Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NPLEX > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Bone embryo

A

Axial/appendicular: mesoderm

Skull: ectoderm, neural crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Joint embryo

A

mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Muscle embryo

A

mesoderm

smooth muscle: ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Compact Bone microanatomy

A

dense portion closer to surface of bones
lamellar bone arranged in sheets
osteons contain Haversian canal w/ artery and nerves
concentric layers radiate out from osteons
lacunae contain osteocytes
osteoblast line outside of the osteons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Spongy Bone microanatomy

A

inner portion of bone
contain trabecula, interconnected cavities, small amount of lamellar bone (sheets of cartilage), long beam like structure with bone marrow in the spaces between

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fibrous joint microanatomy

A

fibrous connective tissue

wide sheet of connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cartilaginous joint microanatomy

A

hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Synovial joint microanatomy

A

outer fibrous capsule
inner synovial membrane: synovial fluid and blood vessels
articular cartilage (hyaline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Skeletal muscle microanatomy

A

epimysium-> perimysium ->fascicle -> muscle fiber -> endomysium -> myocyte -> long cylinder cells w/ multiple nuclei under sarcolemma contain t-tubules, myofibrils-> sarcomeres (actin, myosin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cardiac muscle microanatomy

A

striated organized into sarcomeres, branched cells w/ 1-2 centrally located nuclei, intercalated disks (connect myocytes)
endomysium, t-tubules, sarcomere, sarcoplasmic reticulum, pacemaker cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Smooth Muscle microanatomy

A

thin and thick myofilaments
fusiform, one nucleus, wrapped in endomysium
no t-tubules, less sarcoplasmic reticulum, caveolae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is each muscle type found?

A

skeletal: attach to bones
cardiac; heart
smooth: walls of hollow organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Skeletal muscle contraction

A

motor signal from brain -> spinal cord -> motor neuron release Ach -> Ach binds to receptor -> rapid shift of ion across sarcolemma -> t-tubules bring Ca into myocyte -> sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca into sarcoplasm -> Ca causes actin and myosin to pull in on each other -> sarcoplasmic reticulum stores ca -> muscle relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Skeletal muscle regulation

A

how long ca stays in the sarcoplasm, size of muscle, how many are contracting, how close the actin and myosin filament are to each other, how fast the muscle is contracted (slower = more force bc more myosin head can attach), somatic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Smooth muscle contraction

A

AP depolarizes membrane -> Ca enters vis L-type Ca channels-> binds to calmodulin -> activates myosin kinase -> phosphorylates myosin heads to form cross-bridges w/ actin -> activates another smooth muscle
no ATP required and maintain low-level contraction for long periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cardiac regulation

A

autorhythmicity, ANS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cardiac contraction

A

Ca flows gap junction -> threshold is reached -> na channels open up -> ions move across cell membrane -> ca flows into cell binding to ryanodine receptor on SR -> Ca released into cell -> bind to troponin c -> tropomyosin slide off -> actin and myosin to bind -> ca removed vi ATP or concentration gradient -> no actin and myosin binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vertebrae structure

A 
body 
arch: pedicles, laminae 
spinous process 
2 transverse process
2 inferior articular process 
2 superior articular process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vertebrae Colum structure

A 
body gets bigger as you go down 
arch: pedicles, laminae 
spinous process 
2 transverse process
2 inferior articular process 
2 superior articular process
Cervical 7
thoracic 12 
Lumbar 5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vertebrae column function

A

support weight, protect spinal cord,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Skull bone function

A

protects brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Skull viscerocranium structure

A

mandible, vomer, ethmoid,

2 of each maxilla, inferior nasal concha, zygomatic, nasal, lacrimal, palatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Skull neurocranium location

A

house brain, cranial meninges, blood vessels, and cranial nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Skull neurocranium structure

A

frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, occipital,

2 of each temporal and parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pectoral girdle axioappendicular muscles structure

A

Anterior: pec major, pec minor, subclavius, serratus anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pectoral girdle function

A

make upper limb function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pectoral girdle axioappendicular muscles structure

A

Anterior: pec major, pec minor, subclavius, serratus anterior

Posterior: trapezius, latissimus dorsi, levator scapulae, rhomboids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pectoralis Major action

A

adduction, medial rotation, flexion of arm, extend back from flexed position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pectoral girdle scapulohumeral muscles structure

A

teres major, deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis (SItS muscles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pectoralis Minor O, I, N

A

O: anterior surface of 3-5 ribs
I: coracoid process of scapula
N: medial pectoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pectoralis Major action and artery

A

adduction, medial rotation, flexion of arm, extend back from flexed position

pectoral artery and deltoid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Subclavius O, I, N

A

O: 1st rib and costal cartilage
I: inferior surface of middle third of clavicle
N: nerve to subclavius (C5, C6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Pectoralis Minor action and artery

A

stabilize scapula, deep inhalation, scapula inferior and anterior

pectoral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Serratus anterior O, I, N

A

O: external surface of lateral parts of the upper eight ribs
I: anterior aspect of medial border and inferior angle of scapula
N: long thoracic nerve ( C5-7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Subclavius action and artery

A

stabilize acromioclavicular joint, anchoring and depressing clavicle

clavicular artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Serratus anterior Actions and artery

A

protract scapula (punching), anchors scapula by holding it close to thoracic wall (push ups), cause scapula to rotate upward (arms above head)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Trapezius O, I, N

A

O: medial 1/3 of superior nuchal line, EOP, nuchal ligament, spinous processes of C7-T12

I: lateral 1/3 of clavicle, acromion, spine of scapula

N: spinal accessory nerve and anterior rami of C3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Trapezius action

A

elevation of scapula, retracts scapula, pulls scapula down, rotates scapula superiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Latissimus Dorsi O, I, N

A

O: iliac crest, thoracolumbar fascia, inferior 6 thoracic vertebrae, inferior 3-4 ribs
I: floor of intertubercular groove of humerus
N: thoracodorsal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Latissimus Dorsi action

A

extends and medially rotates humerus, adducts humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Levator scapulae O, I, N

A

O: posterior tubercles of transverse process of C1-C4

I: medial border of scapula, superior to root of scapular spine

N: dorsal scapular nerve, anterior rami of C3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Levator scapulae O, I, N

A

first 4 -2-2-4 RULE
O: posterior tubercles of transverse process of C1-C4

I: medial border of scapula, superior to root of scapular spine

N: dorsal scapular nerve, anterior rami of C3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Rhomboids minor O, I, N

A

4-2-2 C7 &T1 -4 RULE
O: nuchal ligament, spinous process of C7-T1

I: medial border of scapula at spine of scapula

N: dorsal scapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Rhomboids action

A

scapular retraction, downward rotation of scapula, assist serratus anterior in holding scapula against thoracic wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Rhomboids major O, I, N

A

4-2-2-4 RULE where this is last 4
O: spinous process of T2-5

I: medial border of inferior scapula to spine of scapula

N: dorsal scapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Deltoid O, I, N

A

O: spine of scapula, acromion process, and lateral 1/3 of clavicle

I: deltoid tuberosity of humerus

N: axillary nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Deltoid action

A

arm abduction, extension, lateral rotation, abduction, flexion, and medial rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Teres major O, I, N

A

O: posterior surface of inferior angle of scapula

I: medial lip of intertubercular groove of humerus

N: lower subscapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Teres Major action

A

adduction and medial rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Supraspinatus O, I, N

A

O: supraspinous fossa of scapula

I: superior facet of the greater tubercle of the humerus

N: suprascapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Supraspinatus action

A

abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Infraspinatus O, I, N

A

O: infraspinous fossa of the scapula

I: middle facet of the greater tubercle of the humerus

N: suprascapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Infraspinatus O, I, N

