Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

where oesophageal star and end

A

C5
T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

stages of swallowing

A

4 (0-3)
oral
pharyngeal
upper oesophageal
lower oesophageal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

sequence of stages of swallowing of the 2 shincter

A

CC
OO
CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how to determine motility of oesophagus

A

manometery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is LOS resting pressure / relaxation mediated by

A

inhibitory noncholinergic nonadrenergic neurons of myenteric plexus (NCNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

causes of functional disorders of the oesophagus

A

Abnormal contractions: (Hypermobility
Hypomobility
Disordered coordination)
Failure of protective mechanisms: GORD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

achalasia causes

A

Loss of ganglion cells in aurebach’s myenteric plexus in LOS wall
decreased inhibitory neuron activity
cannot relax properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

secondary achalasia causes

A

chagus disease (parasite)
protozoa infection
amyloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What diseases is hypermotility of oesophagus seen in

A

Chagas disease
Protozoa
Amyloid
Sarcoma
Eosinophilic oesophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is achalsia

A

increased resting pressure of LOS
relaxation too late or weak
swallowed food collects in oesophagus cause increased pressure throughout with dilation of oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

achalasia treatment

A

pneumatic dilation (PD)
to weaken LOS by circumferential stretching to stretch muscles of LOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is heller’s myotomy

A

A continuous myotomy performed for 6cm on the oesophagus and 3 cm onto the stomach
split the muscle
treatment of achalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is dor fundoplication

A

partial wrapping of the stomach around the esophagus to make a low-pressure valve) performed to prevent reflux from the stomach into the esophagus following the myotomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

risks of heller’s myotomy and dor fundoplication

A

oesophageal and gastric perforation
vagus nerve division
splenic injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is scleroderma

A

autoimmune
hypomotility in early stages
atrophy of smooth muscles of oesophagus
reduced resting pressure of LOS
CREST syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is CREST syndrome

A

calcinosis,
Raynaud’s
esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly,
telangiectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is corkscrew oesophagus

A

diffuse oesophageal spasm
incoordinate contractions
dysphagia and chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

treatment for corkscrew oesophagus

A

forceful PD of cardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how to find iatrogenic oesophageal perforation

A

oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is Boerhaave;s oesophageal perforation

A

sudden increase in intra-oesophageal pressure with negatvie intro thoracic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is foriegn body oesophageal perforation

A

disk batteries (cause electric burn if in mucosa)
magnets
sharp objects
dishwasher tablet
acid/alkali

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is trauma type oesphageal perforation

A

neck = penetrating
thorax = blunt force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

clinical features of trauma type oesopheal perforation

A

dysphagia
blood in saliva
haematemesis
surgical empysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

types of oesphageal perforation (4)

A

iatrogenic
trauma
foreign body
Boerhaave’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

where are the areas of oesophagus prone to perforation

A

cricopharyngeal constriction
aortic and bronchial constriction
diaphragmatic and sphincter constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

management for oesophageal perforation

A

IV fluids
borad spectrum AB
bloods (G&S)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

definitive management for oesophaeal perforation (2)

A

conservative management with covered metal stent
operative management (primary repair is optimal, oesophagectomy is definitive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

why LOS usually close

A

act as barrier to against reflux of harmful gastric juice (pepsin and HCl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the mechanisms of protection after reflux (3)

A

volume clearance (oesophageal peristalsis reflux)
pH clearnace
epithelium (barrier properties)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

mechanism of inhibiting reflux

A

Ach, alpha adrenergic agonists cause increased pressure in oesophageal sphincter
cause inhibition of reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

mechanism of promoting reflux

A

Beta adrenergic agonists, dopamine NO, gastric juice, fat cause decreased pressure in oesophageal sphincter
promote reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what happens if fail to protect oesophageal

A

GORD
stOmach acid leaks up into oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

causes of GORD

A

reduced sphincter pressure
reduced saliva production cause pH clearance
abnormal peristalsis cause volume clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What increases LOS pressure

A

Acetylcholine
Alpha-adrenergic agonists
Hormones
Protein-rich food
Histamine
High intra-abdominal pressure
INHIBITS REFLUX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what decreases LOS pressure and promotes

A

acidic food
fats
NO
smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are sliding hiatus hernias

A

involve both lower oesophagu and stomach
portion of stomach herniated
ligament holding the distal oesophagus down gives way so whole stomach slides up into chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a rolling hiatus hernia

A

portion of stomach sticks upside
Junction is in place and the stomach herniates alongside the oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you investigate GORD (3)

A
  1. OGD - to exclude cancer
    or confirm oesophagitis, peptic stricture and barretts
  2. Oesophageal manometry
  3. 24hr oesophageal pH recording
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

GORD treatments

A

lifestyle changes
PPIs
dilation peptic stricutres
laproscopic Nissen’s fundoplication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is erosive and haemorrhagic gastritis

A

acute ulcer
gastric bleeding and perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is nonerosive chronic active gastritis and its treatment

A

helicobacter pylori (H.pylori)
PPi
Triple treatment (amoxicillin, clarithromycin, pantoprazole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is atrophic gastritis

A

fundus
autoantibodies vs part and products of parietal cells
parietal cells atrophy
reduce acid and IF secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

neural stimulation of gastric secretion

A

Ach
postganglionic transmitter of vagal parasympathetic fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

endocrine stimulation of gastric secretion

A

gastrin
from G cells of antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Paracrine stimulation of gastric secretion

