Development and Ageing Flashcards

1
Q

mode of early embryo nutrition

A

histiotrophic (digest maternal tissues and use uterine secretions from uterine glands as nutrition)

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2
Q

2nd trimester embryo swithc to what kind of nutrition

A

haemotrophic

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3
Q

why placenta is called haemochorial type placenta

A

maternal blood directly contacts the fetal membranes (chorionic villi)

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4
Q

in what week is fetal demand on oxygen low

A

week 0-13

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5
Q

why chorionic villi becomes more branched as time goes by

A

increase SA based in maternal blood for exchange

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6
Q

role of syncytiotrophoblast

A

invasion into endometrium to take secretions from uterine glands

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7
Q

what are the 3 phases of chorionic villi development

A

primary
secondary
tertiary

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8
Q

primary phase of chorionic villi development

A

outgrowth of cytotrophoblast ad branching of these extension

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9
Q

secondary phase of chorionic villi development

A

growth of fetal mesoderm into primary villi

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10
Q

tertiary phase of chorionic villi development

A

growth of umbilical artery and vein into villus mesoderm to provide vasculature

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11
Q

describe the structure of terminal villus microstructure

A

Convoluted knot of vessels and vessel
dilation
whole structure coated with trophoblast

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12
Q

why terminal villus microstructure has slow blood flow

A

enable exchange between maternal and fetal blood

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13
Q

what is terminal villus microstructure coated with

A

trophoblast

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14
Q

function of spiral arteries

A

provide the maternal
blood supply to the endometrium

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15
Q

what forms the endovascular extra-villus trophoblast (EVT)

A

EVT cells coating the villi invade down into maternal spiral arteries to form endovascular EVT

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16
Q

what grows down to form spiral arteries

A

invasion of trophoblast cells

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17
Q

what is the conversion of spiral artery in spiral artery remodelling

A

turns from high resistance and low capacity to low resistance and high capacity after fully converted

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18
Q

How does spiral artery
re-modelling occur?

A
  1. EVT cell invasion triggers endothelial cells to release chemokines, recruiting immune cells.
  2. Immune cells invade spiral artery walls and begin to disrupt vessel walls.
  3. EVT cells secrete break down normal vessel wall extracellular matrix and replace with a
    new matrix known as fibrinoid to give structure to vessel
  4. Remodelling: remove smooth muscle, immune cell and have EVT cells invasion
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19
Q

what happens if there is failed conversion in spiral artery remodelling

A

smooth muscle remains,
immune cells become embedded in vessel wall and vessels blocked/occluded by RBCs
pro-inflammatory and high resistance

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20
Q

consequences of failed spiral artery remodelling

A

lead to perturbed flow and local hypoxia, free radical damage and inefficient delivery of substrates
into the intervillous space.
* Retained smooth muscle may allow residual contractile capacity -> perturb blood delivery to the intravillous space.
* Atherosclerosis can occur in basal (non-spiral) arteries
that would not normally be targeted by trophoblast.

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21
Q

what pathologies are unconverted spiral arteries vulnerable to

A

intimal hyperplasia
atherosclerosis

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22
Q

what is pre-eclampsia

A

New onset hypertension (in a previously normotensive
woman) BP ≥140 mmHg systolic and/or ≥90 mmHg diastolic
* Occurring after 20 weeks’ gestation

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23
Q

symptoms of pre-eclampsia

A

sudden onset of HTN
oedema
abdo pain
headache
visual disturbances, seizures, breathelessness

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24
Q

what happens to fetus in pre-eclampsia

A

reduced fetal movement

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25
Q

what happens to amnionic fluid volume in pre-eclampsia

A

reduced

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26
Q

how to check amnionic fluid in PE

A

USS

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27
Q

how to consider early or late onset of PE

A

Early onset: <34 weeks
Late onset: >34 weeks

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28
Q

what are the PE early onset placenta changes

A

Changes in placental structure
Reduced placental perfusion

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29
Q

what are the PE late onset placenta changes

A

less overt/ no placental changes

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30
Q

is early onset PE associated with fetal or maternal symptoms

A

both

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31
Q

is late onset PE associated with fetal or maternal symptoms

A

mostly maternal

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32
Q

which is more common, early or late onset of PE

A

late

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33
Q

what are the PE risks brought to mother

A

damage to kidneys, liver, brain and
other organ systems
Possible progression to eclampsia
(seizures, loss of consciousness)
HELLP syndrome: Hemolysis, Elevated Liver Enzymes, Low Platelets, Placental abruption (separation of the
placenta from the endometrium)

