MSK Flashcards
pain in right shoulder and upper arm for 6 weeks. worsens when elevating arm above head
no deformity, tenderness or reduced range of movement. pain on abduction of right shoulder that is worse with the arm in internal rotation and when abduction is resisted. he is treated with ibuprofen
next step in management?
Refer for physiotherapy.
diagnosis = right supraspinatus tendinopathy. no further inestigations required to confirm. can be managed in primary care. general advise and home exercises or physio
A 48 year old man has 8 months of a painful, stiff left shoulder. The pain is dull and worse at night. There is no history of trauma. He has type 1 diabetes mellitus.He has reduced passive and active range of movement in the left shoulder with pain at extremes of range of motion. Neck movements are normal. Power and sensation are normal.Investigations:CRP 6
Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Adhesive capsulitis
B. Glenohumeral osteoarthritis
C. Polymyalgia rheumatica
D. Rotator cuff tear
E. Subacromial bursitis
UKMLA PPQ
Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) presents with dull shoulder pain, that often disturbs sleep, followed by stiffness and loss of shoulder mobility. Adhesive capsulitis is unlikely in patients younger than 40 years of age, and patients older than 70 are more likely to have rotator cuff tears or glenohumeral osteoarthritis. Patients with subacromial pathology often give an occupational or athletic history of heavy lifting or repetitive movements, especially above shoulder level. Patients with rotator cuff tendinopathy and subacromial bursitis often complain of activity-related pain and problems performing usual activities. Adhesive capsulitis is more common In diabetics
A 40 year old woman has 1 day of a painful, swollen left elbow and fever. She has rheumatoid arthritis and takes methotrexate and infliximab.Her temperature is 38.2°C, pulse rate 100 bpm and BP 119/83 mmHg. The left elbow is swollen and erythematous.Investigations:White cell count 16.4 × 109/L (3.8–10.0)Urea 6.7 mmol/L (2.5–7.8)
Creatinine 98 μmol/L (60–120)
CRP 171 mg/L (<5)Joint aspiration: no organisms on Gram stain, white cell count 2043/μL (<200), mostly neutrophils, no crystals.She is advised to take oral paracetamol.
Which is the most appropriate additional management?
UKMLA ppq
IV flucloxacillin
A 24 year old man develops low back pain the day after falling while playing tennis . He is usually well and takes no regular medication. He is a laboratory technician.
Which is the most appropriate advice?
Continue usual activity!,,
Notttt referral for physio.
Short duration acute low back pain in fit person. Therefore most appropriate response would be to continue usual activity and to provide appropriate safety netting advice
Acute Gout. patient has chronic kidney disease stage 4. first line management?
oral prednisolone!!
nsaids would be option but CKD
acute gout treatment: oral steroids, NSAIDS and colchicine
classic polymyalgia rhuematica symptoms. management?
oral prednisolone!
Acute Gout first line treatment
Start naproxen/colchicine - colchicine preferred
70 yo. 6 months increasing pain at base of left thumb. No other joint painful. 1st carpometacarpal joint swollen and tender with reduced opposition of thumb. Most likely diagnosis?
Osteoarthritis!!!
6 months not acute so less likely to be gout.
OA fits with joint affected. Not multiple joints so RA unlikely
A 73 year old man has 3 months of increasing weakness of his right hand with
reduced sensation of the forearm.
There is wasting of all the intrinsic muscles of the right hand. There is
weakness of finger abduction and adduction, and thumb adduction. Finger
flexion is normal. There is mild altered light touch sensation along the ulnar
aspect of the forearm. The biceps, supinator and triceps reflexes are normal.
The lower limbs and the left arm are normal
where is the most likely site of the lesion causing his symptoms?
T1 nerve root
The intrinsic hand muscle wasting suggests
T1. The normal reflexes and normal other arm are against a cord lesion. The
sensory loss on the forearm excludes median and ulnar nerve lesions. T1
dermatome is often thought to be higher in the arm medially.
