Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 main groups of lupus erythematosus

A
  1. systemic lupus erythematosus
  2. cutaneous lupus erythematosus
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2
Q

what are diagnostic criteria for systemic lupus erythematosus (3 aspects)

A
  1. mucocutaneous
  2. haematological
  3. immunological
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3
Q

what are the main diagnostic criteria in mucocutaneous aspect for systemic lupus erythematosus

A

oral ulcers
cutaneous lupus
alopecia (hair loss)

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4
Q

what are the main diagnostic criteria in haematological aspect for systemic lupus erythematosus (3)

A

haemolytic anaemia
thrombocytopenia
leukopenia
(usually blood cell types decrease)

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5
Q

what are the main diagnostic criteria in immunological aspect for systemic lupus erythematosus

A

ANA (Anti-nuclear antibodies)
anti dsDNA
anti Sm ( highly specific antibody for systemic lupus erythematosus)
antiphospholipid
low complement
Direct Coomb’s test (looks at your red blood cells to see if there are antibodies attached to them)

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6
Q

clinical presentations of pt in systemic lupus erythematosus (6)

A
  1. photodistributed rash
  2. cutaneous vasculitis
  3. alopecia
  4. livedo reticularis
  5. cutaneous vasculitis
  6. subacute cutaneous lupus (ring like pattern)
    7.chilblains
  7. palpable purapura
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7
Q

how does subacute cutaneous lupus (SCLE)look like on skin

A

ring like pattern

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8
Q

what does discoid/cutaneous lupus look like

A

scaring unlike SCLE

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9
Q

what kind of disease is dermatomyositis

A

autoimmune connective tissue disorder

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10
Q

main clinical presentations from pt in dermatomyositis (2)

A

proximal extensor inflammatory myopathy
photodistributed pink violet ras at scalp, periocular regional and extensor surfaces

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11
Q

what is Gottron’s papules in presentations of dermatomyostitis

A

red, often scaly, bumps overlying the knuckles of the fingers

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12
Q

other presentations of gottron’s papules of dermatoly

A

ragged cuticles
shawl sign (rash at upper trunk)
photosensitive erythema
heliotrope rash

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13
Q

can muscle myostitis be predicted depending on auto antibody profile

A

yes, as each subtype have very specific clinical features

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14
Q

what is Anti-p155/ TIF-1gamma associated with

A

cancer malignancy

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15
Q

what is anti-MDA5 associated with

A

interstitial lung disease
digital ulcer
ischaemia

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16
Q

how to diagnose dermatomyositis

A

1.blood tests (ANA, CK)
2. EMG
3. skin biopsy
4. LFT (ALT increased )
5. muscle MRI
6. screening for internal malignancy

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17
Q

what is Henoch–Schönlein purpura

A

IgA vasculitis(a disorder that causes the small blood vessels in your skin, joints, intestines and kidneys to become inflamed and bleed)

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18
Q

symptoms of IgA vasculitis

A

abdominal pain
bleeding
arthralgia (joint stiffness, pain)
glomerulonephritis (so we needa monitor urine)

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19
Q

which type of vessels are affected in IgA vasculitis

A

small vessels

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20
Q

manifestations of small vessel vasculitis

A

purpura (small flat spots on skin)

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21
Q

manifestations of medium vessel vasculitis

A

digital necrosis
retiform purpura ulcers
subcutaneous nodules along blood vessels

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22
Q

what is DRESS full form

A

Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms

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23
Q

DRESS symptoms

A

fever (>/=38.5)
tachycardia
lymphadenopathy (>/=2sites, >1cm)
circulating atypical lymphocytes
peripheral hypereosinophilia)
internal organs involved (liver, kidney, cardiac)
negative ANA
skin involvement
cutaneous eroption

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24
Q

is ANA positive or negative in DRESS

A

negative

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25
Q

what are internal organ involvements in DRESS

A

liver (hepatitis) associated with majority of death
kidneys (interstitial nephritis)
heart (myocarditis)
brain
thyroid (thyroiditis)
lungs (interstitial pneumonitis)