A

O: infraspinous fossa of the scapula

I: middle facet of the greater tubercle of the humerus

N: suprascapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Infraspinatus action

A

rotates arm laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Teres minor O, I, N

A

O: middle part of lateral border of the scapula

I: inferior facet of the greater tubercle of the humerus

N: axillary nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Teres minor action

A

rotates arm laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Subscapularis O, I, N

A

O: subscapular fossa
I: lesser tubercle of humerus
N: upper and lower subscapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Subscapularis action

A

medial rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Quadrangular space

A

boarders: teres minor, teres major, long head of triceps brachii, shaft of humerus

Contents: axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Triangular space

A

Borders: teres minor, long head of triceps brachii, teres major,

contents: circumflex scapular artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Upper extremity structure

A 
pectoral girdle: clavicle and scapula 
arm: humerus 
forearm: radius ulna 
Wrist: Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform, Hamate, Capitate, Trapezoid, Trapezium
Hand: 5 metacarpal, 5 dips, and 4 pips
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Upper extremity function

A

move arm, pick up things, walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Pelvic girdle structure

A

pelvis (ilium, ischium, pubis)
sacrum
coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pelvic girdle function

A

transfer weight when sitting or standing
attachment points for muscles of locomotion and posture
support and protection of abdominopelvic structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Lower extremity structure

A 
Pelvis, sacrum, coccyx 
femur 
tibia 
fibula 
patella 
calcaneus, talus, cuboid, navicular, cuneiform
5 metatarsals 
5 proximal, 4 middle, 5 distal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Lower extremity function

A

locomotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

radiocarpal joint structure

A

condyloid type of synovial joint, joint capsule
radius, scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum
reinforced by palmar ligaments (distal radius to two rows of carpal bones), dorsal radiocarpal ligaments, ulnar collateral, radial collateral
Muscles: flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris, flexor carpi radialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, abductor pollicis longus, and extensor carpi radialis brevis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

radiocarpal joint innervation/blood supply

A

dorsal and palmar carpal arches

median, ulnar, radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

radiocarpal joint function

A

flex, extend, radially deviate, ulnar deviate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

intercarpal joints structure

A

plane type of synovial joint

carpal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

intercarpal joints innervation

A

median, ulnar, radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

intercarpal joints function

A

augment motion of radiocarpal joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Carpometacarpal Joints structure

A

carpal and metacarpal
1st is saddle type
2-5 plane type synovial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Carpometacarpal Joints innervation

A

median, ulnar, radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Carpometacarpal Joints function

A

movement of thumb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Intermetacarpal joints structure

A

bw two metacarpals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Intermetacarpal joints innervation

A

median, ulnar, radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Metacarpophalangeal joints structure

A

metacarpal and proximal phalanges

condyloid synovial joints surrounded by joint capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Metacarpophalangeal joints innervation

A

median, ulnar, radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Metacarpophalangeal joints function

A

adduction, flexion, and extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Interphalangeal joints function

A

flexion and extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Interphalangeal joints structure

A

proximal and middle phalanges or middle and distal phalanges

hinge type of synovial joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Interphalangeal joints innervation

A

median, ulnar, radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Sternoclavicular joint structure

A

clavicular notch of the manubrium, medial end of clavicle, and first costal cartilage

saddle synovial and fibrous capsule

surrounded by anterior & posterior sternoclavicular ligament, interclavicular lig, and costoclavicular lig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Sternoclavicular joint innervation

A

medial supraclavicular nerve and nerve to subclavius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Sternoclavicular joint function

A

connection between the axial skeleton and the upper limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Acromioclavicular joints structure

A

lateral end of clavicle and tip of acromion

plane type joint and fibrous capsule

attached by: acromioclavicular lig, conoid lig, trapezoid lig,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Acromioclavicular joints innervation

A

articular branches of the suprascapular, axillary, and lateral pectoral nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Acromioclavicular joints function

A

scapula to the clavicle and serves as the main articulation that suspends the upper extremity from the trunk, allow the scapula additional range of rotation on the thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Glenohumeral joint structure

A

ball and socket
humerus and glenoid cavity, glenoid labrum, joint capsule w/ internal synovial lining, sub-acromial bursa and sub-tendinous bursa of the subscapularis

reinforced by: coracohumeral lig, coracoacromial lig, and glenohumeral ligaments

Rotator cuff: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Glenohumeral joint innervation

A

N: axillary, suprascapular, lateral pectoral

blood: anterior and posterior circumflex humeral a, suprascapular a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Humero-ulnar joint structure

A

Hinge type bw trochlea and trochlear notch of ulna, joint capsule, subcutaneous olecranon bursa, subtendinous olecranon bursa, intratendinous olecranon bursa, bicipitoradial bursa

Reinforced by: ulnar collateral lig,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Humero-ulnar function

A

extends and flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Humero-ulnar innervation

A

musculocutaneous and ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Humero-radial joint structure

A

hinge type bw capitulum and head of radius
joint capsule, subcutaneous olecranon bursa, subtendinous olecranon bursa, intratendinous olecranon bursa, bicipitoradial bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Humero-radial joint function

A

extends and flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Humero-radial joint innervation

A

musculocutaneous and radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

proximal radioulnar joint structure

A

pivot type w/ head of radius and radial notch of ulna, annular lig, elbow joint capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

proximal radioulnar joint function

A

pronation and supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

distal radioulnar joint structure

A

pivot type ulnar notch of radius and head of ulna, bound by articular disc, anterior & posterior lig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

proximal radioulnar joint innervation

A

Median, musculocutaneous, radial and ulnar nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

distal radioulnar joint innervation

A

Anterior and posterior interosseous nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Joint of vertebral bodies structure

A

symphyses bw articulating surfaces by intervertebral discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Joint of vertebral bodies function

A

aid in weight bearing, provided strength, shock absorbers, limited movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Joint of vertebral bodies structure

A

symphyses bw articulating surfaces by intervertebral discs maintained by anterior longitudinal lig and posterior longitudinal lig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Zygapophyseal joints structure

A

synovial joint bw superior and inferior articular processes surrounded by thin joint capsule

attached by: ligamenta flava, interspinous, supraspinous, and intertransverse lig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Zygapophyseal joints function

A

gliding movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Altlanto-occipital joint structure

A

synovial lateral masses of atlas and occipital condyles connected by anterior atlanto-occipital membrane and posterior atlanto-occipital membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Altlanto-occipital joint function

A

extension, flexion, small amount of lateral flexion and rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Zygapophyseal joints innervation

A

medial branch from the spinal nerve above the facet and the nerve below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Atlanto-occipital joint structure

A

synovial lateral masses of atlas and occipital condyles connected by anterior atlanto-occipital membrane and posterior atlanto-occipital membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Atlanto-occipital joint function

A

extension, flexion, small amount of lateral flexion and rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Atlanto-occipital joint innervation

A

C1 spinal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Atlanto-axial joint Structure

A

plane type, inferior facets of lateral masses of atlas and superior facets of the axis

pivot joint bw dens and facet on posterior surface of the anterior arch of atlas, transverse ligament of atlas

cruciate lig, alar lig, tectorial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Atlanto-axial joint function

A

moving head side to side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Atlanto-axial joint innervation

A

Ventral primary ramus of the second cervical spinal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Superior tibiofibular joint structure

A

plane joint w/ articular fact of fibular head and articular facet on lateral tibial condyle, joint capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Superior tibiofibular joint function

A

stability ankle joint and weight bearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Superior tibiofibular joint innervation

A

common fibular nerve (recurrent branch) and popliteus muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Inferior tibiofibular joint structure

A

fibrous joint bw fibula and fibular notch of tibia held together by deep interosseous tibiofibular ligament, anterior and posterior tibiofibular ligament , inferior transverse ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Inferior tibiofibular joint function