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34
Q

what are the PE risks brought to fetus

A

Pre-term delivery
Reduced fetal growth (IUGR/FGR)
Fetal death

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35
Q

what is HELLP syndrome

A

Hemolysis, Elevated
Liver Enzymes, Low Platelets

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36
Q

normally where does EVT invasion of spiral artery pass through in maternal side

A

EVT invasion of maternal spiral
arteries through decidua and into
myometrium
then EVT becomes endovascular EVT and spiral arteries are high in capacity

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37
Q

in PE, what doesn’t go into myometrium

A

spiral arteries

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38
Q

where is decidua

A

contact between foetus and myometrium

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39
Q

what happens to EVT invasion in early PE onset

A

EVT invasion of maternal spiral
arteries is limited to
decidual /endometrial layer.
Spiral arteries are not extensively
remodelled

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40
Q

what happens to placenta perfusion in early PE onset

A

placenta perfusion restricted
cause placental ischaemia

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41
Q

what is PLGF

A

placental growth factor

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42
Q

function of PLGF

A

VEGF related, pro-angiogenic
factor released in large amounts
by the placenta

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43
Q

where is PLGF released

A

placenta

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44
Q

what is Flt1

A

soluble VEGFR1

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45
Q

what does Flt1do in PE

A

Soluble receptor for VEGF-like
factors which binds soluble
angiogenic factors (VEGF, PLGF) to limit their bioavailabilitiy

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46
Q

what happens to Flt1 in PE

A

excess production of Flt-1 by distressed placenta leads to reduction of available pro-angiogenic factors in maternal circulation, resulting in endothelial dysfunction

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47
Q

in healthy placenta why we need to release PLGF and VEGF

A

Releases PLGF and VEGF into the maternal circulation.
These growth factors bind
receptors on the endothelial surface to promote vasodilation, anti-coagulation and
‘healthy’ maternal endothelial cells.

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48
Q

in PE placenta what does it release

A

soluble Flt1 (sFlt1)

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49
Q

what does sFlt1 do in PE

A

acts as a sponge – mopping up PLGF and VEGF and stopping them binding to the endothelial surface receptors. In the absence of these signals (PLGF, VEGF),
the endothelial cells become
dysfunctional.

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50
Q

what do extracellular vesicles (EV) contain in terms of cargos

A

mRNAs, proteins and microRNAs (miRNAs)

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51
Q

how can extracellular vesicles influence cell behavior

A

can cause cell signalling locally and at distance

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52
Q

what are the Changes observed in EV number and composition in PE (3)

A
  1. Overall increase in EVs in the maternal circulation
  2. Increase in endothelial-derived EVs (indicative of maternal circulation defects)
  3. Decrease in placenta-derived EVs
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53
Q

what are extracellular vesicles

A

tiny lipid-bilayer laminated vesicles released by almost all cell types

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54
Q

what is the possible mechanism of how extracellular vesicles contribute to PE

A
  1. Placental ischaemia induces
    trophoblast cell (syncytiotrophoblast) apoptosis and EV
    release
  2. These enter the maternal circulation
  3. Act on endothelial cells to induce
    endothelial dysfunction, inflammation and
    hypercoagulation
  4. Collectively these may contribute to PE
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55
Q

why can EV fuse with cell membrane to deliver cargos

A

have lipid bilayers

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56
Q

what are the 3 ways SDEVs can cause PE after entering maternal circulation

A
  1. endothelial dysfunction
  2. systemic inflammation
  3. hypercoagulation disorders
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57
Q

what do human endothelial cells inhibit the production of in PE

A

production of eNOS (endothelial nitric oxide synthase)
cause inhibition of vasorelaxation & vasodilation

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58
Q

what is the current theory of causes of later onset PE

A

existing maternal genetic pre-disposition to cardiovascular disease,
which manifests during the ‘stress-test’ of pregnancy.