A

Histamine (ECL cells and mast cells of gastric wall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Endocrine inhibition of gastric secretion

A

secretin from S.I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

paracrine inhibition of gastric secretion

A

somatostatin (SIH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

paracrine and autocrine inhibition of gastric secretion

A

PGs
TGF-alpha
adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the different types of gastritis (4)

A

erosive and haemorrhagic
Nonerosive, chronic active gastritis
Atrophic (fundal gland) gastritis
Reactive gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

methods of mucosal protection in stomach (4)

A

Mucus film
HCO3- secretion
Epithelial barrier (tight junctions, strong apical membrane)
Mucosal blood perfusion (good blood supply can get rid of H+ quickly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is produced in the cardia and pyloric region

A

mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is produced in the body and fundus

A

mucus
HCl
pepsinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is produced in the antrum

A

gastrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are the mechanisms for repairing epithelial defects (epithelial repair and wound healing)

A
  1. migration
  2. gap closed by cell growth (stimulated by EGF, TGF-alpha, IGF-1, GRP, gastrin)
  3. acute wound healing (BM destroyed and attract leukocytes, macro[hages, phagocytosis of necrotic ells, angiogenesis, regenration fo ECM)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How does migration repair epithelium

A

Adjacent epithelial cells flatten to close gap

via sideward migration along BM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

how are ulcers formed

A

H. Pylori
Increased gastric juice secretion
Decreased bicarbonate secretion
Decreased cell formation
Decreased blood perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

medical treatment for ulcer

A

PPI or H2 blocker
Triple Rx (amoxicillin, clarithromycin, pantoprazole) for 7-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

clinical outcomes for H.Pylori infection

A
  1. asymptomatic or chronic gastritis
  2. chronic atrophic gastritis, intestinal metaplasia
  3. gastric or duodenal ulcer
  4. gastric cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

surgical treatment for ulcer and medical follow up

A

Intractability after medical therapy
continuous requirement for steroid therapy / NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

complications of surgical treatment for ulcer

A

haemorrhage
obstruction
perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When would you opt for elective surgery for ulcers

A

Rare - most uncomplicated ulcers heal within 12 weeks
if not - change medication, observe additional 12 weeks
Check serum gastrin (antral G-cell hyperplasia or gastrinoma [Zollinger-Ellison syndrome])
OGD: biopsy all 4 quadrants of ulcer (rule out malignant ulcer) if refractory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

where are osmorecceptors found in hypothalamus (2)

A

organum vasculosum of lamina terminalis (OVLT)
subfornical organ (SFO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

how angiotensin ll affects ADH secretion

A

increase
and increase thirst as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is ghrelin responsible for

A

hunger hormone
increase appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is leptin for

A

inhibit hunger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is appetite stimulant signal described as

A

orexigenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is appetite suppressive signal described as

A

anorectic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

which part of hypothalamus release orexigenic signal

A

lateral hypothalamus (feeding centre)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

which part of hypothalamus release anorectic signa;

A

ventromedial hypothalamus (satiety centre)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what happens to lesion in ventromedial hypothalamus (satiety centre)

A

obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what nucleus in hypothalamus release oxytocin and ADH

A

paraventricular nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what signals does arcuate nucleus in hypothalamus contain

A

orexigenic and anorectic signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how is the BBB in arcuate nucleus and why is it in this way

A

incomplete
to allow access to peripheral hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

main role of arcuate nucleus in hypothalamus

A

regulation of food intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what are the 2 neurone populations in arcuate nucleus

A

stimulatory (NPY/AGPR neurone)
inhibitory (POMC neurone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what happens to activation of POMC neurone

A

inhibit food intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

which receptor is highly expressed in paraventricular nucleus

A

MCR receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

how melanocortin system reduce appetite

A

arcuate nucleus release POMC neurone
POMC cause increase in α– Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (alpha MSH)
alpha MSH increase bind to MC4R in paraventricular nucleus to reduce food intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

how melanocortin system increase appetite

A

arcuate nucleus release AgRP
cause inhibition in MC4R
increase food intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is the mechanism in regulating food intake

A

fat produces circulating hormone
hypothalamus senses the concentration of hormone
then alters neuropeptides to increase/decrease food intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

where does leptin acts on

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

role of leptin

A

regulate appetite (intake) and thermogenesis (expenditure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

where is leptin secreted from (2)

A

white adipose tissue and gastric mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

low level of leptin indicates what

A

low body fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

high level of leptin indicates what

A

high body fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is leptin resistance

A

leptin is present but doesn’t signal effectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

where are gut hormones that regulate appetite released

A

enteroendocrine cells in stomach, pancreas, small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

which gut hormones inhibit appetite

A

peptide YY (PYY)
glucagon like peptide -1 (GLP-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

which gut hormone increase appetite

A

ghrelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

how does ghrelin prepare food intake in gut

A

increase gastric motility and acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

how ghrelin modulates neurone in arcuate nucleus

A

stimulate NPY/ AgRP neuornes to increase appetite
inhibit POMC neurone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is ghrelin involved in