A

stability and weight bearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Inferior tibiofibular joint innervation

A

deep fibular and sural nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Tibiotalar joint structure

A

hinge joint bw lateral malleolus of fibula, medial malleolus of tibia, and body/trochlea of talus bounded by anterior talofibular lig, posterior talofibular lig, calcaneofibular lig, medial lig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Tibiotalar joint function

A

dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Tibiotalar joint innervation

A

tibial and deep fibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Subtalar joint structure

A

synovial joint bw posterior calcaneal articular surface of talus and posterior articular facet of calcaneus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Subtalar joint function

A

inversion, eversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Transverse tarsal joint structure

A

synovial saddle joint talonavicular (talus and navicular) and calcaneocuboid (calcaneous and cuboid) joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Transverse tarsal joint function

A

inversion and eversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Transverse tarsal joint innervation

A

Talonavicular joint: deep fibular nerve, medial plantar nerve
Calcaneocuboid joint: deep fibular nerve, sural nerve, lateral plantar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Intertarsal joint structure

A

Cuboideonavicular joint : cuboid, navicular dorsal, plantar, interosseus ligaments

Naviculocuneiform joint: navicular and cuneiform, dorsal, plantar ligaments

Intercuneiform and cuneocuboid joint: cuneiform, cuboid, dorsal, plantar, interosseus ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Intertarsal joint function

A

gliding, rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Intertarsal joint innervation

A

Cuboideonavicular joint: deep fibular, medial plantar, lateral plantar nerves
Naviculocuneiform: deep fibular, medial plantar, lateral plantar nerves
Intercuneiform and cuneocuboid: deep fibular, medial plantar, lateral plantar nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Tarsometatarsal joints structure

A

bw tarsal and metatarsal bones, dorsal tarsometatarsal, plantar tarsometatarsal, interosseus cuneometatarsal ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Tarsometatarsal joints function

A

flexion, extension, abduction, rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Tarsometatarsal joints innervation

A

deep fibular, medial plantar, lateral plantar nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Metatarsophalangeal joint structure

A

bw metatarsal and phalanges, plantar ligaments, deep transverse metatarsophalangeal ligaments, collateral ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Metatarsophalangeal joint innervation

A

plantar interdigital, medial dorsal cutaneous, deep fibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

interphalangeal joint structure

A

bw 2 phalanges, collateral ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

interphalangeal joint innervation

A

plantar interdigital nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Temporomandibular joint structure

A

modified synovial hinge joint bw mandibular fossa, articular tubercle, and head of mandible

Lig: lateral temporomandibular, sphenomandibular, stylomandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Temporomandibular joint function

A

protrusion, retrusion, elevation, depression, lateral deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Temporomandibular joint innervation

A

trigeminal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Temporalis O & I

A

O: temporal fossa, deep surface of temporal fascia

I: coronoid process of mandible anterior border of ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Temporalis A & N

A

A: elevates and retrudes

N: deep temporal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Masseter O & I

A

O: zygomatic arch, maxillary process of zygomatic bone

I: angle and lateral surface of ramus of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Masseter A & N

A

A; elevates mandible, protrusion

N: masseteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Medial pterygoid O & I

A

O: medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate, pyramidal process of palatine bone, tuberosity of maxilla

I: medial surface of ramus & angle of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Medial pterygoid A & N

A

A: protrusion, side to side grinding

N: medial pterygoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Lateral pterygoid O & I

A

Superior
O: infratemporal surface & crest of greater wing of sphenoid bone
I: joint capsule, articular disc

Inferior:
O: lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate
I: pterygoid fovea on neck of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Lateral pterygoid A & N

A

A; depression, lateral chewing movements

N: lateral pterygoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Tibiofemoral joint Structure

A

synovial hinge joint bw lateral and medial condyles of femur, tibial plateaus

lig: patellar ligament, medial and lateral patellar retinacula, tibial (medial) collateral ligament, fibular (lateral) collateral ligament, oblique popliteal ligament, arcuate popliteal ligament, anterolateral ligament (ALL), anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), posterior cruciate ligament (PCL), medial meniscus, lateral meniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Tibiofemoral joint Function

A

flexion and extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Tibiofemoral joint innervation

A

Femoral, tibial, common fibular, and posterior division of the obturator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Tibiofemoral joint Structure

A

synovial hinge joint bw lateral and medial condyles of femur, tibial plateaus

lig: patellar ligament, tibial (medial) collateral ligament, fibular (lateral) collateral ligament, oblique popliteal ligament, arcuate popliteal ligament, anterolateral ligament (ALL), anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), posterior cruciate ligament (PCL), medial meniscus, lateral meniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Tibiofemoral joint Structure

A

synovial hinge joint bw lateral and medial condyles of femur, tibial plateaus

lig: patellar ligament, tibial (medial) collateral ligament, fibular (lateral) collateral ligament, oblique popliteal ligament, arcuate popliteal ligament, anterolateral ligament (ALL), anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), posterior cruciate ligament (PCL), medial meniscus, lateral meniscus

Bursae: infrapatellar bursa, deep infrapatellar bursa, suprapatellar bursae, popliteus bursa, anserine bursa, gastrocnemius bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Tibiofemoral joint Function

A

flexion and extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Patellofemoral joint innervation

A

Femoral, tibial, common fibular, and posterior division of the obturator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Patellofemoral joint structure

A

plane joint bw patellar surface of femur, posterior surface of patella, suprapatellar fat pad

lig: patellar ligament, lateral patellofemoral ligament
bursae: subcutaneous prepatellar bursa, infrapatellar bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Patellofemoral joint function

A

flexion and extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Hip joint structure

A

synovial ball and socket bw head of femur covered in articular cartilage and acetabulum of pelvis, acetabular labrum, fibrous capsule, fat pad

lig: ligament of the head of the femur, transverse acetabular, iliofemoral, pubofemoral, ischiofemoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Hip joint function

A

flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, medial rotation, lateral rotation, circumduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Hip joint innervation

A

femoral, sciatic, obturator, superior gluteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Ocipitofrontalis O & I

A

Frontal
O: epicranial aponeurosis
I: on skin superior to eyes

Occipital
O: superior nuchal line
I: epicranial aponeurosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Ocipitofrontalis O & I

A

Frontal
O: epicranial aponeurosis
I: on skin superior to eyes

Occipital
O: superior nuchal line
I: epicranial aponeurosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Orbicularis Oculi O&I

A

O: medial palperbral ligament and medial orbital margin and medial palpebral ligament

I: lateral palpebral ligament, and skin around orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Orbicularis Oculi N & A

A

N; temporal nerve and zygomatic

A: close eyelids gently and tightly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Orbicularis Oculi N & A

A

N; temporal nerve and zygomatic

A: close eyelids gently and tightly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Corrugator supercilii O & I

A

O: medial part of superciliary arch

I: skin of medial half of eyebrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Corrugator supercilii N & A

A

N: temporal nerve

A: vertical wrinkles at root of nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Procerus O & I

A

O: nasal bone
I: lower part of forehead bw eyebrows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Procerus N & A

A

N: zygomatic
A: depresses medial ends of eyebrows and creates transverse wrinkles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Levator labii superioris alaeque nasi O & I

A

O: frontal process of maxilla
I: upper lip and alar cartilage of nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Levator labii superioris alaeque nasiN & A

A

N: zygomatic
A: flares nostrils & raise upper lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Nasalis O & I

A

O: maxilla
I: midline aponeurosis or alar cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Nasalis N & A

A

N: zygomatic
A: narrow or flare nostril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Orbicularis oris O & I

A

O: maxilla, mandible, modiolus
I: mucous membranes of lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Orbicularis oris N & A

A

N: buccal
A: close mouth or protrude lips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Risorius O & I