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26
Q

what are common triggers of DRESS

A

allopurinol (gout)
sulfonamides
anti-epileptics
antibiotics
ibuprofen

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27
Q

how do rash look like in DRESS

A

utricated papular exanthem (widespread papules)
maculopapular eruption
eryrthema multiforme-like
rash in abdomen region

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28
Q

will there be head neck oedema in DRESS

A

yes

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29
Q

treatment for DRESS

A

withdraw drug
corticosteroids as first line

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30
Q

mortality rate of DRESS

A

5-10%

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31
Q

what does pruritus ean

A

itchy

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32
Q

itching without rash suggest what

A

internal cause
internal organ dysfunction/ metabolic abnormalities

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33
Q

what are some internal causes of itchy without rash

A

haematological cause (lymphoma, polycythemia)
uraemia
cholestasis
iron deficiency or overload
HIV/ Hep A/B/C
cancer
drugs (opiods)
psuchogenic
old age

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34
Q

what can chronic rubbing and scratching when itchy

A

appearance of nodules

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35
Q

what test need when itchy

A

blood tests
lymph nodes
imaging

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36
Q

investigations for pruritus

A

FBC, LDH (lactate dehydrogenase test)
LFT
CXR
HIV
Hep A,B,C

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37
Q

what is SJS

A

stevens-johnson syndrome
toxic epidermal crisis

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38
Q

symptoms of SJS

A

flu like symptoms
abrupt onset of lesions on trunk more often than in face/limbs
macules, nlisters, erythema (atypical targetoid)
blisters merge (sheets of skin detachment ) to reflect extensive full thickness mucocutaneous necrosis

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39
Q

blisters merge are seen in which dermatology disease

A

SJS

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40
Q

what is macules

A

a flat, distinct, discolored area of skin

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41
Q

does SJS have lymphadenopathy

A

no

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42
Q

which has a larger BSA detachment , SJS or Toxic Epidermal necrolysis (TEN)

A

TEN

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43
Q

which has a higher mortality rate, SJS or Toxic Epidermal necrolysis (TEN)

A

TEN

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44
Q

cause of SJS / TEM

A

drugs
cell mediated cytotoxic reaction against epidermal cells

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45
Q

what are differential diagnosis for SJS / TEN

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)
thermal burns
cutaneous graft versus host disease

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46
Q

common drugs that cause SJS

A

antibiotics
anti-epileptic drugs
NSAIDs

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47
Q

what is the scoring system to helpa ssess severity of SJS / TEN

A

SCROTEN

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48
Q

what are the criterias for SJS severity

A

> 40yo
initial % epidermal detachment
serum urea, glucose, bicarbonate
presence of malignancy

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49
Q

complications of SJS/ TEN(9)

A

death
blindness
dehydration
hypothermia/hyperthermia
renal tubular necrosis
eroded GIT
interstitial pneumonitis
neutropenia
liver, heart failure

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50
Q

what is psoriasis

A

skin condition that causes flaky patches of skin, which form silvery-white or grey scales

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51
Q

which condition does psoriasis flare usually follow

A

recent streptococcal throat treated with oral steroids

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52
Q

what are systemic manifestations of erythema to reflect impariment in skin function

A

peripheral oedema
tachycardia
loss of fluids and proteins
disturbances in thermoregulation
risk of sepsis

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53
Q

why erythroderma cause peripheral oedema

A

loss of protein across epidermis

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54
Q

why erythroderma cause risk of sepsis

A

loss microbial biological barrier

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55
Q

what are aetiologies of erythroderma

A

psoriasis
atopic eczema
drug reaction
cutaneous Tcell lymphoma
idiopathic

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56
Q

what is sezary syndrome

A

cutaneous T cell lymphoma

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57
Q

management of erythroderma

A

treated psoriases
withdraw drug that caused it
restore fluid and electrolyte imbalance
manage body temp
emollients to support skin barrier

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58
Q

what is folliculitis

A

inflammation of hair follicles

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58
Q

apperance of folliculitis (2)