A

increase appetite
regulation of rewards
taste sensation
memory
carcadian rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

when is PYY released

A

in response to feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

where is PYY released

A

terminal ileum and colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

effect on PYY on arcuate nucleus

A

stimulate POMC
inhibit NPY
overall reduce appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

when is GLP-1 released

A

response to feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

effect of GLP-1in appetite

A

reduces appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

GLP-1 effects to stomach, liver, pancreas, adipose tissue, heart, brain

A

stomach: decrease gastric empyting
liver: reduce glucose production
pancreas: increase insulin secretion, reduce glucagon, increase insulin biosynthesis, increase B cell proliferation and reduce apoptosis
adipose tissue: increase glucose uptake and storgae
heart: increase cardiac function and protection
brain: increase neuroprotection and reduce appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what organs are associated wit right hypochondriac region (2)

A

gallbladder
liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what organs are associated wit left hypochondriac region

A

pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what organs are associated wit epigastric region

A

stomach
duodenum
pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what organs are associated wit right and left lumbar region

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what organs are associated wit umbilical region

A

small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what organs are associated wit right iliac region

A

appendix
caecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what organs are associated wit left iliac region

A

sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what organs are associated wit hypogastric region

A

bladder
uterus
adnexae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

describe the character of pain that produced by kidney stone

A

colicky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

describe the character of pain that produced by liver

A

constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

describe the character of pain that produced by spleen

A

constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

radiation of pain that you’d expect produced by gallbladder

A

upper right quadrant through to back and to right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

radiation of pain that you’d expect produced by pancreas head

A

straight to back and left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

radiation of pain that you’d expect produced by pancreas tail

A

through to back and left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

radiation of pain that you’d expect by kidney

A

in loin and radiates to groin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

radiation of pain for small bowel

A

doesn’t radiate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what does tolerance mean in GIT immunology

A

cell absorb pathogen and form immune response through food antigens and commensal bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

what is dual immunological role in gut immunology

A

if too much activation, won’t go to tolerance phase and go to activation phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

what are the 4 main bacteria in gut

A

bacteroidota
firmicutes
actinobacteria
proteobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what microbiota are in gut

A

bacteria
virus
fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what does symbiosis mean

A

living tgt
without benefit or harm each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what are commensals

A

a microorganism which benefits from association but no harm to host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what are pathobionts

A

symbiont doesn’t normally hv inflammatory response but under some conditions has the potential to cause dysregulated inflammation and disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what is dysbiosis

A

altered microbiota composition, turn healthy microbiota to inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

causes of dysbiosis

A

infection or inflammation
diet
xenobiotics
hygiene
geentics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

examples of bacterial metabolites and toxins in dysbiosis

A

TMAO
4-EPS
SCFAs
bile acids
AHR ligands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what is gnotobiogy

A

absence of microorganisms / germ free will cause hindered development of short intestine
results in reduced peyer’s patches for immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what are some immunological ways after invasion to protect body from gut invasion (2)

A

MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue)
GALT (gut associated lymphoid tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what are on the gut epithelial barrier to help defence bacteria (3)

A

mucus layer (goblet cells)
epithelial monolayer (tight junctions)
paneth cells (small intestins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

where are paneth cells found

A

crypts of lieberkuhn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

roles of paneth cells

A

secrete antimicrobial peptides (help with digestions) and lysozyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

in MALT where are HEVs (high endothelial venules) found

A

lymph nodes
secondary lymphoid organs
not in spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

in MALT what are lymphoid follicles surrounded by

A

high endothelial venules postcapillary venules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

importance of HEVs (3)

A

immune surveillance (identify foreign invaders and changes in body’s own cells eg neoantigens in cancer)
lymphocyte recirculation (support high levels of lymphocyte extravasation from blood)
immune response (help inititae and maintain immune response in lymph nodes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

is the oral cavity rich in immunological tissue

A

yes
eg pharyngeal tonsil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

in GALT , what immune responses are results of generations of lymphoid cells and antibodies

A

both adaptive and innate immune responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

in GALT, what are the non-organised /1st line attack in immune response

A

intra-epithelial lymphocytes (T cells, NK cells)
lamina propria lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

in GALT, what are the organised /1st line attack in immune response

A

peyer’s patches (Small intestine)
caecal patches (Large intestine)
isolated lymphoid follicles
mesenteric lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what are peyer’s patches

A

specialised nodules in ileum
mainly distal ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

which has more microbiota, peyer’s patches and surface area for immunological response (small or large intestine)

139
Q

what are peyer’s patches

A

immune sensors
aggregated lymphoid follicles covered with follicle associated epithelium (FAE)

140
Q

what are FAE (follicle associated epithelium)

A

no goblet cells
no secretory cells
lack microvilli
composed of specialized Immune effector cells that cover the luminal side of the lymphoid follicles of GALT

141
Q

what takes up antigen within follicle associated epithelium

A

M cells (microfold cells)

142
Q

what does M cells express in peyer’s patches

A

express IgA receptors to facilitate transfer of IgA bacteria complex into peyer’s patches to activate naive T and B cells

143
Q

what is antigen sampling in gut

A

at antigen presentation, all dendritic cells that originally hide will squeeze out via tight junctions and mucosa epithelial cells to captivate antigen and relocate to mesenteric lymph nodes