A

O: parotid fascia & buccal skin
I: modiolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Risorius N & A

A

N: zygomatic and buccal
A: retracts corner of mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Levator anguli oris O & I

A

O: infraorbital maxilla
I: modiolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Levator anguli oris N & A

A

N: zygomatic and buccal
A: raises corners of mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Levator labii superioris O & I

A

O: infraorbital margin of maxilla
I: skin of upper lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Levator labii superioris N & A

A

N: zygomatic and buccal
A: Elevates upper lip, exposes maxillary teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Zygomaticus major O & I

A

O: zygomatic bone
I: modiolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Zygomaticus major N & A

A

N: zygomatic and buccal
A: elevates corner of mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Zygomaticus minor O & I

A

O: zygomatic bone
I: skin of upper lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Zygomaticus minor N & A

A

N: zygomatic and buccal
A: Elevates upper lip, exposes maxillary teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Depressor anguli oris O & I

A

O: base of mandible
I: modiolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Depressor anguli oris N & A

A

N: marginal mandibular
A: pulls corner of mouth downward, dilators of mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Depressor labii inferioris O & I

A

O: anterolateral body of mandible and platysma
I: skin of lower lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Depressor labii inferioris N & A

A

N: marginal mandibular
A: pulls lower lip downward, dilators of mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Mentalis O & I

A

O: body of mandible
I: skin of chin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Mentalis N & A

A

N: marginal mandibular
A: elevates and protrudes lower lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Platysma O & I

A

O: suprascapular, intrascapular, subcutaneous tissue
I: base of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Platysma N & A

A

N: cervical
A: depresses mandible and draws corners of mouth down, tense skin of lower face & neck

197
Q

Buccinator O & I

A

O: alveolar processes of maxilla & mandible, pterygomandibular raphe
I: modiolus

198
Q

Buccinator N & A

A

N: buccal nerve
A: press cheek against teeth

199
Q

Osteomalacia def

A

defective mineralization of osteoid in adults

200
Q

Osteomalacia cause

A

deficiency or impaired metabolism of Vit D, phosphate, calcium
intestinal malabsorption, ↓ UV light, medications, liver and kidney disease

201
Q

Rickets def

A

defectives mineralization of cartilaginous growth plates in children

202
Q

Rickets cause

A

deficiency or impaired metabolism of Vit D, phosphate, calcium
intestinal malabsorption, ↓ UV light, medications, liver and kidney disease

203
Q

Osteomalacia path

A

↓ Vit D -> ↓ serum Ca -> ↑ PTH -> ↑ osteoblast activity -> ↓ PO4

204
Q

Osteomalacia comp

A

fracture, kidney failure

205
Q

Osteomalacia clinical

A

diffuse bone and joint pain, proximal muscle weakness, bone fragility, ↑ fracture risk, muscle spams, numbness
X ray - Osteopenia and Looser zones/ pseudofractures

206
Q

Rickets path

A

↓ Vit D -> ↓ serum Ca -> ↑ PTH -> ↑ osteoblast activity -> ↓ PO4

207
Q

Rickets RF

A

not enough sunlight, dark skin, premature birth, meds

208
Q

Rickets comp

A

fracture, failure to grow, bone deformities

209
Q

Rickets clinical

A

diffuse bone and joint pain, proximal muscle weakness, bone fragility, ↑ fracture risk, muscle spams, numbness, craniotabes, delayed closure of fontanelles, genu varum, prominent frontal bone, protruding abdomen, rachitic rosary
X ray - Epiphyseal widening and metaphyseal cupping/fraying

210
Q

Scurvy def/cause

A

deficiency of vitamin C

211
Q

Scurvy path

A

Lack of vitamin C decreases transcription of pro-collagen

212
Q

Scurvy comp

A

depression, recurrent infections, microcytic anemia

213
Q

Scurvy clinical

A

swollen gums, bruising, petechiae, hemarthrosis, anemia, poor wound healing, perifollicular and subperiosteal hemorrhages, and corkscrew hair

214
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis def

A

chronic inflammatory disease that affects the vertebral joint making the spine stiff

215
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis cause

A

Autoimmune, HLA-B27

216
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis path

A

MCH class 1 w/ HLA-B27 -> cell sample -> CD8 T cell -> release TNF-a and IL-1 -> inflammation of intervertebral joints and facet joints -> destroy joints -> fibroblast replace joint w/ fibrin -> osteoblast activate

217
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis RF

A

< 30, women, smoking , FH, whites,

218
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis comp

A

aortic regurgitation, enthesitis, anterior uveitis

219
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis clinical

A

weight, loss, fever, fatigue, buttock pain, neck or back pain + stiffness, SOB,
bamboo spine

220
Q

Bursitis def

A

Inflammation of bursa

221
Q

Bursitis cause

A

overuse, trauma, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, scleroderma, SLE, gout, bacterial infx

222
Q

Bursitis path

A

inflammation of bursa -> ↑ production of synovial fluid -> enlargement of bursa -> ↑ friction during movement -> symptomatology

223
Q

Bursitis RF

A

aging, repetitive motions, injuries to bursa

224
Q

Bursitis comp

A

muscle atrophy,

225
Q

Bursitis clinical

A

joint pain, stiffness, tenderness, pain, swelling

chronic swelling w/ minimal pain

226
Q

Fibromyalgia def

A

chronic condition causing pain

227
Q

Fibromyalgia cause

A

genetic, child abuse

228
Q

Fibromyalgia path

A

problem w/ pain signals, ↓ serotonin, ↑ substance p and nerve growth factor -> hypersensitivity to pain

229
Q

Fibromyalgia RF

A

Females 20-50YO

230
Q

Fibromyalgia clinical

A

Chronic widespread MSK pain associated with tender point stiffness, paresthesia, poor sleep, fatigue, cognitive fibro fog

231
Q

Gout def

A

urate crystals in joint

232
Q

Gout cause

A

hyperuricemia, high purine diet, dehydration, alcohol, chemo, genetics, chronic kidney disease, thiazide diuretics and aspirin

233
Q

Gout path

A

monosodium urate crystals deposit in joint -> inflammation

234
Q

Gout RF

A

obesity, diabetes

235
Q

Gout comp

A

joint damage and deformity, kidney disease, tophi, kidney stones

236
Q

Dermatomyositis def

A

inflammatory disorder of skin and muscles

237
Q

Dermatomyositis cause

A

autoimmune, HLA-DR3 or HLA-DR5

238
Q

Dermatomyositis path

A

immune cells confuse normal muscle and skin proteins w/ foreign antigen, autoantibodies to capillary endothelial cells or soluble antigens from damage skin and muscle deposited in BM-> activation of complement -> damage

239
Q

Dermatomyositis RF

A

genetics

240
Q

Dermatomyositis comp

A

Respiratory, heart, esophageal disease and cancer

241
Q

Dermatomyositis clinical

A

bilateral weakness, muscle atrophy, pain, tenderness of proximal muscles
dysphagia
purple rash on upper eyelids, shoulder, upper chest, and back or malar rash (butterfly on face)
flat, red, scaly papules over back of finger, elbow, knees (Gottron’s sign)

242
Q

Dermatomyositis clinical

A

bilateral weakness, muscle atrophy, pain, tenderness of proximal muscles
dysphagia
(Heliotrope rash) purple rash on upper eyelids, shoulder, upper chest, and back or malar rash (butterfly on face)
flat, red, scaly papules over back of finger, elbow, knees (Gottron’s sign)

243
Q

Polymyositis def

A

inflammation of many muscles

244
Q

Polymyositis cause

A

autoimmune

245
Q

Polymyositis path

A

CD8 inappropriately react to normal muscle proteins (look like foreign) tRNA synthases, Mi-2, components of signal recognition particle -> apoptosis

