ENT incorrects Flashcards
A 45 year old woman is feeling unwell with a severe sore throat. She has schizophrenia and started taking clozapine 4 months ago.
Her temperature is 39.0°C. She has an ulcerated throat with tonsillar exudate.
Blood cultures have been sent.
What additional investigation is most likely to establish the underlying cause?
full blood count!!
risk of agranulocytosis with clozapine
vestibular neuronitis
symptoms? management?
dizziness
nausea and vomiting may be present
horizontal nystagmus is usually present
acute management = plorchloperazine
vestibular rehabilitaiton for chronic presentation
A 55-year-old man from Hong Kong presents with left sided otalgia and recurrent episodes of epistaxis. On examination his pharynx appears normal. Examination of his neck reveals left sided cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
nasopharyngeal carcinoma
A 54-year-old woman attends the GP with a one-day history of hearing loss in her right ear. There is no discharge or pain. She has no history of dizziness or tinnitus.
Assessment by otoscopy shows wax in the right ear with no other obvious changes to the external auditory meatus or tympanic membranes bilaterally. Weber test lateralises to the left side. Rinne test shows air conduction louder than bone conduction bilaterally.
What is the most appropriate next step?
In this patient, Weber’s test lateralized to the left, which indicates a conductive hearing loss in the left ear or sensorineural loss in the right ear. Rinne’s test found air conduction was louder than bone conduction in both ears. Therefore this patient has a sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear.
Acute sensorineural hearing loss is an emergency and requires urgent referral to ENT for audiology assessment and brain MRI!!!! and treatment with high dose oral corticosteroids!!!
A 64-year-old woman with a one week history of pain above and lateral to her left eye. On examination she is tender over that area.
most likely diagnosis?
temporal arteritis
he HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish vestibular neuronitis from posterior circulation stroke
Central vertigo will have a normal head impulse test!, vertical or saccadic nystagmus and will display a vertical skew.
A 23-year-old woman presents one week after being prescribed a combined antibiotic and steroid spray for otitis externa. There has been no improvement in her symptoms and the erythema seems to have extended to the ear itself. What is the most appropriate treatment?
oral flucloxacillin!!
spreading erythema is an indication for oral antibiotics. Flucloxacillin is first-line.
A 31-year-old man presents with bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus. There is a family history of similar problems. Examination of the tympanic membranes is unremarkable. Audiometry shows bilateral conductive hearing loss.
most likely diagnosis?
otosclerosis
A 68-year-old man presents with acute onset dizziness accompanied by nausea and unsteadiness. He has a history of atrial fibrillation. On examination, he exhibits difficulty fixating on the examiner’s nose during the head impulse test, and a corrective saccade is observed.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
vestibular neuronitis -> positive head impulse test
A 33-year-old male presents to the GP complaining of a 4 month history persistent nasal discharge on his left hand side and facial pressure which is worse on bending forward. He often finds he has to breath through his mouth due to his nose being blocked. He has a past medical history of asthma and is a smoker with a 5 pack-year history.
What is the most appropriate management?
referral to ENT!!
Unilateral symptoms are a red flag for patients with chronic rhinosinusitis!!
A 53-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with a lesion on his tongue that he has observed for the last three months. The lesion is characterised by a white patch on the side of the tongue and has a corrugated, ulcerated appearance. It is asymptomatic. His past medical history includes Crohn’s disease and well-controlled HIV with an undetectable viral load for the past decade.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
persisitent mouth ulcer _> squamous cell carcinoma!!!
75 more questions to go!!
A perforated tympanic membrane caused by barotrauma is self-limiting
A 45-year-old woman presents to her GP with dizziness which started two days ago. She says it feels like the room is spinning around her. The symptoms are constant and are worse when she moves, so she has spent most of her time in bed. She reports feeling nauseous and vomiting once. She also reports hearing ringing in her ears for the past day.
When questioned by the GP, she mentions that she was ill last week with a cold.
On examination, Rinne’s test is positive in both ears, but Weber’s test localises to the left side.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
labyrinthitis!! - backed by recent viral ilness
menieres comes in episodes of minutes to hours. not continuous
chronic sinusitis that hasnt responded to steroids treatment?
Nasal irrigation with saline solution is a treatment option for chronic rhinosinusitis
presbycusis audiogram findings?
Bilateral high-frequency hearing loss. Air conduction better than bone
A 50-year-old female presents with bilateral parotid gland swelling and symptoms of a dry mouth. On examination she has bilateral facial nerve palsies. This improved following steroid treatment.
sarcoidosis
(facial nerve involvement)
18 month old girl
On examination, you note bulging tympanic membranes with surrounding erythema bilaterally.
What is the appropriate first-line management in this patient?
aMoxicillin!! = otitis Media!!!
A 32-year-old female is referred urgently to the ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialists with a 1-month-history of severe, unrelenting otalgia, associated with temporal headaches and purulent otorrhoea. She has a past medical history of type one diabetes mellitus and has no allergies. Examination identifies an erythematous external auditory canal and periauricular soft tissue on the left side which is exquisitely tender.
What is the most appropriate antibiotic management for this patient?
ciprofloxacin
malignant otitis externa
normal otitis externa =
topical antibiotic or a combined topical antibiotic with a steroid
You see a 3-year-old boy as a follow-up appointment. Two weeks ago he presented with left-sided otalgia associated with a purulent discharge. You prescribed amoxicillin and arranged to see him today. His mum reports that he is much better and says she has managed to keep the ear dry. On examination of the left side a perforation of the tympanic membrane is noted. What is the most appropriate action?
Advise to keep ear dry and see in a further 4 weeks time
You see a 40-year-old man with reduced hearing on the right side. You examine his ears and note the right ear canal is blocked with wax but the left ear is clear. What would be the expected findings on testing Rinne and Weber?
Weber: sound localises to the right; Rinne: BC > AC on the right and AC > BC on the left
The left tympanic membrane is opaque and inflamed, along with left ear proptosis and post-auricular inflammation. The right ear is unaffected.
He has no past medical history but is allergic to penicillin.
What is the most appropriate initial step in his management?
Arrange same-day hospital admission
mastoiditis!!!
Adults are generally required to have had a failed trial of hearing aids before having a cochlear implant