144
Q

is antigen sampling dependent or independent on M cells

A

independent route

145
Q

what do B cells express in peyer’s patches

146
Q

on antigen presentation what does IgM on B cells in peyer’s patches switch to

147
Q

what is the B cell adaptive response in gut

A

naive B cells express IgM in peyer’s patches
when antigen presented, switch to IgA
T cells and epithelial cells influence B cell mturation via cytokine production
B cells mature to become IgA to secrete plasma cells
B cells populate in lamina propria

148
Q

what cells secrete IgA

A

gut B cells to form secretory IgA (sIgA)

149
Q

what do sIgA do after secreted from gut B cells

A

binds to luminal antigen to prevent its adhesion and invasion

150
Q

what does homing cascade do in gut

A

directs circulating naive t cells to peyer’s patches

151
Q

mechanism of homing cascade in gut

A

rolling of gut hormone
MAdCAM-1 adhesion and bind to tight junctions via a4B7 integrein
cause activation at HEV
arrest

152
Q

do enterocytes and goblet have short or long lifespan

A

short
so need rapid turnover rate

153
Q

why short lifespan for enterocytes and goblet cells

A

remove toxic substances
replace anything died off

154
Q

what are enterocytes function in first line defence

A

against GI pathogens and directly affected by toxic substances i diet
affect cell function, metabolic rate
any lesions are short lived

155
Q

how is chorela transmitted

A

transmitted thru faecal-oral route
spread via contaminated water and food

156
Q

which bacteria cause cholera infection

A

vibrio cholerae serogroups O1 and O39

157
Q

what happens when cholera bacteria reaches small intestine

A

contact with epithelium and release cholera enterotoxin
increase cAMP activity
increase ion pumps and lose water thru GIT
diarrhoea

158
Q

main symptoms of cholera infection

A

dehydration and watery diarrhoea

159
Q

how to diagnose cholera infection

A

bacterial culture from stool sample on selective agar
rapid dipstick tests

160
Q

treatment for cholera infection

A

oral-rehydration
vaccine

161
Q

examples of viral infection of infectious diarrhoea gastroenteritis

A

rotavirus
norovirus

162
Q

other causes of infectious diarrhoea in gut

A

protozoal parasitic
bacterial

163
Q

what is rotavirus

164
Q

where does rotavirus replicate

A

in enterocytes

165
Q

how many types of rotavirus and which is most common

A

5 types A-E
type A most common

166
Q

treatment for rotavirus infection

A

oral rehydration
vaccine (live attenuated oral vaccine against Type A)

167
Q

what does rotavirus cause

A

infectious diarrhoea

168
Q

what is norovirus

169
Q

route of transmission of norovirus

A

faecal-oral transmission
outbreaks often in closed communities

170
Q

symptoms of norovirus infection

A

vomit
acute gastroenteritis

171
Q

how to diagnose norovirus

A

sample PCR

172
Q

what is campylobacter

A

curved bacteria
most common species:
campylobacter jejuni, campylobacter coli

173
Q

route of transmission of campylobacter

A

undercooked meat
untreated water
unpasteurised milk

174
Q

treatment of campylobacter

A

not usually need
but if need take antibiotic (azithromycin, macrolide)

175
Q

what is E.coli

A

gram negative intestinal bacteria
most harmless but hv 6 pathotypes associated with diarrhoea (diarrhoeagenic)

176
Q

management of C.diff bacteria

A

isolate patient
stop current antibiotics
take metronidazole and vancomycin
faecal microbiota transplantation

177
Q

what are the investigations for GI disorders and infection

A

stool sample (for C.diff toxin esp those taking antibiotics)
stool culture
AXR
CT
endoscopy

178
Q

control of GI disorders

A

need isolate or not?
continue antibiotics?
management of fluids? nutrition and diarrhoea?

179
Q

which antibiotic for C.diff patients

A

vancomycin/
metronidazole /
fidaxomicin

180
Q

which bacteria is often associated with pseudomembranous colitis

A

C.difficile infection

181
Q

bacterial causes of infectious diarrhoea

A

C.diff (clostridium difficile)
shigella
Salmonella spp
E.coli

182
Q

non infectious diarrhoea causes

A

IBD
haemorrhoids
post infectious IBD
microscopic colitis
ischaemia colitis
coeliac disease

183
Q

if colonoscopy showed left sided inflammatory changes, chronic inflammation with no granulomas what are some likely diagnosis

A

ulcerative colitis

184
Q

adipsia meaning

A

lack of thirst even body low on water

185
Q

3 causes of primary polydipsia

A

dehydration
hypothalamus injury
organic brain damage

186
Q

conditions that cause secondary polydipsia

A

DM
Diabetes insipidus
psychogenic polydipsia
Conn’s syndrome
AVP resistance
diuretics
anti-depressant
laxatives

187
Q

what is conn’s syndrome

A

Primary aldosteronism, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, excess production of the hormone aldosterone from the adrenal glands, resulting in low renin levels and high blood pressure.