246
Q

Polymyositis RF

A

autoimmune conditions

247
Q

Polymyositis comp

A

esophagus involvement

248
Q

Polymyositis clinical

A

bilateral muscle weakness and wasting, affect large proximal muscles, tender muscles

249
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) def

A

muscle pain and joint stiffness

250
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) cause

A

autoimmune, genetic HLA-DR4

251
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) path

A

inflammation of tendons and bursae

252
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) RF

A

Women >50YOO

253
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) comp

A

giant cell arteritis -> vision loss

254
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) clinical

A

fever, fatigue, weight loss,
pain and stiffness of shoulder or hip starting on one-side progresses to both w/in weeks, worse at night and morning, improve w/ movement,

255
Q

Reactive Arthritis (Reiter Syndrome) def

A

inflammation of a joint after STI or gastroenteritis

256
Q

Reactive Arthritis (Reiter Syndrome) cause

A

Autoimmune, Chlamydia, Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, Campylobacter, E. Coli (gram neg, endotoxin)
HLA-B27

257
Q

Reactive Arthritis (Reiter Syndrome) RF

A

genetics, multiple sexual partners, eating contaminated food

258
Q

Reactive Arthritis (Reiter Syndrome) comp

A

Reiter syndrome (joint swelling, urethritis, and conjunctivitis), cervicitis, pericarditis, keratoderma blenorrhagicum

259
Q

Reactive Arthritis (Reiter Syndrome) clinical

A

pain and swelling of large joint

260
Q

Tendonitis def

A

inflammation of tendon

261
Q

Tendonitis cause

A

overuse, overload

262
Q

Tendonitis RF

A

repetitive movement, trauma, thermal injury to the tendon, use of certain antibiotics (such as levofloxacin and ciprofloxacin), and smoking

263
Q

Tendonitis comp

A

rupture, contractures, adhesions, muscle wasting, disability

264
Q

Tendonitis clinical

A

pain in the tissues surrounding a joint

265
Q

Osteopetrosis def

A

osteoclast dysfunction leading to bone hardening

266
Q

Osteopetrosis cause

A

Genetic: autosomal recessive osteopetrosis and autosomal dominant osteopetrosis

267
Q

Osteopetrosis path

A

ARO: mutation in CA2 gene encoding carbon anhydrase which osteoclasts fail to reabsorb cone because acidic environment requires -> imbalance bw bone formation and reabsorption -> excess bone formation
ADO: mutation in chloride channel & gene associated w/ renal tubular acidosis -> deficiency of carbonic anhydrase in kidney

268
Q

Osteopetrosis RF

A

genetic

269
Q

Osteopetrosis comp

A

ARO: death,

ADO: pathologic fractures, osteoarthritis

270
Q

Osteopetrosis clinical

A

ARO: failure to thrive, osteomyelitis of mandible, cranial nerve compression, dental abnormalities, hydrocephalus, hepatosplenomegaly, weakness, fatigue, pallor, bruising, hemorrhage, recurrent infections

ADO: asyx, vison loss, hearing loss, cranial nerve compression,

271
Q

Marfan Syndrome def

A

defective connective tissue

272
Q

Marfan Syndrome cause

A

genetic, autosomal dominant

273
Q

Marfan Syndrome path

A

mutation in FBN1 on chromosome 15 -> fibrillin-1 is dysfunctional or less abundant -> fewer functional microfibrils and TGF-B doesn’t get destroyed -> less tissue elasticity and integrity and more tissue growth

274
Q

Marfan Syndrome RF

A

FH,

275
Q

Marfan Syndrome comp

A

retinal detachment -> lens dislocation (upward)
pneumothorax
aortic valve insufficiency, aortic aneurysm or dissection or rupture, mitral valve prolapse

276
Q

Muscular Dystrophy def

A

muscle poorly nourished leading to muscle weakness

277
Q

Muscular Dystrophy cause

A

genetic mutation in dystrophin gene

278
Q

Muscular Dystrophy cause

A

genetic mutation in dystrophin gene on X chromosome recessive

279
Q

Muscular Dystrophy path

A

nonsense or frameshift mutation causing no dystrophin = Duchenne
missense mutation causing misshapen dystrophin = Becker
dystrophin stabilizes sarcolemma -> cell death -> fat

280
Q

Muscular Dystrophy RF

A

males, FH,

281
Q

Muscular Dystrophy comp

A

short life span

282
Q

Muscular Dystrophy clinical

A

waddling gait, calf pseudohypertrophy, Gower’s sign (using hand to get up from ground), immobilization, scoliosis, respiratory failure, dilated cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias

283
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta def

A

brittle bones prone to fractures

284
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta cause

A

impaired type I collagen synthesis, autosomal dominant

285
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta path

A

mutation of COL1A1 or COL1A2 -> misfolding of collagen proteins, loss of function -> bone loss, fragility

286
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta RF

A

FH,

287
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta comp

A

type II leads to death

hearing loss

288
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta clinical

A

pathologic fractures w/ minimal/no trauma, malformations, short stature, scoliosis, skull malformations, blue discoloration/translucency of sclera, exposure of choroidal veins, hearing loss, dentinogenesis imperfecta, easy bruising, hypermobility

289
Q

Osteoarthritis (OA)/
Degenerative Joint
Disease (DJD) def

A

inflammation of bone and synovial joints

290
Q

Osteoarthritis (OA)/
Degenerative Joint
Disease (DJD) cause

A

loss of articular cartilage

291
Q

Osteoarthritis (OA)/
Degenerative Joint
Disease (DJD) RF

A

Age, Female, Obesity, Joint trauma, inflammation,

292
Q

Osteoarthritis (OA)/
Degenerative Joint
Disease (DJD) comp

A

bone death, stress fractures

293
Q

Osteoarthritis (OA)/
Degenerative Joint
Disease (DJD) clinical

A

Pain in weight-bearing joints after use, improving with rest, morning stiffness, sharp ache, burning, no swelling of joints
Asymmetric joint involvement
HEBERDEN NODES AT DIP
BOUCHARD NODES AT PIP

294
Q

Osteoarthritis (OA)/
Degenerative Joint
Disease (DJD) path

A

articular cartilage damage -> chondrocytes make more type II collagen -> switch to type I collagen -> decreased elasticty -> chondrocytes become over worked and die -> leaving debris that type A attempt to remove -> macrophage and lymphocytes recruited -> proinflammatory cytokines causing inflammation -> cracks in bone form

295
Q

Osteoporosis def

A

imbalance between bone formation, bone resorption -> decreased bone density, pathologic fractures

296
Q

Osteoporosis cause

A

↓ estrogen and old age, Drugs (steroids, alcohol, anticonvulsants, anticoag, thyroid replacement)
Hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroid, multiple myeloma, malabsorption syndromes, anorexia, turner syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, Klinefelter syndrome, Cushing syndrome, DM

297
Q

Osteoporosis path

A

higher breakdown of bone than formation of bone

298
Q

Osteoporosis RF

A

genetic, nutrition, estrogen and androgen levels , exercise, age

299
Q

Osteoporosis comp

A 
Vertebral compression fractures
Loss of height
Kyphosis 
Femoral neck fractures
Distal radius (colles) fracture
300
Q

Osteoporosis clinical

A

asx, pathological fracture of vertebral column (loss of height, kyphosis, sudden back pain, radicular pain, cauda equina) and hips, chronic pain

301
Q

Paget Disease def

A

disorder w/ a lot of bone remodeling, excessive bone resorption and growth

302
Q

Paget Disease cause

A

Measles, SQSTM1 mutation

303
Q

Paget Disease path

A

osteoclast aggressively demineralize bone while rapid, disorganized proliferation of new bone tissue by osteoblasts, collagen deposited unorganized -> osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast -> weak bone -> osteoblast stop