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59
Q

what are genetic factors causing abnormal placentation

A

maternal and fetal SNPs

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60
Q

what are maternal / environmental factors causing abnormal placentation

A

smoking
DM
hyperglycaemia
chronic hypertension
AKI/renal disease

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61
Q

what are immunological factors causing abnormal placentation

A

placental Th1 Predominance
Immunogenic HLA-C on trophoblast
decidual NK cell

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62
Q

what are some systemic vascular dysfunction in PE

A
  1. proteinuria/ glomerular endotheliosis
  2. hypertension
  3. visual disturbances / headache/ cerebral edema and seizures (eclampsia)
    4.HELLP syndrome,, coagulation abnormalities
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63
Q

what can be used to test for PE

A

PLGF levels alone or sFlt-1/PlGF ratio

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64
Q

what can be used to predict PE

A

cell free RNA from liquid biopsy
OR
small molecule metabolites in urine

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65
Q

when is clinical diagnostics useful to identify women that are at risk of PE early in pregnancy

A

after 20 weeks gestation

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66
Q

what is small for gestation age meaning

A

Fetal weight: <10th centile (or 2 SD below pop norm)
Severe SGA: 3rd centile or less

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67
Q

what are the 3 subclasses of small for gestational age (SGA)

A
  1. Small throughout pregnancy, but otherwise health
  2. Early growth normal but slows later in pregnancy
    (FGR/IUGR)
  3. Non-placental growth restriction (genetic,
    metabolic, infection)
68
Q

difference between SGA and IUGR/FGR

A

*SGA considers only the fetal/neonatal weight without any consideration of the in-utero growth and physical characteristics at birth.
* IUGR is a clinical definition of fetuses/neonates with clinical features of malnutrition and in-utero growth restriction, irrespective of weight percentile

69
Q

what is symmetric and asymmetric IUGR

A

symmetrical IUGR: all parts of the baby’s body are similarly small in size. asymmetrical IUGR: the baby’s head and brain are the expected size, but the rest of the baby’s body is small.

70
Q

difference in period of insult of symmetric and asymmetric IUGR

A

symmetric: earlier gestation
asymmetric: later gestation

71
Q

difference in incidence rate of total IUGR cases of symmetric and asymmetric IUGR

A

symmetric: 20-30%
asymmetric: 70-80%

72
Q

difference in cell number of symmetric and asymmetric IUGR

A

symmetric: reduced
asymmetric: normal (hv correct body plan)

73
Q

difference in cell size of symmetric and asymmetric IUGR

A

symmetric: normal
asymmetric: reduced (smaller fetus)

74
Q

difference in head and chest circumference of symmetric and asymmetric IUGR

A

symmetric: <3cm
asymmetric: >3cm

75
Q

difference in prognosis of symmetric and asymmetric IUGR

A

symmetric: poor
asymmetric: good

76
Q

what are the cardiovascular implications of FGR/IUGR

A
  1. fetal cardiac hypertrophy
  2. re-modelling of fetal vessels due to chronic vasoconstriction
77
Q

what are the respiratory implications of FGR/IUGR

A

poor maturation of lungs during fetal life, leading to bronchopulmonary dysplasia and respiratory compromise

78
Q

what are the neurological implications of FGR/IUGR

A

long term motor defects and cognitive impairments

79
Q

What challenges could the fetus face in utero that might have lasting impact on its health?(6)

A

Fetal infection in utero
Maternal nutrition (under/over)
Maternal illness
Maternal stress
Maternal medication
Environmental factors/exposures

80
Q

what is the Developmental Origins of Health and Disease (DOHaD) hypothesis

A

programming adult health in early life
risk of coronary events was more strongly related to the rate of change of childhood BMI, rather than to the BMI attained at any particular age of childhood.

81
Q

how undernutrition in utero/ overnutrition as a child affects development of a child according to DOHaD hypothesis

A

increased risk of metabolic syndrome
leads to increased risk of cardiovascular events

82
Q

what is the name given to developmental adaptations taken to prepare the fetus for its future environment

A

predictive adaptive responses (PARs)

83
Q

what is definition of PARs (predictive adaptive responses)

A

developmental adaptations taken to prepare the fetus for its future environment

84
Q

do PARs benefit foetus immediately

A

no
don’t benefit the fetus immediately, but are taken in anticipation of the environment they will be exposed to.

85
Q

what is the main idea of DOHaD

A

programming in utero

86
Q

what happens when there is a mismatch between PARs and actual environment

A

mal-adapted
contribute to disease risk later in life

87
Q

what can environmental exposures associate with when fetus develop into adult

A

Cardio-vascular disease
Type 2 diabetes
Lung disease
Cancer risk
Neurological, special sense and intellectual development
Allergic and auto-immune diseases

88
Q

what factors in growth and development in utero contributes to diseases in adult life

A

foetal gene expression
maternal health and environment
fetal nutrient
endocrine milieu
placental vascular supply
adult exposure
amplification in infancy

89
Q

what are the 3 major challenge mechanism could the fetus face in utero that might have lasting impact on its health?