188
Q

when high aldosterone, does it associate with hyper or hypokalaemia

A

hypokalaemia

189
Q

what are the 3 main groups that cause malnutrition in hospital

A

reduced intake
malabsorption / maldigestion
altered metabolism

190
Q

steps to diagnose malnutrition

A

screening
assessed by dietician
diagnose

191
Q

who are considered malnourished and need nutrition support

A

BMI < 18.5
unintentional weight loss of >10% in past 3-6 months
BMI < 20 + unintentaional weight loss of >5% in past 3-6 months

192
Q

who are considered at risk of malnourished and need nutrition support

A

eaten little or nth in >5days or likely to eat nth or eat little or nth in next 5 days
poor absorptive capacity or high nutrient losses or increased nutritional needs from causes eg catabolism

193
Q

what is artificial nutrition support

A

provision of enteral or parenteral nutrients to treat / prevent malnutrition

194
Q

what does enteral mean in artificial nutrition support

A

utilise GIT to provide nutrient

195
Q

which is more superior, enteral or parenteral nutrtion

196
Q

ultimate aim of mode of feeding

A

return to oral feeding as soon as clinically possible

197
Q

if gastric feeding possible, which tube should we use for feeding malnutrition pt

A

naso-gastric tube (NGT)

198
Q

if gastric feeding not possible, which tube should we use for feeding malnutrition pt

A

naso-duodenal tube (NDT) or naso-jejunal tube (NJT)

199
Q

long term artificial nutrition support enteral example

A

gastrostomy/jejunostomy

200
Q

what are the 3 main complications area associated with enteral feeding

A

mechanical
metabolic
GI

201
Q

mechanical complications of enteral feeding

A

misplaced tube
blockage
buried bumper

202
Q

metabolic complications of enteral feeding

A

hyperglycaemia
deranged electrolytes

203
Q

GI complications of enteral feeding

A

patient not absorb, obstruction, vomit, diarrhea, nasopharyngealmpain, laryngeal ulceration

204
Q

what is parenteral nutrition (PN)

A

delivery of nutrients, electrolytes, fluid directly into venous blood

205
Q

when to use parenteral nutrition

A

inadequate or unsafe oral and / or enteral nutritional intake
non-functioning, inaccessible or perforated GIT

206
Q

how to access parenteral nutrition

A

use central venous catheter (CVC): tip at SVC and RA where nutrients are received

207
Q

what are complications associated with parenteral nutrition

A

metabolic
mechanical
catheter related infections

208
Q

where is albumin synthesised

209
Q

what hypoalbuminaemia indicate

A

increased inflammation
poor prognosis

210
Q

acute phase response leading to hypoalbuminaemia

A

inflammatory stimulus cause activation of monocytes&macrophages
release cytokines
cytokines act on liver to stimulate synthesis of some proteins eg CRP
downregulation production of others eg albumin

211
Q

what is refeeding syndrome (RFS)

A

a group of biochemical shifts and clinical symptoms that occur in malnourished or starved individual on reintroduction of oral, enteral, parenteral nutrition

212
Q

consequences of refeeding syndrome

A

arrhythmia, tachycardia, cardiac arrest, sudden death
respiratory depression
encephalpathy
coma, seizures
wernicke’s encephalopathy

213
Q

what is pathogenesis of refeeding syndrome

A

starvation/malnutrition
glycogenesis, gluconeogenesis, protein catabolism
protein, fat, mineral etc intolerance
refeed
fluid, salt, nutritents
insulin secretion
increase protein and glycogen synthesis
increase glucose uptake, utilisation of thiamine, uptake of K+, Mg2+, PO4 3-
hypokalaemia hypomagnesaemia, thiamine deficiency

214
Q

what criteria are at risk of refeeding syndrome

A

very little or no food intake for >5days

215
Q

what criteria are at high risk of refeeding syndrome

A

> /= 1 of the following:
- BMI < 16 kg/m2
- Unintentional weight loss > 15 % 3 – 6 months
- Very little / no nutrition > 10 days
- Low K+, Mg2+, PO4 prior to feeding
OR
/= 2 of the following:
- BMI < 18.5 kg/m2
- Unintentional weight loss > 10 % 3 – 6 months
- Very little / no nutrition > 5 days
- PMHx alcohol abuse or drugs (insulin, chemotherapy, antacids, diuretics)

216
Q

what criteria are at extremely high risk of refeeding syndrome

A

BMI < 14 kg/m2
Negligible intake > 15 days

217
Q

management of refeeding syndrome

A
  1. Administer thiamine 30 minutes before and for the first ten days of feeding following Trust policy
  2. Correct and monitor electrolytes daily following Trust policy
  3. micronutrients from onset of feeding (start 10-20cal/kg) CHO 40-50% energy
  4. Monitor fluid shifts and minimise risk of fluid and Na+ overload
218
Q

what are the different types of cancer of GIT (6)

A
  1. squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
  2. adenocarcinoma
  3. Neuroendocrine tumors (NET)
  4. Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors (GISTs)
  5. leiomyoma/leiomyosarcomas
  6. Liposarcomas
219
Q

different forms of colorectal cancer (3)

A

sporadic
familial
hereditary syndrome

220
Q

what causes normal epithelium transform to hyperproliferative epithelium in colorectal cancer (4) + what mutation

A

aspirin and NSAIDS
folate
calcium
APC mutation
COX-2 overexpression cause aberrant cryptic foci

221
Q

what causes hyperproliferative epithelium transform to small adenoma in colorectal cancer (2)

A

aspirin
NSAIDS

222
Q

what causes small adenoma transform to large adenoma in colorectal cancer (3)+ what mutation