304
Q

Paget Disease RF

A

men, FH, >50

305
Q

Paget Disease comp

A

osteosarcoma

306
Q

Paget Disease clinical

A

asymptomatic
impinge on nerves causing pain
overgrow of face (leontiasis, hearing loss, vision loss)
kyphosis, lower limb muscle weakness, pelvic asymmetry, bowlegs

307
Q

Avascular Necrosis def

A

blood supply to the area has been cut off leading to damage

308
Q

Avascular Necrosis cause

A

glucoCorticoids, chronic Alcohol, Sickle cell disease, Trauma, SLE, the Bend (decompression disease), LEgg-Calve-Perthes disease, Gaucher disease, Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
CASTS Bend LEGS

309
Q

Avascular Necrosis path

A

femoral

hypoxic -> structural proteins bend out of shape and lysosomal proteins are ineffective at removing affected proteins

310
Q

Avascular Necrosis RF

A

Corticosteroids, alcoholism, sickle cell, trauma, SLE

311
Q

Avascular Necrosis comp

A

sclerosis, total destruction, nonunion of fracture, and secondary muscle wasting

312
Q

Avascular Necrosis clinical

A

pain

313
Q

Chondrosarcoma def

A

Tumor of malignant chondrocytes

314
Q

Chondrosarcoma path

A

chromosomal mutations in 9p21, 10, 13q14, and 17p13

amplification of MYC and AP-1transcription factors

315
Q

Chondrosarcoma RF

A

> 50, PMH of Ollier disease, Maffucci syndrome, Wilms tumor, radiotherapy

316
Q

Chondrosarcoma comp

A

bone fractures, metastasis, neurovascular structure impingement

317
Q

Chondrosarcoma clinical

A

painful, prgressively enlarging mass, localized swelling, limited ROM, fatigue, weight loss, numbness, weakness, skin discoloration, loss of pulse, claudication

318
Q

Ewing Sarcoma def

A

Anaplastic small blue cells of neuroectodermal origin

319
Q

Ewing Sarcoma cause

A

mutation

320
Q

Ewing Sarcoma RF

A

Caucasians

Boys <15 YO

321
Q

Ewing Sarcoma comp

A

Aggressive with early metastases, but responsive to chemo

322
Q

Ewing Sarcoma clinical

A

Diaphysis of long bones (esp femur), pelvic flat bones

323
Q

Osteoid Osteoma def

A

benign cancer arise from osteoblasts

324
Q

Osteoid Osteoma comp

A

scoliosis, enlargement or deformity of bone, stiffness of joint

325
Q

Osteoid Osteoma clinical

A

pain, diaphysis of long bones

326
Q

Osteosarcoma def

A

cancer of bone tissue, malignant

327
Q

Osteosarcoma cause

A

mutation

328
Q

Osteosarcoma path

A

mutations in retinoblastoma gene or tumor protein 53 -> cell growth

329
Q

Osteosarcoma RF

A

M < 20 YO, genetic, Hereditary retinoblastoma, Paget disease, Li-Fraumeni syndrome,

330
Q

Osteosarcoma comp

A

bone marrow repression, cortical bone breakage, adjacent-joint spread

331
Q

Osteosarcoma clinical

A

ilium, distal femur, proximal tibia bone pain and tenderness

332
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma def

A

cancer cells arise from skeletal muscle progenitors, malignant

333
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma cause

A

genetic

334
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma path

A

genetic translation determining fusion of two genes which encode two transcription factors FOXO1 & PAX3 -> interferes w/ differentiation-driven gene expression -

335
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma RF

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome, neurofibromatosis type I, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, Costello syndrome

336
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma comp

A

metastasis

bone marrow involvement

337
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma clinical

A

palpable mass in head/neck, GU tract, limbs, abdomen

hematuria, GU obstruction, sinusitis, headache, cranial nerve alterations, ear discharge, orbital swelling

338
Q

Septic arthritis def

A

joint inflammation cause by microbe

339
Q

Septic arthritis cause

A

bacteria, Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus, mycobacterium tuberculosis, Borrelia species

340
Q

Septic arthritis path

A

from preexisting bone infection or from other part of body traveling through blood to joint
toxins from bacteria destroy articular cartilage and then innate immune systems releases cytokines and more cells are recruited to the area -> inflammation and fluid accumulation -> inc pressure -> compress blood vessels -> necrosis

341
Q

Septic arthritis RF

A

joint problems, artificial joint, autoimmune conditions

342
Q

Septic arthritis comp

A

joint destruction

343
Q

Septic arthritis clinical

A

single joint pain, impaired ROM, fever

344
Q

Gonococcal arthritis RF

A

sexually active, multiple partners

345
Q

Gonococcal arthritis comp

A

meningitis, joint damage, perihepatitis, endocarditis, osteomyelitis

346
Q

Gonococcal arthritis clinical

A

multiple joints pain, impaired ROM, fever, skin lesions, and tenosynovitis

347
Q

Necrotizing Fasciitis def

A

infection of the subcutaneous fat and muscle fascia

348
Q

Necrotizing Fasciitis cause

A

Type I: Bacteroides, Clostridium, Peptostreptococcus, E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Enterobacter,

Type II: group A Streptococcus, other beta-hemolytic streptococci, Staphylococcus aureus

Type II

349
Q

Necrotizing Fasciitis path

A

bacteria spared via subcutaneous tissue -> release exotoxins -> tissue destruction spreads along fascial plane

350
Q

Necrotizing Fasciitis cause

A

Bacteroides, Clostridium, E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Enterobacter,
group A Streptococcus, other beta-hemolytic streptococci, Staphylococcus aureus
fungal

351
Q

Necrotizing Fasciitis RF

A

HIV, diabetes, cirrhosis, corticosteroid use, peripheral vascular disease, trauma, surgery, IV drug abuse, childbirth, exposure of open wound (salt/fresh water, swimming pools, hot tubs), Ludwig’s angina, Lemierre syndrome

352
Q

Necrotizing Fasciitis comp

A

death, shock, organ failure

353
Q

Necrotizing Fasciitis clinical

A

Skin: warmth, erythema/violet/purple, woody induration, edema, necrosis, bullae (large blisters) w/or w/o serosanguinous fluid, subcutaneous emphysema

pain, fever, tachycardia, pallor, altered LOC, ↓ prefusion, ↓ BP, orthostatic hypotension

354
Q

Osteomyelitis def

A

Infection of the bone

355
Q

Osteomyelitis cause

A

Staph aureus

356
Q

Osteomyelitis cause

A

Staph aureus, Salmonella (SC), Pasteurella multocida (cat scratch)

357
Q

Osteomyelitis path

A

trauma, surgery, through blood (most common), or from adjacent area bacteria to bone -> bacteria proliferate -> nearby macrophages and dendritic cells activate -> release cytokines -> bone breakdown -> all bacteria die (acute) or affected bone becomes necrotic and separates (chronic)

358
Q

Osteomyelitis RF

A

immunocompromised, DM, IV drugs, hemodialysis, dental extraction of infected tooth, sickle cell

359
Q

Osteomyelitis comp

A

abscess in periosteum, infect other joints, muscle, skin, blood vessels (thrombophlebitis)

360
Q

Osteomyelitis clinical

A

vertebrae (adults), metaphysis (children)

A: pain, fever, might affect use of bone

C: prolonged fevers, weight loss

361
Q

Wet Gangrene def

A

blood supply to an area of the body is interrupted and infection

362
Q

Wet Gangrene cause

A

severe burn, frostbite, or injury

363
Q

Wet Gangrene path

A

blood supply is cut off -> cell death -> surrounding tissue leaks fluid due to infection

364
Q

Wet Gangrene RF

A

diabetes

365
Q

Wet Gangrene comp

A

loss of limb

366
Q

Wet Gangrene clinical

A

extreme pain, swelling, thin, watery pus can leak out of would, blood filled bullae on skin, fever, tachycardia

367
Q

Gas Gangrene def

A

infection of Clostridium perfringens

368
Q

Gas Gangrene cause

A

injury, infection, Clostridium perfringens

369
Q

Gas Gangrene clinical

A

extreme pain, swelling, thin, watery pus can leak out of would, blood filled bullae on skin, crepitus, fever, tachycardia

370
Q

Greenstick Fracture

A

Incomplete fracture extending partway through width of bone following bending stress. Bone fails on the tension side. Compression side intact. Bone is bent like a green twig.