A

follicular erythema
sometimes pustular

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59
Q

HIV is associated with which type of folliculitis

A

eosinophilic folliculitis (non-infectious)

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60
Q

is folliculitis infectious or non

A

can be both

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61
Q

which bacteria is recurrent folliculitis associate with

A

Staphylococcus aureus
strains expressing PVL (panton valentine leukocidin)

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62
Q

treatment for folliculitis

A

antibiotics (erythromycin or flucloxacillin)
incision and drainage

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63
Q

in folliculitis, what is the difference between furuncle and carbuncle

A

furuncle is deep follicular abscess, while carbuncle involves adjacent connected follicles
carbuncle more likely to lead to complications eg cellulitis and septicaemia

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64
Q

how is staphyloccocus aureus established

A

Establishment as a part of the resident microbial flora
abundant in nasal flora

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65
Q

what is PVL from Staphylococcus aureus

A

B pore forming exotoxin produced by Staph. aureus

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66
Q

what do PCL cause to leukocyte and tissue

A

Leukocyte destruction and tissue necrosis

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67
Q

characteristics of PVL Staphy. Aureus

A

Often painful, more than 1 site, recurrent, present in contacts

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68
Q

what are the risks of acquiring PVL Staphylococcus Aureus (5C)

A
  1. close contact
  2. contaminated items (gym, towel)
  3. crowding (living condition)
  4. cleanliness of environement
  5. cuts and grazes (allow bacterial entry)
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69
Q

treatment for PVL Staphylococcus Aureus

A

antibiotics (tettracycline)
chlorhexidine body wash for 7 days
nasal application of mupirocin ointment

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70
Q

what is cellulitis

A

Infection of lower dermis and subcutaneous tissue

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71
Q

symptoms of cellulitis (3)

A

Tender swelling with ill-defined
blanching erythema
oedema

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72
Q

bacteria that cause cellulitis (2)

A

Streptococcus pyogenes Staphylococcus aureus

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73
Q

what is predisposing factor of cellulitis

A

oedema

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74
Q

treatment for cellulitis

A

oral or IV antibiotics

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75
Q

what is impetigo

A

Superficial bacterial infection, stuck-on, honey-coloured crusts overlying an erosion.
(surround mouth)

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76
Q

which bacteria cause non bullous impetigo

A

streptococci

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77
Q

which bacteria cause bullous impetigo

A

staphylococci

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78
Q

where do impetigo often affect

A

face
ears, nares

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79
Q

treatment of impetigo

A

topical with or without systemic antibiotics

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80
Q

which bacteria cause impetiginisation

A

staphylococcus aureus

81
Q

appearnace of impetiginisation

A

gold crust

82
Q

what is impetiginsation

A

atopic dermatitis
superficial infection of eczema skin

83
Q

what is Borreliosis (lyme disease)

A

Annular erythema develops at site of the bite of a Borrelia-infected tick

84
Q

what do lxodes tick infected to cause borreliosis

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

85
Q

initial manifestation of borreliosis

A

erythema migrans

86
Q

appearance of borreliosis

A

Erythematous papule at the bite site
Progression to annular erythema of >20cm

87
Q

symptoms of borreliosis

A

infection, fever, headache
secondary lesions develop
arthritis
carditis

88
Q

symptoms of neuroborreliosis

A

facial palsy
aseptic meningitis
polyradiculitis

89
Q

can we take biopsy for borreliosis

A

no, serology not sensitive

90
Q

treatment for borreliosis (3)

A

Doxycycline
Amoxicillin
Azithromycin

91
Q

which bacteria cause syphilis

A

treponema pallidum

92
Q

pathology of syphilis

A

Primary infection Chancre -painless ulcer with a firm indurated border
Painless regional lymphadenopathy one week after the primary chancre
Chancre appears within 10-90 days

93
Q

symptoms of secondary syphilis

A

Malaise, fever, headache, pruritus, loss of appetite, iritis

94
Q

when will we develop secondary syphilis

A

if sypholis untreated, 50 days after chancre

95
Q

can syphilis have oral lesion

A

yes in secondary syphilis
can vary from ulcers to mucous patches

96
Q

what is lues maligna

A

manifestation of secondary sphilitis
frequent in HIV patient due to immunosuppresant