A

oestrogen
aspirin
NSAIDS
K-ras mutation

223
Q

what mutation and loss of what cause large adenoma change to colon carcinoma

A

p53 mutation
loss of 18q

224
Q

clinical presentations in caecal and right sided cancer

A

iron deficiency anaemia
change in bowel habit (diarrhoea)
distal ileum obstruction (late)
palpable mass (late)

225
Q

clinical presentations in left sided and sigmoid carcinoma

A

rectal bleeding
mucus
thin stool (late)

226
Q

clinical presentations in rectal carcinoma

A

rectal bleeding
mucus
tenesmus
anal, perineal, sacral pain(late)
bowel obstruction (late)

227
Q

metastasis of colorectal cancer clinical presentation (4 areas)

A

liver (hepatic pain, jaundice)
lung (cough)
regional lymph nodes
peritoneum (sister marie joseph nodule)

228
Q

signs of primary colorectal cancer in examination

A

abdominal tenderness and distension (large bowel obstruction)
rigid sigmoidoscopy
abdominal mass
digital rectal exam (<12cm dentate and reached by examining finger)

229
Q

sings of metastasis and complications of colorectal caner

A

hepatomegaly
monophonic wheeze
bone pain

230
Q

colorectal cancer investigation for faecal occult blood

A

FIT (faecal immunochemical test)
guaiac test (based on pseudoperaoxidase activity of haematin)

231
Q

blood tests for colorectal cancer

A

FBC
tumor markers

232
Q

investigations for colorectal cancer (imaging)

A

CT colonoscopy
colonography

233
Q

investigations for rectal cancer (imaging)

A

MRI pelvis

234
Q

what are CT Chest/ abdo/ pelvis scans for in colorectal cancer

A

staging prior treatment

235
Q

main management of colon cancer

A

stent
radiotherapy
chemo

236
Q

2 main types of obstructive colon carcinoma

A

right and transverse colon
left sided obstruction

237
Q

which artery supply all small bowel

238
Q

what’s the name of the procedure to remove one side of the colon

A

hemicolectomy

239
Q

aetiology of hepatocellular cancer (2)

A

cirrhosis
aflatoxin

240
Q

aetiology of gall bladder cancer

A

galstone
porcelain GB
chronic typhoid infection

241
Q

aetiology of cholangiocarcinoma

A

choledochal cyst
liver fluke
UC
primary sclerosing cholangitis

242
Q

which has the highest suitable for surgery rate (hepatocellular carcinoma, gallbladder cancer or cholangiocarcinoma)

A

cholangiocarcinoma

243
Q

example of primary liver cancer

A

hepatocellular carcinoma
gallbladder cancer cholangiocarcinoma

244
Q

whats the most common secondary liver metastases

A

colorectal cancer

245
Q

what’s the surgical resection aim in HCC

A

take away wherever lump is
and remove as little as possible

246
Q

what’s the surgical resection aim in GB cancer

A

remove GB and the bits of liver the GB stuck to

247
Q

what’s the surgical resection aim in cholangiocarcinoma

A

remove bile duct and bits the liver stuck to

248
Q

what is the commonest form of pancreatic caner

A

pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma

249
Q

risk factors of pancreatic cancer

A

chronic pancreatitis
T2DM
cigarette smoking
diet, gall stones, past gastric surgery
FMH

250
Q

gene that involves in hereditary pancreatitis

A

CFTR
PRSS1
SPINK1

251
Q

gene involved in familial atypical multiple mole melanoma

252
Q

genes involved in familial breast ovarian cancer syndrome

A

BRAC1
BRAC2
PALB2

253
Q

pathogenesis of pancreatic cancer

A

Pancreatic Intraepithelial Neoplasias (PanIN)

254
Q

clinical presentations of carcinoma of head of pancreas

A

jaundice (due to invasion or compression of CBD)
weight loss (anorexia/ malabsorption)
pain
GI bleeding
pancreatitis

255
Q

clinical presentation of carcinoma of body & tail of pancreas

A

vomiting (late stage due to DJ flexure)
weight loss with backpain
more advanced lesions than head of pancreas

256
Q

is jaundice common in carcinoma of body & tail of pancreas

257
Q

prognosis of carcinoma of body & tail of pancreas

A

mostly unresectable at the time of diagnosis

258
Q

investigations of pancreatic cancer

A

tumor marker CA19-9 elevated
ultrasonography
dual-phase CT
MRI
MRCP
ERCP
endoscopic ultrasound
laparoscopy & laparoscopic US
PET

259
Q

what can be identified using ultrasonography in pancreatic cancer

A

dilated bile ducts
pancreatic tumors
liver metastases

260
Q

MRCP function in pancreatic cancer investigations

A

provides ductal images w/o complications of ERCP

261
Q

ERCP function in pancreatic cancer investigations

A

confirms typical double duct sign
therapeutic modality for biliary stenting to relieve jaundice
aspiration of bile-duct system

262
Q

function of endoscopic US in pancreatic cancer

A

detect small tumors
assess vascular invasion
fine needle aspiration

263
Q

laparoscopy and laparoscopic US function in pancreatic cancer

A

detect occult metastatic lesions of liver and peritoneal cavity

264
Q

PET function in pancreatic cancer

A

demonstrate occult metastases

265
Q

where do neuroendocrine tumors arise from

A

gastroenteropancreatic tract

266
Q

which genetic syndrome is commonly associated with neuroendocrine tumors

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 1 (MEN1)