A

Hormonal effects (especially glucocorticoid exposure)

Epigenetic modifications

Irreversible developmental changes in organ size/structure

90
Q

what is Fetal glucocorticoid exposure is usually regulated by

A

placental 11Beta- HSD2 enzyme

91
Q

role of placental 11Beta-HSD2 enzyme

A

regulate Fetal glucocorticoid exposure

92
Q

consequence of reduced 11BHSD2 expression

A

greater fetal glucocorticoid exposure
cause changes in fetal growth (cell number, gene expression, organ structure etc) , development and metabolism

93
Q

consequence of increased maternal glucocorticoids

A

greater fetal glucocorticoid exposure
cause changes in fetal growth (cell number, gene expression, organ structure etc) , development and metabolism

94
Q

examples of Epigenetic changes modify the expression of genes without modifying DNA sequence

A

DNA methylation, post-translational (protein) modification of histones, and non- coding RNAs

95
Q

effect of DNA methylation to gene

A

switch off gene

96
Q

consequences of modifying types or levels of epigentic marks

A

altered or dysregulated gene expression

97
Q

what are the Key windows of epigenetic reprogramming during development are points of vulnerability (5)

A
  1. gametogenesis
  2. early development
  3. organogenesis and foetal growth
  4. post-natal growth
  5. adulthood and ageing
98
Q

what happens in epigenetic reprogramming

A
  1. writing gametic epigenome
  2. erasure of gametic identity
  3. writing epigenome in each cell type during cell differnetiation for aquisition of a specific expression profile and cell identity
99
Q

which are the 3 key windows of epigenetic reprogramming during contribute to developmental vulnerability

A
  1. gametogenesis
  2. early development
  3. organogenesis and fetal growth
100
Q

why gametogenesis are important

A

health of parents will affect quality of sperm and egg which influence fetus later health and life

101
Q

what happens in gametogenesis in terms of parent specific epigenetic marks

A

parent-specific epigenetic marks are established during the development of sperm and oocytes

102
Q

what happens in early development of gamete

A

embryos undergo widespread erasure and re-patterning of epigenetic marks during which these gamete-specific marks are erased and new epigenetic profiles established.

103
Q

what happens in organogenesis and fetal growth

A

epigenetic marks influence timing and onset of cell-type-specific gene expression, influencing how cells differentiate

104
Q

what happens in fetal hypoxia

A

reduced nephron numbers -> increased risk of hypertension/renal disease in adulthood

105
Q

what happens in fetal undernutrition

A

reduced beta cell mass/altered muscle insulin sensitivity -> impaired glucose control in adulthood

106
Q

what are primordial germ cells (PGCs)

A

embryonic precursor cells of oocytes and spermatozoa

107
Q

what happens to primordial germ cells (PGCs) in embryogenesis (2)

A
  1. undergo epigenetic reprogramming
  2. These cells then give rise to sperm and egg – which transmit these epigenetic marks to the next generation
108
Q

what impacts gamete quality (6)

A
  1. DNA integrity
  2. ROS generation
  3. lipid composition
  4. spindle integrity
  5. epigenetic status
  6. seminal plasma concentration
109
Q

what affects embryo development (3)

A

epigenetic remodelling
metabolic status
TE/ICM cell number

110
Q

what affects uterine environment (4)

A
  1. vascular remodelling
  2. seminal plasma mediated interactions
  3. inflammatory and immunological responses
  4. maternal environmental stressor
111
Q

what affects adult health (4)

A
  1. gamete quality
  2. cardio-metabolic disease risk
  3. reproduce fitness
  4. inter/transgenerational programming
112
Q

what affects fetal growth (4)

A
  1. predictive adaptive responses (PARs)
  2. organ biometry
  3. placental function and adaptions
  4. maternal responses to pregnancy
113
Q

which factor override fetal genetic factors in determining prenatal growth

A

maternal factors

114
Q

does paternal genetic factors have large or small effect on birth

115
Q

which genetic prenatal factor is important in determining birth size

A

maternal size

116
Q

which endocrine factors are major prenatal hormones influencing growth(2)

A

IGF-1
IGF-2

117
Q

what does IGF-2 important for in prenatal stage

A

embryonic growth

118
Q

what is IGF-1 important for in prenatal stage

A

later fetal and infant growth

119
Q

in postnatal stage which hormone is major hormone controlling growth after birth

A

human growth hormone (hGH)