97
Q

appearance of syphilis

A

pleomorphic skin lesions with pustules, nodules, ulcers with necrotising vasculitis

98
Q

appearance of tertiary syphitis

A

Gumma Skin lesions - nodules and plaques
Extend peripherally while central areas heal with scarring and atrophy
Mucosal lesions extend to and destroy the nasal cartilage

99
Q

systemic symtpoms of tertiary syphilis

A

cardiovascular disease
neurosyphilis

100
Q

how to diagnose syphilis

A

serology
clinical findings

101
Q

treatment for syphilis

A

oral tetracycline
IM benzylpenicillin

102
Q

how to transmit HSV-1

A

direct contact with contaminated saliva/infected secretions

103
Q

how to transmit HSV-2

A

sexual contact

104
Q

how does HSV virus replicate and travel to dorsal root ganglia

A

replicate at mucocutaneous site of infection
retrograde axonal flow

105
Q

when can HSV transmit

A

Transmission can occur even during asymptomatic periods of viral shedding

106
Q

symptoms of HSV

A

Preceded by tender lymphadenopathy, malaise, anorexia
± Burning, tingling
Painful rouped vesicles on erythematous base → ulceration / pustules / erosions with scalloped border
Crusting and resolution within 2-6 weeks
Orolabial lesions – often asymptomatic
Genital involvement – often excruciatingly painful→ urinary retention

107
Q

reactive symptoms of HSV

A

spontaneous, UV, fever, local tissue damage, stress

108
Q

appearnace of Eczema herpeticum HSV

A

Monomorphic, punched out erosions (excoriated vesicles)

109
Q

is eczema herpeticum emergency

110
Q

treatment for HSV eczema herpeticum

A

IV aciclovir

111
Q

what is HSV Herpetic whitlow

A

HSV infection of digits, often in children

112
Q

symptoms of HSV Herpetic whitlow

A

pain, swelling, vesicles
blisters on digits

113
Q

what is HSV herpetic whitlow often misdiagnosed with

A

paronychia
dactylitis

114
Q

what is neonatal HSV infection

A

exposure to HSV during vaginal delivery
can be HSV 1 or 2
onset from birth to 2 weeks

115
Q

appearance of neonatal HSV

A

Localised usually – scalp or trunk
Vesicles → bullae erosions
Encephalitis → mortality >50% without treatment, 15% with treatment → neurological deficits

116
Q

treatment for neonatal HSV

A

IV antivirals

117
Q

how to diagnose HSV

A

swab for PCR

118
Q

treatment for chronic HSV

A

oral valacyclovir
acyclovir x5 a day in immunocompetent localised infection
IV

119
Q

what is pityriasis versicolor

A

fungal skin infection

120
Q

appearance of pityriasis versicolor

A

Hypopigmented, hyperpigmented or erythematous macules +/- fine scale

121
Q

which fungi cause pityriasis versicolor

A

Trichophyton rubrum Malassezia spp. (e.g. M. furfur) overgrowth

122
Q

symptoms of superficialfungal infections

A

Flares when temperatures and humidity are high – e.g. in summer months

123
Q

treatment for superficial fungal infection

A

topical azole (miconazole and clotrimazole)

124
Q

medical term for athlete foot

A

tinea pedis

125
Q

what is kerion

A

inflammatory fungal infection that may mimic a bacterial folliculitis or an abscess of the scalp; scalp is tender and patient usually has posterior cervical lymphadenopathy

126
Q

what is candidiasis in superficial fungal infections predisposed

A

Predisposed by occlusion, moisture, warm temperature, diabetes mellitus

127
Q

appearance of candidiasis in superficial fungal infections

A

Most sites show erythema oedema, thin purulent discharge

128
Q

symptoms of candidiasis

A

Most sites show erythema oedema, thin purulent discharge
Usually an intertriginous infection (skin folds) or of oral mucosa.
A common cause of vulvovaginiti