A 44 year old dentist complains of right elbow pain. He has tenderness over the right lateral epicondyle. You suspect lateral elbow tendinopathy (tennis elbow)./ lateral epicondylytis Which clinical test is likely to reproduce pain?
resisted wrist EXTENSION. and SUPINATION
resisted wrist flexion = for medial epicondyle/golfers elbow
(try moves out on your hand)
empty can test = supraspinatus tendinopathy
Finklestein’s test is a test for tenosynovitis of the 1st extensor compartment at the wrist (De Quervain’s tenosynovitis).
polmyositis = weakness rather than pain/muscle aches in polymyalgia rheumatica.
polymyositis = raised CK
A 42 year old man comes to see you with swelling at his right elbow. He has a long history of episodes of arthritis affecting his 1st MTP joint, with pain and swelling lasting ~5 days and responding to ibuprofen. More recent episodes have affected his ankles and right knee. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
gout
Gout reflect inflammation caused by deposition of sodium urate crystals, usually within joints but also with in bursae (fluid sacs). It typically first presents at the 1st MTP joint. Crystal formation is favoured by degenerate cartilage and this may be one reason for early involvement of the 1st MTP joint. This patient may have developed an olecranon bursitis explaining the swelling at the right elbow. The transient episodes of inflammation are typical for a crystal arthritis. ‘Flares’ of arthritis in other forms of inflammatory arthritis typically last longer than this.
A 65 year old woman has a bone density scan. This shows T scores of -1.8 at the neck of femur, -1.6 at the total hip and -2.3 at the lumbar spine. What is the diagnosis?
osteopenia!!!
A T score above -1.0 is defined as ‘normal bone density’, a T score between -1.0 and -2.5 is defined as ‘osteopenia’ and a T score of -2.5 and below is defined as osteoporosis.
fibromyalgia presentation?
widespread pain and on the experience of fatigue/waking unrefreshed/cognitive symptoms/headaches, abdominal pain or depression. These are set out in the 2016 diagnostic criteria. Blood tests and imaging studies will be normal.
A 65 year old woman has a bone density scan. This shows T scores of -1.8 at the neck of femur, -1.6 at the total hip and -2.3 at the lumbar spine, with readings of -2.1, -2.1, -2.4 and -2.6 at L1-4 respectively. Which reading do you enter into the WHO FRAX calculator in order to obtain an estimate of fracture risk?
Neck of femur reading (-1.8)
The FRAX calculator uses the neck of femur reading to calculate fracture risk. Readings at the lumbar spine and total hip can be falsely elevated in the presence of degenerative change and so are less reliable as a predictor of fracture.
An HLA B27+ve reactive arthritis may follow infection with which three of the following organisms?
chlamydia
A 45 year old woman experiences dryness of her eyes. She has aching of her joints and prominent fatigue. Blood tests show that she is positive for anti-nuclear antibody and the ENA screen shows that she is positive for anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
primary sjogrens!!
you would expect +ve dsdna in sle
A 23 year old woman is experiencing aching of small joints of her hands, oral ulceration, hair fall and has a facial rash. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
SLE
complete week 2 rheum questions medlearn
https://medlearn.imperial.ac.uk/rheumatology-2425/learning-material/practice-questions/week-2/
suspected scaphoid fracture, normal imaging management
Wrist splinting and review in 7 days
The most common site of metatarsal stress fractures i
2nd metatarsals
Investigation most sensitive for lupus
ANA - used as the rule out test as over 99% of people with sle are positive
Dsdna = most specific
osgood shlatter disease presentation?
Unilateral (but may be bilateral in up to 30% of people).
Gradual in onset and initially mild and intermittent, but may progress to become severe and continuous.
Relieved by rest and made worse by kneeling and activity, such as running or jumping.
xray finding that helps point to psuedogout and not gout?
x-ray: chondrocalcinosis
in the knee this can be seen as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage
A 45-year-old man presents with a painful swelling on the posterior aspect of his elbow. There is no history of trauma. On examination an erythematous tender swelling is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
olecranon bursitis
In young adults with septic arthritis, what is the most common organism found?
gonorrhea
methotrexate carries a risk of bone marrow suppression. name two drugs that can interact with methotrexate and worsen this
co-trimoxazole
trimethoprim
A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean lady presents to the dermatology department with several painful raised lesions on her shins. The only past medical history of note is asthma. She uses a salbutamol inhaler as required and takes the oral contraceptive pill.
raised serum calcium
diagnosis?
sarcoidosis
patient has erythema nodosum
name and describe each point on the salter harris system
Type Injury pattern
I Fracture through the physis only (x-ray often normal)
II Fracture through the physis and metaphysis
III Fracture through the physis and epiphysis to include the joint
IV Fracture involving the physis, metaphysis and epiphysis
V Crush injury involving the physis (x-ray may resemble type I, and appear normal)
bone from top down = (epiphysis), physis or growth plate, metaphysis, diaphysis
A 53-year-old man presents to the ED with a three-week history of right foot pain and swelling. He stepped on a nail at his construction site a month ago but did not seek medical attention initially as he cleaned the wound at home.