267
Q

biochemical investigations of NETs

A

chromogranin A (secreted by NETs)
gut hormones in fasting state
Calcium, PTH, prolactin, GH
24hr urinary 5-HIAA (serotonin metabolite)

268
Q

imaging investigations of NETs

A

CT
MRI
bowel imaging (endoscopy, barium to follow, capsule endoscopy)
EUS
somatostatin receptor scintigraphy

269
Q

treatments for NETs

A

curative resection (R0)
cytoreductive resection (R1/2)
liver transplant
medical, biotherapy, targeted therapy

270
Q

what is GI cause of iron deficiency anaemia in order of frequency

A

aspirin/NSAIDs
colonic adnocarcinoma
gastric carcinoma
benign gastric ulcer
angiodyplasia
coeliac disease
gastrectomy
H.pylori

271
Q

bowel ischaemia presentation

A

sudden onset crampy abdominal pain
bloody, loose stool
fever
pain on affected colon

272
Q

which part does acute mesenteric ischaemia occurs

A

small bowel

273
Q

which part does ischaemic colitis occur

A

large bowel

274
Q

is acute mesenteric ischaemia occlusive and why

A

occulsive
due to thromboemboli

275
Q

is ischaemic colitis occlusive or not

A

non-occlusive
low flow states or athersclerosis

276
Q

does ischaemic colitis have acute or moderate pain

A

moderate pain and tenderness

277
Q

bloods finding in bowel ischaemia (FBC and VBG)

A

FBC: neutrophilic leukocytosis
VBG: lactic acidosis

278
Q

imaging findings in bowel ischaemia

A

disrupted flow
vascular stenosis
Pneomatosis intestinalis
thumbprint sign

279
Q

bowel ischaemia investigations (3)

A

bloods
imaging (CT angiogram)
endoscopy

280
Q

conservative management of bowel ischaemic colitis

A

IV fluid resuscitation
bowel rest
borad spectrum ABx
NG tube for decompression
anticoagulation
serial abdominal examination and repeat imaging

281
Q

indications of bowel ischaemia

A

peritonitis or sepsis
massive bleeding

282
Q

surgical management of bowel ischaemia

A

exploratory laparotomy
endovascular revascularisation

283
Q

example of endovascular revascularisation for bowel ischaemia in patients without signs of ischaemia

A

balloon angioplasty
thrombectomy

284
Q

what is mcburney’s point

A

tenderness in RLQ
test for appendix

285
Q

what is blumberg sign

A

rebound tenderness in RIF

286
Q

what is rovsing sign

A

RLQ pain on deep palpation of LLQ
test for appendicitis

287
Q

what is psoas sign

A

RLQ pain on flexion of right hip against resistance

288
Q

what is obturator sign

A

RLQ pain on passive internal rotation of hip with hip and knee flexion

289
Q

blood results for acute appendicitis

A

FBC: neutrophilic leukocytosis
increased CRP
urinalysis
electrolyte imbalance due to vomiting

290
Q

imaging tests for acute appendicitis

A

CT
USS
MRI

291
Q

conservative management for acute appendicitis

A

IV fluids
analgesia
IV/PO antibiotics

292
Q

what is interval appendicectomy

A

rate of recurrence after conservative management of abscess / perforation

293
Q

2 surgical methods of acute appendicitis

A

open appendicectomy
laparoscopic

294
Q

how to classify intestinal obstruction (3)

A

speed of onset (acute, chronic, acute-on-chronic)
site (high/low)
nature (simple/strangulating)

295
Q

aetiology of bowel obstruction

A

lumen (faecal impaction, gallstone ileus)
wall (crohn’s disease, tumor, diverticulitis of colon)
outside wall (strangulated hernia, volvulus, obstruction due to adhesion)

296
Q

aetiology of small bowel obstruction (4)

A

adhesion
neoplasia
incarcerated hernia
crohn’s

297
Q

aetiology of large bowel obstruction (5)

A

colorectal carcinoma
volvulus
diverticulitis
faecal impaction
Hirschsprung disease

298
Q

features that suggest strangulation in bowel

A

change in character of pain from colicky to continuous
tachycardia
pyrexia
peritonism
absent or reduced bowel sound
leucocytosis
increase CRP

299
Q

imaging findings in SBO

A

erect CXR / AXR dilated small bowel loops >3cm proximal to obstruction

300
Q

imaging findings in LBO

A

erect CXR / AXR dilated large bowel loops >6cm / caecum >9cm proximal to obstruction

301
Q

CT abdo / pelvis imaging findings in bowel obstruction

A

transition point
dilation of proximal loops
IV +/- oral

302
Q

AXR in SBO findings

A

ladder pattern of dilated loops at central position
striations pass completely across the width of distended loop produced by circular mucosal folds

303
Q

AXR findings in LBO

A

distended peripherally
show haustrations of taenia coli
extend partially across whole width of bowel

304
Q

benefits of doing CT for bowel obstruction (3)

A

localise site of obstruction
detect obstructing lesions and colonic tumors
can diagnose unusual hernia

305
Q

supportive management for pt with bowel obstruction with no signs of ischaemia

A

NBM
IV peripheral access with large bore cannula
IV fluid resuscitation
analgesia
electrolyte baalnces
NG tube for decompression
urinary catheter
gradual food intake