129
Q

example fo opportunisitc fungal infection

A

mucormycosis

130
Q

presentations of mucormycosis

A

oedema, then pain, then eschar
fever, headache proptosis, facial pain, orbital cellulitis ± cranial nerve dysfunction

131
Q

associations of mucormycosis

A

Diabetes mellitus (1/3 of patients - DKA very high risk
Malnutrition
Uraemia
Neutropaenia
Medications: Steroids / antibiotics / desferoxamine
Burns
HIV

132
Q

treatment of mucormycosis

A

aggressive debridement & antifungal therapy amphoteracin

133
Q

what is scabies

A

Contagious infestation caused by Sarcoptes species
Female mates, burrows into upper epidermis, lays her eggs and dies after one month

134
Q

treatment for scabies

A

permethrin, oral ivermectin
- Two cycles of treatment are required

135
Q

appearance of scabies

A

Insidious onset of red to flesh-coloured pruritic papules
Affects interdigital areas of digits, volar wrists, axillary areas, genitalia

136
Q

diffenece between pigmented and non pigmented lesions appearance in skin cancer

A

pigmented: brown/black
non-pigmented: skin color/reddish

137
Q

layer of epidermis from top to bottom (6)

A

striatum corneum
striatum lucidum
striatum granulosum
striatum spinosum
straitum basale
dermis

138
Q

which 2 kinds of pigmented lesions are cancerous

A

lentigo maligna
malignant melanoma

139
Q

which 3 kinds of non pigmented lesions are cancerous

A

bowen’s
squamous cell carcinoma
basal cell carcinoma

140
Q

where is lentigo maligna spread

A

stay in epidermis (some can escape to dermis while some stay in epidermis

141
Q

how does lentigo maligna appear on skin (regular or irregular shape, color, size)

A

Irregular shape
Light & dark brown colours
Size usually >2.0 cm

142
Q

if the lesion/melanocytes travelled to deep dermis, is it still lentigo maligna

A

no, lentigo maligna stays in epidermis

143
Q

what are the 2 growths that can have when developing a malignant melanoma from a junctional naevus (flat mole with single color)

A

horizontal/ lateral and vertical growth

144
Q

which growth does superficial spreading malignant melanoma has

A

horizontal
so it’s flat

145
Q

what does white color on the nevus/mole mean

A

regression
immune system trying to eliminate melanoma

146
Q

what is the diagnosis rule of superficial spreading malignant melanoma

A

A–Asymmetry
B–Border
C–Color
D–Diameter
E–Evolving

147
Q

what is nodular malignant melanoma

A

Vertical proliferation/growth of malignant melanocytes
(no previous horizontal growth)

148
Q

what is nodular melanoma arising within a superficial spreading melanoma

A

a combination of both vertical and horizontal proliferation in melanoma

149
Q

what is the name of melanoma on sole of feet

A

acral lentiginous melanoma

150
Q

why acral lentiginous melanoma usually flat

A

walking applies pressure

151
Q

what is longitudinal melanonychia

A

dark band on nail
cuz at nail matrix there’s melanocytes and proliferated in a good way due to pressure
Usually benign

152
Q

what is subungual melanoma

A

melanocytes at nail matrix proliferated in a bad way

153
Q

appearance of subungual melanoma

A

wider band, uneven color (mostly black)

154
Q

use what tool to do examination of the skin using skin surface microscopy

A

dermascopy

155
Q

is ameloanotic melanoma pigmented or non-pigmented

A

non-pigmented

156
Q

how does ameloanotic melanoma appear

A

red nodule

157
Q

what are the types of malignant melanoma (6)

A

lentigo maligna melanoma
superficial spreading
nodular
acral lentiginous
subungual melanoma
ameloanotic melanoma

158
Q

what to measure in melanoma for prognosis

A

breslow thickness (how deep a melanoma has grown into the layers of skin)