371
Q

Torus (buckle) Fracture

A

Axial force apple to immature bone. Cortex buckles on the compression (concave) side, and fractures. Tension (convex) side remains solid.

372
Q

Arm abduction

A

supraspinatus, deltoid, trapezius, serratus anterior

373
Q

Finger Abduction

A

Dorsal interossei

374
Q

Finger Adduction

A

Palmar interossei

375
Q

Oppose of thumb and pinky

A

Opponens pollicis

Opponens digiti minimi

376
Q

Abduct thumb and pinky

A

Abductor pollicis brevis

Abductor digiti minimi

377
Q

Flexor of thumb and pinky

A

Flexor digiti minimi

Flexor pollicis brevis

378
Q

Hip Abduction

A

Gluteus medius

Gluteus minimus

379
Q

Hip Adduction

A

Adductor magnus
Adductor longus
Adductor brevis

380
Q

Hip Extension

A

Gluteus maximus
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus

381
Q

Hip Flexion

A 
Iliopsoas
Rectus femoris
Tensor fascia lata
Pectineus
Sartorius
382
Q

Hip Internal Rotation

A

Gluteus medius
Gluteus minimus
Tensor fascia latae

383
Q

Hip External Rotation

A

Iliopsoas
Gluteus maximus
Piriformis
Obturator

384
Q

Osteoblasts

A

build bones by secreting collagen and catalyzing mineralization in alkaline environment via alkaline phosphatase

385
Q

Osteoclast

A

dissolves bone by secreting H+ and collagenase vis RANK receptors being stimulates by RANKL or osteoprotegerin

386
Q

Estrogen

A

inhibits apoptosis in osteoblasts and induces apoptosis in osteoclast

387
Q

Where dose herniation happen?

A

C5-C6
C6-C7
L4-L5
L5-S1

388
Q

What parts of the spine have lordotic?

A

cervical and lumbar

389
Q

What parts of spine have kyphotic?

A

thoracic

390
Q

Scoliosis cause

A

idiopathic, congenital, neuromuscular scoliosis

391
Q

Scoliosis RF

A

9-15, neuromuscular disorder, FH

392
Q

Scoliosis comp

A

heart and lung problem, paralysis

393
Q

Scoliosis clinical

A

spinal curvature to one side, uneven hips or shoulders, differences in leg length, tiredness of spine, prominent shoulder blade, rib bump

394
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis def

A

chronic systemic autoimmune disorder

395
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis cause

A

autoimmune

396
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis path

A

antiboidies bind w/ other proteins and tissues -> create immune complexes that cause inflammation -> enzymes cause further joint tissue degradation-> pannus forms -> osteoclasts cause underlying bone to demineralize

397
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis clinical

A

joint swelling, stiffness, warmth, tenderness, pain
joint deformation, fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, weakness, low-grade fever, rheumatoid nodules, pleural effusion, vasculitis, pericarditis, enlarged spleen

398
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis antibodies

A

Rheumatoid factor, anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide

399
Q

Healing of Fracture

A

inflammatory stage: hematoma, inflammatory cell degrade debris and bacteria

reparative stage: fibrocartilage formed, soft callus joins fractured bone, hard callus develops, blood vessels form

remodeling stage: lamellar bone replaces woven bone

400
Q

Compartment syndrome def

A

edema and swelling cause increased pressure in muscle compament

401
Q

Compartment syndrome def

A

edema and swelling cause increased pressure in muscle compartment

402
Q

Compartment syndrome comp

A

paralysis, amputation, Volkmann contracture

403
Q

Adhesive Capsulitis def

A

acute inflammation of ligaments in shoulder joint capsule

404
Q

Adhesive Capsulitis clinical

A

self-imposed immobility of shoulder because of pain, stiffness, loss of motion,

405
Q

Triceps brachii A & N

A

A: Elbow joint: extension of the forearm
Shoulder joint: extension and adduction of the arm (long head)

N: Radial nerve

406
Q

Biceps brachii A & N

A

Flexion and supination of the forearm at the elbow joint, weak flexor of the arm at the glenohumeral joint

N: Musculocutaneous nerve

407
Q

Coracobrachialis muscle A & N

A

Adduction and flexion of the arm at the shoulder joint

N: Musculocutaneous nerve

408
Q

Coracobrachialis muscle A & N

A

Adduction and flexion of the arm at the shoulder joint

N: Musculocutaneous nerve

409
Q

Serratus posterior superior muscle A & N

A

A: Elevates ribs
N: 2nd-5th Intercostal nerves

410
Q

Serratus posterior inferior muscle A & N

A

A: Depresses ribs/ Draws ribs inferoposteriorly
N: Anterior rami of spinal nerves T9-T12

411
Q

Rectus capitis posterior major muscle A & N

A

Head extension and Head rotation

Suboccipital nerve

412
Q

Rectus capitis posterior minor A & N

A

Head extension

Posterior ramus of spinal nerve C1

413
Q

Obliquus capitis superior A & N

A

Head extension and Head lateral flexion

Suboccipital nerve

414
Q

Obliquus capitis inferior A & N

A

Head extension and Head rotation

Posterior ramus of spinal nerve C1

415
Q

brachialis A & N

A 
flexion of the forearm
Musculocutaneous nerve (C5,C6); Radial nerve (C7)
416
Q

pronator teres A & N

A 
Pronation of forearm at the proximal radioulnar joint, flexion of the forearm at the elbow joint
Median nerve (C6, C7)
417
Q

flexor carpi radialis A & N

A 
Wrist flexion, wrist abduction 
Median nerve (C6, C7)
418
Q

palmaris longus A & N

A

Wrist flexion and Tenses palmar aponeurosis

Median nerve

419
Q

flexor carpi ulnaris A & N

A

Wrist flexion, wrist adduction

Ulnar nerve

420
Q

flexor digitorum superficialis A & N

A

Finger flexion

Median nerve

421
Q

pronator quadratus A & N

A

Forearm pronation

Median nerve

422
Q

extensor digitorum A & N

A

Finger extension

Posterior interosseous nerve

423
Q

extensor carpi ulnaris A & N

A

Hand extension and adduction

Posterior interosseous nerve

424
Q

extensor carpi radialis longus A & N

A

Hand extension, hand abduction

Radial nerve

425
Q

brachioradialis A & N

A

Forearm flexion

Radial nerve

426
Q

dorsal interossei muscles of hand A & N

A

Finger abduction, finger flexion, Finger extension

Deep branch of ulnar nerve

427
Q

lumbrical muscles hand A & N

A

Finger flexion and Finger extension
Lumbricals 1-2: Median nerve (C8-T1)
Lumbricals 3-4: Ulnar nerve (C8-T1)

428
Q

extensor carpi radialis brevis A & N

A

Hand extension, hand abduction

Radial nerve

429
Q

dorsal interossei muscles of foot A & N

A

toe flexion, toe abduction, toe extension

Lateral plantar nerve

430
Q

lumbrical of foot A & N

A

Toe flexion, Toes adduction, Toes extension
Lumbrical 1: Medial plantar nerve (S2,S3);
Lumbricals 2-4: Lateral plantar nerve (S2-S3)