On examination, there is redness and localised swelling of the right foot, worse over the plantar surface. There is tenderness on palpation and severe pain upon movement. The wound at the site of injury appears to be well-healed. Blood test show high white cell count
Ix to confirm the diagnosis?
MRI
wound has healed but still pain and inlammation -> Worried about osteomyelitis!!!
pseudogout risk factors?
haemochromatosis!!!
hyperparathyroidism!!!= hypercalcemia!!!
low magnesium, low phosphate
acromegaly, Wilson’s disease
Joint aspirate in rheumatoid arthritis shows a high WBC count, predominantly PMNs. Appearance is typically yellow and cloudy with absence of crystals
Septic arthritis would have similar joint aspirate but the patient would be systemically unwell and it would likely have been precipitated by trauma.
A 64-year-old patient with psoriasis, hypothyroidism and psychotic depression presents to you with painful aphthous-like ulcers for the past 3 weeks since starting a new medication.
Which medication is most likely to be causing their symptom?
methotrexate!!! = mucositis
indicated for psoriasis
Local muscle strengthening exercises and general aerobic fitness is an important component of knee and hip osteoarthritis
ankylosing spondylitis first line treatment? note it can also present with periperal joint treatment
ankylosing spondylitis clinical exam findings
other features of this condition?
NSAIDs
schobers test <5cm
reduced lateral flexion
reduced forward flexion
reduced chest expansion!!!
the ‘A’s
Apical fibrosis
Anterior uveitis
Aortic regurgitation
Achilles tendonitis
AV node block
Amyloidosis
and cauda equina syndrome
peripheral arthritis
A 26-year-old woman has 3 weeks of shortness of breath and fatigue on exertion and a new skin rash over her face and nose. During this time, she has felt generally unwell and has had a dry cough and malaise. She has never smoked.
She has cervical and submandibular lymphadenopathy and dark indurated plaques are noted around the eyes, nose, and cheeks.
Blood tests show:
Hb 110 g/L (115 - 160)
Platelets 260 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 5.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 141 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Calcium 2.8 mmol/L (2.1 - 2.6)
Urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 180 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Creatine kinase 105 IU/L (25-200)
ESR 45 mm/hr (< 18)
What is the most likely diagnosis?
sarcoidosis!!!
- the facial rash is lupus pernio, also hypercalcemia
sle rash is malar and butterfly shaped and spares nasolabial folds
sarcoidosis management?
oral prednisolone
is first-line in patients with stage 2/3 sarcoidosis who are also symptomatic, in patients with hypercalcaemia, or in patients with eye, heart, or neuro involvement.
none of these symptoms/asymptomatic = no
trauma
On examination, there is some bruising to the lateral aspect of his right forearm, with no obvious deformities and good tone, power and range of movement and in the fingers, wrist and elbow joints. Sensation is in-tact throughout the limb, although he reports pins and needles in his fingers. When assessing tone, the patient is in visible discomfort, which is not reproduced to the same extent as when assessing power.
An x-ray of his right arm is clear
next step in management?
refer to orthopaedic surgeons
compartment syndrome!!!
pain out of proportion, paraesthesia. may also cause pulselessness
most common reason total hip replacements need to be revised?
other complications of hip replacements?
aseptic loosening (most common reason for revision )
leg length discrepancy!!!
posterior dislocation!!!!
may occur during extremes of hip flexion
typically presents acutely with a ‘clunk’, pain and inability to weight bear
on examination there is internal rotation and shortening of the affected leg
perioperative”
venous thromboembolism
intraoperative fracture
nerve injury
surgical site infection
Aseptic loosening
A 50-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with an acutely painful joint. On examination, the joint is red and swollen. The patient describes waking up with the pain, and it worsens to 9/10 severity over the course of the day. Despite simple analgesia, the pain has not improved.
temperature is 39 degrees
given the likely diagnosis, what joint is most likely affected?
knee!!! = septic arthritis
first-line investigation for a suspected osteoporotic vertebral fracture
xray spine
patient presents with signs of septic arthritis, next step in management?
synovial fluid sampling!!!!
(also blood cultures, and joint imaging but above is most important)
oral flucloxacillin is later