genetic
autosomal dominant

303
Q

which gene mutation in achondroplasia

A

G380r mutation in FGFR3 (fibroblast growth factor receptor)
function abnormally, slowing down the growth of bone in the cartilage of the growth plate.

304
Q

what happens in achondroplasia

A

inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation in theproliferative zoneof thephysis
results in defect in endochondral bone formation

305
Q

which zone does achondroplasia affect in physis

A

proliferative zone

306
Q

name of clinical presentation of achondroplasia

A

Rhizomelic dwarfism

307
Q

what is Rhizomelic dwarfism

A

Humerus shorter than forearm
Femur shorter than tibia
Normal trunk
Adult height of approx. 125cm
Normal cognitive development
Significant spinal issues

308
Q

what is another name of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

brittle bone disease

309
Q

nature of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Hereditary – autosomal dominant or recessive

310
Q

which type of collagen in affected in osteogenesis imperfecta

A

decrease in type 1 collage

311
Q

why is there decrease in type 1 collagen in osteogenesis imperfecta (2)

A

Decreased secretion
Production of abnormal collagen

312
Q

consequence of reduced type 1 collagen

A

insufficient osteoid production

313
Q

effects in bones in osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Fragility fractures
Short stature
Scoliosis (spine twists and curves to the side)

314
Q

what are some non-orthopaedic manifestations in osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Heart
Blue Sclera
Dentinogenesis imperfecta – brown soft teeth
Wormian skull
Hypermetabolism

315
Q

medical treatment for osteogenesis imperfecta

A

bisphosphonates (inhibit osteoclast)
denosumab (block RANKL to bind, inhibit osteoclast)
setrusumab

316
Q

surgical rteatment for osteogenesis imperfecta

A

mechanical alignment
stabilisation

317
Q

5 types of paediatric fractures (PAIDS)

A

pattern
anatomy
intra/extra-articular
displacement
salter-harris

318
Q

5 types of pattern in paediatric fractures

A

transverse
oblique
spiral
comminuted (broken bone in at least 2 places)
avulsion (pulled off ligament)

319
Q

how is anatomy of paediatric skeleton separated into 3 parts

A

proximal 1/3
middle 1/3 diaphysis
distal 1/3
*this is different to adult

320
Q

is there callus formation in primary bone healing

321
Q

steps in secondary bone healing

A
  1. haematoma formation
  2. fibrocartilaginous callus formation
  3. bony callus formation
  4. bone remodelling
322
Q

what is primary bone ehaling

A

heals by direct union

323
Q

what are the 2 bone healings in intra/extra articular fracture

A

primary and secondary bone healing

324
Q

4 types of displacement in paediatric fracture

A

displaced
angulated
shortened
rotated

325
Q

what are the 5 types of Salter Harris physeal injuries (SALT)

A
  1. (Physeal)Separation
  2. Fracture traverses physis and exits metaphysis (Above)
  3. Fracture traverses physis and exits epiphysis (Lower)
  4. Fracture passes Through epiphysis, physis, metaphysis
  5. Crush injury to physis
326
Q

which type of salter harris is most common

327
Q

what are keys of fracture in growth arrest

A

location
timing

328
Q

2 types of injuries to physis in growth arrest

A

Whole physis – limb length discrepancy

Partial physis – angulation as the non affected side keeps growing

329
Q

treatment for growth arrest

A
  1. limb length correction a9shorten long side or lengthen short side)
    2, angular deformity (stop growth of unaffected side or reform bone via osteotomy)
330
Q

main aim of growth arrest treatment

A

Minimise angular deformity
Minimise limb length difference

331
Q

the 4 Rs in fracture management

A
  1. resuscitate
  2. reduce
  3. restrict
  4. rehabilitate
332
Q

2 types of reducing fracture

A

open
closed

333
Q

what is closed reduction in treat bone fracture

A

Reducing a fracture without making an incision

334
Q

example of bone reduction

A

traction
manipulation

335
Q

what is open reduction in healing bone fracture

A

Making an incision
The realignment of the fracture under direct visualisation

336
Q

aim of reduction in treating bone fracture

A

Correct the deformity and displacement

Reduce secondary injury to soft tissue / NV structures

337
Q

main goal of restriction in bone healing

A

Maintain the fracture reduction
Provides the stability for the fracture to heal
Children rarely have issues with bone not healing
Can have issues with too much healing!

338
Q

2 types of restriction in bone healing

A

external and internal

339
Q

examples of external restriction in bone healing

A

splints
plaster

340
Q

examples of internal restriction in bone healing

A

plate and screws
intra-medullary device

341
Q

benefits of fast remodelling and high healing potential in children using external restriction

A

operative internal fixation often can be avoided

342
Q

internal restriction in bone healing drawbacks

A

Operative intervention may be required
need Consider the ongoing growth at the physis
Metalwork may need to be removed in the future

343
Q

what is a great rehabilitator in children bone fracture treatment

344
Q

what is limping child

A

difficulty in walking

345
Q

4 types of limping child

A

septic arthritis
transient synovitis
perthes
SUFE

346
Q

is septic arthritis in child an orthpedic emergency

347
Q

treatment for septic arthritis in child

A

wash out of joint to clear infection

348
Q

what classification to score probability of septic arthritis in child

A

Kocher’s classification

349
Q

components of Kocher’s classification to score probability of septic arthritis

A

Non weight bearing
ESR >40
WBC >12,000
Temperature >38

350
Q

key history of septic arthritis in child

A

Duration
Other recent illness
Associated joint pain

351
Q

if there is no high temp/ increase WBC and ESR, what type of limping in child can we exclude and consider what

A

septic arthritis
can consider transient synovitis

352
Q

what is transient synovitis

A

inflamed joint in response to a systemic illness

353
Q

treatment for transient synovitis

A

Supportive treatment with antibiotics is the treatment

354
Q

investigations for septic arthritis

A

USS
XRay
MRI

355
Q

what is perthes disease

A

Idiopathic necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis

356
Q

age of perthes disease in child

357
Q

treatment for perthes disease

A

supportive treatment

358
Q

what has to be excluded first before diagnosing perthes diseaase

A

septic arthritis

359
Q

investigation for perthes disease

360
Q

male or female more common in perthes disease

361
Q

full name of SUFE in limping child

A

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

362
Q

what is SUFE

A

proximal epiphysis slips in relation to the metaphysis

363
Q

age of SUFE common

A

12-13 yo during rapid growth

364
Q

what has to be excluded first before diagnosing SUFE

A

septic arthriti

365
Q

treatment for SUFE

A

operative fixation to prevent further slip and minimise long term growth problems

366
Q

imaging for SUFE