306
Q

conservative management for pt with bowel obstruction and faecal impaction

A

stool evacuation

307
Q

conservative management for pt with bowel obstruction and sigmoid volvulus

A

rigid sigmoidoscopic decompression (use endoscope to detwisit bowel)

308
Q

conservative management for pt with SBO

A

oral gastrograffin

309
Q

what are indications of bowel obstructions to do surgery

A

haemodynamic instability
complete obstruction with signs of ischemia
closed loop obstruction
persistent bowel obstruction >2 days despite conservative management

310
Q

operations examples for bowel obstruction

A

laparotomy
laparoscopy
restore intestinal transit
bowel resection with primary anastomosis
endoscopic stenting

311
Q

presentation of GI perforation

A

sudden abdo pain with distention
diffuse abdominal guarding, rigidity, rebound tenderness
pain aggravated by movement
N+V
constipation
fever, tachycardia, tachypnoea, hypotension
decreased or no abdo sounds

312
Q

4 kinds of perforation in GI

A

perforated peptic ulcer
perforated divierticulum
perforated appendix
perforated malignancy

313
Q

presentations of perforated peptic ulcer (3)

A

sudden epigastric or diffuse pain
referred shoulder pain
Hx of NSAIDs, steroids, recurrent epigastric pain

314
Q

presentations of perforated diverticulum (2)

A

LLQ pain
constipation

315
Q

presentations of perforated appendix (3)

A

migratory pain
anorexia
gradual worsening RLQ pain

316
Q

presentations of perforated malignancy (4)

A

change in bowel habit
weight loss
anorexia
rectal bleeding

317
Q

blood findings in GI perofration

A

FBC: neutrophilic leukocytosis
elevated urea and creatinine
VBG: lactic acidosis

318
Q

what will be seen in erect CXR in GI perforations

A

subdiaphragmatic free air
(pneumoperitoneum)

319
Q

what will be seen in CT abdo/pelvis in GI perforations

A

pneumoperitoneum
free GI content
localised mesenteric fat stranding

320
Q

supportive management on presentation for GI perforation

A

NBM
NG tube
IV peripheral access with large bore cannula
IV fluid resuscitation
broad spectrum Abx
IV PPI
parenteral analgesia and antiemetics
urinary catheter

321
Q

consrevative management on presentation for GI perforation

A

abdo exam and imaging
IR-guided drainage of intra-abdominal collection

322
Q

surgical management for GI perforation

A

exploratory laparoscopy/laparotomy
primary closure of perforation
resection of perforated segment

323
Q

biliary colic symptoms (2)

A

postprandial RUQ pain with radiation to shoulder
nausea

324
Q

investigation for biliary colic (bloods, USS)

A

normal bloods
USS: cholelithiasis

325
Q

management for biliary colic

A

analgesia
antiemetics
follow up for elective cholecystectomy

326
Q

acute cholecystitis symptoms (3)

A

acute, severe RUQ pain
fever
murphy’s sign

327
Q

acute cholecystitis investigation findings (bloods, USS)

A

blood: elevated WBC/CRP
USS: thickened gallbladder wall

328
Q

management for acute cholecystitis

A

fluids
Abx
analgesia
blood culture
early or elective cholecystectomy

329
Q

acute cholangitis symptoms (3)

A

charcot’s triad (jaundice, RUQ pain,fever)

330
Q

acute cholangitis investigation findings (bloods, USS)

A

blood: elevated WBC, CRP, LFT,blood MCS +ve
USS: biliary dilation

331
Q

acute cholangitis management

A

fluids
IV Abx
analgesia
ERCP for clearance of bile duct or stenting

332
Q

acute pancreatitis symptoms (3)

A

severe epigastric pain radiate to back
Nausea +/- vomit
Hx of gallstones or EtOH use

333
Q

acute pancreatitis investigation findings (bloods, CT+USS)

A

raised amylase/lipase
high WBC, low Ca2+
CT+USS to assess for complications or causes

334
Q

acute pancreatitis management

A

scoring (glasgow-imrie)
fluid resuscitation, O2, analgesia, antiemetics
ITU/HDU involvement

335
Q

which obstruction usually accompanied by early and profuse vomiting, large or small bowel?

336
Q

conservative management in sigmoid volvulus

A

sigmoidoscope
use a large well lubricated, soft rubber rectal tube to pass along the sigmoidoscope
this untwists the volvulus and release many flatus and liquid faeces

337
Q

risk of untreated volvulus

A

torsion cut off blood supply
necrosis of the area

338
Q

what is Hartmann’s procedure

A

removing a section of the large bowel
exploratory laparotomy & Sigmoid colectomy with end colostomy

339
Q

how to restore blood flow in SMA (3)

A

embolectomy in acute mesenteric ischaemia
endovascular management of SMA in thrombus acute mesenteric ischaemia
arterial bypass of SMA in thrombotic AMI

340
Q

what are 4 kinds of acute mesenteric ischaemia

A
  1. embolism (50%)
  2. thrombosis (20-35%)
  3. nonocclusive (<5%)
  4. Venous (10-15%)
341
Q

what is portal pyaemia (pylephlebitis)

A

septic thrombophlebitis of portal venous system

342
Q

complications of portal pyaemia

A

diverticulitis
appendicitis