159
Q

where does breslow thickness measure from in the skin

A

from granular layer to bottom of tumor

160
Q

risk factor of developing melanoma

A

family history of dysplastic nevi/melanoma
UV irradiation
childhood sunburns
intermittent burning exposure in unacclimatized fair skin
atypical/ dysplastic nevus syndrome
personal history of melanoma
skin type l,ll

161
Q

management of for urgent cut in melanoma

A

primary excision down to subcutaneous fat/ wide excision with margin determined by breslow depth

162
Q

management of all melanoma

A

excision and wide local excision (WLE)
followed by sentinel lymph node biopsy

163
Q

scans for melanoma

A

PET-CT
MRI Brain (cuz may spread)

164
Q

appearance of pyogenic melanoma

A

red nodule

165
Q

is pyogenic melanoma benign or malignant

166
Q

what are types of non-pigmented skin cancer (4)

A

Actinic keratosis- precancerous
Bowen’s disease
Squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma

167
Q

cause of actinic keratosis

A

sun exposure

168
Q

appearance of actinic keratosis

A

scaly patch
red flaky areas on skin

169
Q

is actinic keratosis cancerous

A

precancerous

170
Q

what s bowen’s disease

A

squamous cell carcinoma in situ

171
Q

what are treatments for actinic keratosis and bowen’s disease (6)

A

5 fluorouracil cream
cryotherapy
imiquimod cream
photodynamic therapy
currettage and cautery
excision

172
Q

where does squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) travel to from epidermis

A

travel to dermis

173
Q

clinical appearance of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

A
  • Erythematous to skin coloured​
  • Papule​
  • Plaque-like ​
  • Exophytic​
  • Hyperkeratotic​
  • Ulcerated
174
Q

causes of SCC

A

Arises within background of sun-damaged skin​

175
Q

appearance of keratoacanthoma

A

dome shape
Rapidly enlarging papule that evolves into a sharply circumscribed, crateriform nodule with keratotic core ​(like a volcano)

176
Q

where is keratoacanthoma most often found

A

sun exposed areas

177
Q

how fast does keratoacanthoma resolve

A

slowly over months

178
Q

what is keratoacanthoma difficult to distinguish clinically and histologically from

179
Q

how does basal cell carcinoma present (BCC)

A

shiny, pearly papule(smaller) or nodule (bigger)

180
Q

causes of basal cell carcinoma (BCC)

A

chronic sun exposure

181
Q

what is the most common type of skin cancer

A

basal cell carcinoma

182
Q

what are different types of basal cell carcinoma (2)

A
  1. nodular BCC
  2. basisquamous BCC
183
Q

Treatment for Basal or Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Surgery
Mohs surgery at high risk sites
radiotherapy

184
Q

what are considered as high risk areas in treatment of basal cell carcinoma

A

close to nose (hard to remove)

185
Q

how to distinguish BCC and SCC in appearance

A

BCC: usually flat, shiny , with vessels visible
SCC: usually nodule, red

186
Q

common treatment for basal cell carcinoma

A

MOHS Surgery treatment

187
Q

which melanoma is most common variant in pale skin types

A

superficial spreading melanoma

188
Q

does nodular melanoma have a rapid radial growth phase

189
Q

what is the ABCDE rule for detecting in skin cancer

A

radial growth phase melanoma
(NOT present in nodular malignant melanoma)

190
Q

what should suspected melanoma undergo for diagnosis

A

complete excision

191
Q

what can BRAF mutation status tell

A

inform prognosis and treatment decisions

192
Q

is keratinocyte carcinomas more common in men or women

193
Q

when will BCC metastasis

A

when left untreated over many years

194
Q

which therapy is used for unresectable BCC

A

vismodegib

195
Q

when is MOHS micrographic surgery given

A

aggressive subtypes, critical sites and recurrent BCC

196
Q

which therapy is for unresectable or metastatic SCC

A

cemiplimab

197
Q

which of the following treatment is not for actinic keratoses
(cryotherapy, radiation therapy, imiquimod, topical 5-fluorouracil)

A

radiation therapy

198
Q

what is radiation therapy for in skin cancer