120
Q

what is commonest cause of placental insufficiency

A

intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

121
Q

what provides all nutrients to growing fetus in prenatal

122
Q

in prenantal stage what influences fetus’ nutritional availability

A

maternal diet

123
Q

what contributes to limited growth potential in post natal stage

A

starvation

124
Q

what are the 2 main internal environmental factor that affects fetus growth in prenatal stage

A

Uterine capacity
placental sufficiency

125
Q

what environmental factors affect postnatal growth (4)

A

Socioeconomic status
Chronic disease
Emotional status
Altitude (mediated by lower oxygen saturation levels)

126
Q

ratio of head: body at birth vs adult

A

1:3 vs 1:7

127
Q

4 phases of growth

A

Fetal
Infantile
Childhood
Pubertal

128
Q

when does cranial suture open and close

A

open at birth, close by 18months

129
Q

what affects infantile growth (3)

A

nutrition
good health and happiness
thyroid hormone

130
Q

what affects fetal growth (1)

A

uterine environment

131
Q

what affects childhood growth (4)

A

gene
growth hormone
thyroid hormone
good health and happiness

132
Q

what affects pubertal growth

A

testosterone and oestrogen
growth hormone

133
Q

which is the fastest growth period over life-course

A

fetal phase

134
Q

which of the growth phase accounts for largest % of adult height

135
Q

what does growth mainly driven by during fetal life

A

hyperplasia

136
Q

how many cycles of cell division before birth

137
Q

how many cycles of cell division occur from birth to adulthood.

138
Q

how does fetus size grow over gestation

139
Q

when is infantile phase

A

0-18 months

140
Q

what is growth is infantile phase largely depend on

141
Q

when is childhood growth phase

A

18months -12yo

142
Q

what contributes to growth in childhood phase (3)

A

nutrition
health
endocrine growth regulation

143
Q

what is other name of pubertal phase

A

pubertal growth spurt

144
Q

what hormones rises in pubertal phase

A

sex hormones

145
Q

which hormone do sex hormones boost during pubertal phase

A

hGH production

146
Q

how many cm for XY boys and XX girls increase over 304 years during pubertal phase

A

25 for XY
20 for XX

147
Q

when is neonatal phase

A

new born
(first 4 weeks after birth)

148
Q

when does mini puberty occur

A

neonatal phase

149
Q

in terms of reproductive hormone, what happens in fetal phase

A

development of sexual organs and GnRH network

150
Q

when does sexual maturation occur

A

adolescence

151
Q

for fetus, when there is high oestrogen exposure, does it affect follicle formation

A

no, follicle formation still normal

152
Q

what happens in mini puberty

A

HPG axis is transiently activated after birth (mini-puberty), after release from restraint by placental hormones

153
Q

how gonadotrophin secretion changes in mini puberty

A

Gonadotrophin secretion commences towards the end of the first trimester, peaks mid-pregnancy, then declines

154
Q

differences in XY and XX in reproductive hormones after birth

A

both will increase uptake but in XX oestradiol fluctuates

155
Q

importance of mini puberty in males

A

Elevated sex steroids in males during mini-puberty
important for normal gonadal development (testicular tissue and penile development)

156
Q

importance of minipuberty in female infants

A

less clear
Important for patterning and development of mammary tissue(?)

157
Q

how Elevated sex steroids in minipuberty may also influence programming of body composition and linear growth

A

High testosterone levels in boys during minipuberty, may partly explain the higher growth velocity observed in boys compared to girls

158
Q

what triggers puberty

A

Release of neurokinin KNDy neurons may regulate release of Kisspeptin peptides, which act on GnRH neurons to promote pulsatile GnRH release

159
Q

mutation in what affect puberty timing

160
Q

what does consonance mean

A

The developmental events of puberty typically follow a predictable pattern

Compliance with this sequence is consonance

161
Q

what are the 4 developmental domains

A

gross motor skills
fine motor skills
speech, language, hearing skills
social behavior and play skills

162
Q

examples of gross motor skills

A

raises head
sit without support
crawl
cruises ard furniture
walks unsteadily
walk steadily

163
Q

examples of fine motor skills

A

follow object to move head
reaches out for toys
palmar grasp
transfer toy from hand to hand
mature pincer grip
make marks with crayon
ability to draw without seeing it is done
copy drawing

164
Q

examples of language skills

A

make noises
turn to soft sounds out of sight
use sound indiscriminately/discriminately
make 2-3 words and then more
talk constantly

165
Q

example of social behavioral skills

A

smiles responsively
put food in mouth
waves
drink
hold spoon and feed
play