431
Q

Flexor digitorum profundus

A

Finger flexion

median and ulnar n

432
Q

Flexor pollicis longus

A

Thumb flexion

Median nerve

433
Q

extensor digiti minimi

A

extension

Radial nerve

434
Q

Supinator

A

extension

Radial nerve

435
Q

abductor pollicis longus

A

extension

Radial nerve

436
Q

extensor pollicis brevis a/n

A

extension

Radial nerve

437
Q

extensor pollicis longus

A

extension

Radial nerve

438
Q

extensor indicis

A

extension

Radial nerve

439
Q

Palmar interossei

A

flexion and extension of fingers 2, 4 & 5

Deep branch of ulnar nerve

440
Q

Abductor pollicis brevis

A

Thumb abduction

median nerve

441
Q

Adductor pollicis

A

Thumb adduction

ulnar nerve

442
Q

Flexor pollicis brevis

A

Thumb flexion

median nerve and ulnar nerve

443
Q

Opponens pollicis

A

Thumb opposition

median nerve

444
Q

Abductor digiti minimi hand

A

Abduction, flexion and extension of little finger

Ulnar nerve

445
Q

Flexor digiti minimi

A

Flexion, lateral rotation and opposition of little finger

Ulnar nerve

446
Q

Opponens digiti minimi hand

A

Flexion, lateral rotation and opposition of little finger

Ulnar nerve

447
Q

Palmaris brevis

A

tightens palmar aponeurosis, tightens grip

Ulnar nerve

448
Q

Iliopsoas

A

Thigh/trunk flexion, Thigh external rotation, lateral flexion
Femoral nerve, Anterior rami of spinal nerves L1-L3

449
Q

Gluteus maximus

A

Thigh extension, Thigh external rotation, Thigh abduction (superior part), Thigh adduction (inferior part)
Inferior gluteal nerve

450
Q

gluteus medius

A

Hip abduction, Thigh internal rotation (anterior part); Pelvis stabilization
Superior gluteal nerve

451
Q

gluteus minimus

A

Hip abduction, Thigh internal rotation (anterior part); Pelvis stabilization
Superior gluteal nerve

452
Q

tensor fasciae latae A & N

A

Thigh internal rotation, Leg external rotation, Stabilizes hip & knee joints

Superior gluteal nerve

453
Q

Piriformis

A

Thigh external rotation, Thigh abduction (from flexed hip); Stabilizes head of femur in acetabulum
Nerve to piriformis (S1-S2)

454
Q

obturator internus

A

Thigh external rotation, Thigh abduction (from flexed hip); Stabilizes head of femur in acetabulum
Nerve to obturator internus (L5-S2)

455
Q

superior gemellus

A

Thigh external rotation, Thigh abduction (from flexed hip); Stabilizes head of femur in acetabulum
Nerve to obturator internus (L5-S2)

456
Q

inferior gemellus

A

Thigh external rotation, Thigh abduction (from flexed hip); Stabilizes head of femur in acetabulum
Nerve to quadratus femoris (L4-S1)

457
Q

rectus femoris

A

Thigh flexion and Leg extension

Femoral nerve

458
Q

Sartorius

A

thigh flexion, thigh abduction, thigh external rotation, leg flexion, leg internal rotation
Femoral nerve

459
Q

vastus lateralis

A

Leg extension

Femoral nerve

460
Q

vastus intermedius

A

Leg extension

Femoral nerve

461
Q

vastus medialis A/N

A

Leg extension

Femoral nerve

462
Q

Pectineus

A 
Thigh flexion, Thigh adduction, Thigh external rotation, Thigh internal rotation; Pelvis stabilization
Femoral nerve (L2-L3)
463
Q

adductor longus

A 
Thigh flexion, Thigh adduction, Thigh external rotation; Pelvis stabilization
Obturator nerve (L2-L4)
464
Q

adductor brevis

A 
Thigh flexion, Thigh adduction, Thigh external rotation; Pelvis stabilization
Obturator nerve (L2-L4)
465
Q

adductor magnus

A

Thigh flexion, Thigh adduction, Thigh external rotation (adductor part), Thigh extension, Thigh internal rotation (ischiocondylar part); Pelvis stabilization

Obturator nerve (L2-L4) and Tibial division of sciatic nerve (L4)

466
Q

adductor minimus

A 
Thigh adduction, Thigh external rotation
Obturator nerve (L2-L4)
467
Q

gracilis

A 
Thigh flexion, Thigh adduction; Knee joint: Leg flexion, Leg internal rotation
Obturator nerve (L2-L3)
468
Q

obturator externus

A 
Thigh external rotation, Thigh abduction (from flexed hip), Thigh adduction (secondary function); Stabilizes head of femur in acetabulum
Obturator nerve (L3-L4)
469
Q

Biceps femoris

A

thigh extension, thigh external rotation, leg flexion, leg external rotation; stabilizes pelvis

tibial division of sciatic nerve and common fibular division of sciatic nerve

470
Q

semimembranosus

A

thigh extension, internal rotation, flexion and internal rotation of the leg, Stabilizes pelvis

Tibial division of sciatic nerve

471
Q

semitendinosus

A

Thigh extension, thigh internal rotation, stabilizes pelvis, Leg flexion, leg internal rotation

Tibial division of sciatic nerve (L5-S2)

472
Q

Quadratus femoris

A

Thigh external rotation; Stabilizes head of femur in acetabulum
Nerve to quadratus femoris (L5-S1)

473
Q

Flexor digitorum brevis

A

Toe flexion; Supports longitudinal arch of foot

Medial plantar nerve (S1-S3)

474
Q

quadratus plantae

A

Toe flexion

Lateral plantar nerve (S1-S3)

475
Q

plantar interossei muscles of foot

A

Toe flexion, Toes adduction, Toes extension

Lateral plantar nerve ( S2-S3)

476
Q

Abductor digiti minimi foot

A

toe abduction, Toe flexion; Supports longitudinal arch of foot
Lateral plantar nerve ( S1-S3)

477
Q

flexor digiti minimi brevis A/N

A

Toe flexion

Lateral plantar nerve (S2-S3)

478
Q

opponens digiti minimi foot

A

Toe abduction, Toe flexion

Lateral plantar nerve (S2-S3)

479
Q

Abductor hallucis

A

Toe abduction, Toe flexion; Support of longitudinal arch of foot
Medial plantar nerve (S1-S3)

480
Q

adductor hallucis

A

Toe adduction, Toe flexion; Support of longitudinal and transverse arches of foot
Lateral plantar nerve (S2,S3)

481
Q

flexor hallucis brevis

A

Toe flexion; Support of longitudinal arch of foot

Medial plantar nerve (S1,S2)

482
Q

Extensor digitorum brevis

A

Toe extension

Deep fibular/peroneal nerve (S1, S2)

483
Q

extensor hallucis brevis

A

Toe extension

Deep fibular/peroneal nerve (S1, S2)

484
Q

external oblique

A

Trunk flexion, compresses abdominal viscera, expiration, Trunk lateral flexion (ipsilateral), trunk rotation
lower intercostal nerves.

485
Q

internal oblique

A

Trunk flexion, compresses abdominal viscera, expiration, Trunk lateral flexion (ipsilateral), trunk rotation (ipsilateral)

lower intercostal nerves, iliohypogastric nerve and ilioinguinal nerve

486
Q

Transversus abdominis

A

compresses abdominal viscera, expiration, Trunk rotation

lower intercostal nerves, iliohypogastric nerve and ilioinguinal nerve

487
Q

Rectus abdominis

A

Trunk flexion, Compresses abdominal viscera, Expiration

Intercostal nerves (T6-T11), Subcostal nerve (T12)

488
Q

Pyramidalis

A 
Tenses linea alba
Subcostal nerve (T12)

NPLEX (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions