Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 2 Incorrect Questions > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Which nerve damaged in shoulder dislocation can cause loss of sensation in “reg badge” area?

A

Axillary (supplying deltoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which nerve root do axillary nerve, musculocutaneous nerve and suprascapular nerve originate from?

A

C5/6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Klumpke’s paralysis?

A

Claw-like hand in baby from damage to spinal roots C8 and T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a Bennett fracture?

A

Fracture of base of first metacarapal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which medication can increase risk of hip fracture?

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Clin pres of osteochondritis dissecans

A

Young adult
Joint stiffness
Worse on activity
Due to overuse and repetitive microtrauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Risk factors for wedge fracture

A

Steroid use, female, old age, low BMI
History of low-impact trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

First line management of CRPS

A

Amitryptyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can be seen on exam of DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis?

A

Tenderness elicited over the radial styloid upon ulnar flexion of the wrist with thumb clasp in the palm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe Lisfranc injury

A

Dislocation of base of second metatarsal and medial cuneiform in midfoot
Usually due to joint rotation of forced plantar flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Investigation used in polymyalgia rheumatica

A

DEXA scan
- to determine low bone density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Medication to manage RA with little response to DMARDs

A

Biologics e.g. adalimumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Erb’s palsy is characterised by which deformities of wrist and elbow

A

Impaired wrist extension
Impaired elbow flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Nerve supplying sensation over medial aspect of leg an foot which may be injured in placing of IM nails post-hip fracture

A

Saphenous nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fracture in kids involving only one cortex of bone involving bending at fracture site?

A

Greenstick fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

LFT abnormality assoc with Paget’s disease

A

High ALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How can you distinguish between trigger finger and Dupuytren’s contracture?

A

Trigger finger - passively corrected and no skin changes
Dupuytren’s contracture - fixed flexion w fibrotic thickening, assoc with excessive alcohol use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Risk factor for frozen shoulder

A

Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tenderness elicited over the radial styloid upon ulnar flexion of the wrist with thumb clasp in the palm suggests

A

DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis
- positive Finkelstein’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tennis player with weakness in 4th/5th fingers, decreased grip strength and no history of trauma

A

Hamate fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Gradual onset midfoot pain in ballet dancer with amennorhoea

A

Second metatarsal base stress fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe a Lisfranc fracture

A

Dislocation of the base of the second metatarsal and the medial cuneiform in the midfoot.
Usually due to direct trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Management of SCFE

A

Surgical fixation of femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Nerve responsible for elbow and wrist flexion

A

Radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Medication used in the management of Raynaud’s

A

Calcium channel blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What anticoag is used in pregnancy with anti-phospholipid?

A

LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Low levels of complement in SLE indicate what?

A

Active disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Nail changes assoc with psoriatic arthritis

A

Onycholysis (lifting of the nail from its nailbed)
Pitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Is allopurinol used for prevention or management of acute attacks of gout?

A

Prevention
- NSAIDs/steroids/colchicine for management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Wolff’s law?

A

The idea that extra bone is laid down at areas of stress
e.g. extra bone growth at fracture site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Gradually worsening instep foot pain (worse on walking) with tenderness over calcaneal tuberosity over post/medial arch?

A

Plantar fasciitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Common side effects of bisphOsphOnates

A

Osteonecrosis of jaw
Oesophageal ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

First line investigation for suspected Sjogren’s

A

Schrimer’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Common side effect of colchicine

A

Diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Management of delayed presentation of scaphoid fracture

A

Urgent ortho review

36
Q

Patient with difficulty picking up objects but no reduced sensation after a radial head fracture?

A

Low radial nerve injury

37
Q

Describe osteochondritis dissecans

A

Necrosis and displacement of a fragment of bone and cartilage in the joint due to overuse and repetitive microtrauma of the joint
Commonly affects young adults and is worsened by physical activity
Patients may experience joint locking and stiffness.

38
Q

Which Weber classification requires definitive surgical management?

A

Type C
Fracture above the level of the ankle joint with disruption of the tibiofibular syndesmosis

39
Q

What movements are involved in the pronation and supination of the arm?

A

Rotation of radius on ulna

40
Q

When would you not choose internal fixation?

A

Open fractures = dirty wounds

41
Q

Hep B infection with CNIII and ulnar nerve palsy and ulcers with systemic upset suggests?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

42
Q

Antibody assoc with systemic sclerosis

A

Anti-centromere

43
Q

Is lateral epicondylitis assoc with resisted extension or flexion of wrist and digits?

A

Resisted extension

44
Q

What is a lipohaemarthrosis?

A

Fat and blood floating mass above patella esp after fracture

45
Q

Signs of Perthes on X-ray

A

Femoral head collapse and fragmentation suggestive of osteonecrosis

46
Q

Most common arteries damaged in hip fracture and dislocation

A

Fracture - AVN of medial femoral circumflex artery
Dislocation - Artery of ligamentum teres

47
Q

Which muscle is responsible for flexion of DIP joints?

A

Flexor digitorum profundus

48
Q

Anatomical snuffbox is innervated by?

A

Radial nerve

49
Q

Damage to which nerve would cause reduced flexion and adduction of the wrist?

A

Ulnar

50
Q

Abdominal presentation of cauda equina?

A

Suprapubic mass

51
Q

Ligament injury most assoc with type 4 tibial plateau fracture

A

ACL tear

52
Q

Which cancers spread to bone?

A

Prostate Loves To Kill Bone
- prostate, lung, thyroid, kidney, breast

53
Q

What lesion can occur after repeated shoulder disloctions/subluxations?

A

Bankart lesion
- seen on MRA

54
Q

Osteoarthritis of the knee can cause what kind of swelling and how would you investigate it?

A

Baker’s cyst
- US

55
Q

Management of Achilles tendon rupture

A

Same-day ref to ortho
Urgent ultrasound
Venous thromboembolism prophylaxis
Plantarflexed cast/Achilles tendon reattachment

56
Q

Which test can rule out Achilles rupture?

A

Simon’s calf squeeze test

57
Q

Sudden pain during walking recently post-op total hip replacement?

A

Posterior hip displacement

58
Q

Which muscle can cause a fibular head avulsion fracture?

A

Biceps femoris
- sudden contraction of the biceps femoris is a common cause of an avulsion fracture of the fibular head

59
Q

Nerve injury most commonly assoc with fibular fracture

A

Common peroneal
- loss of the ability to dorsiflex and evert the foot causing a foot drop
- Sensory functions of this nerve cover the skin on the anterolateral aspect of the leg and the dorsum of the foot

60
Q

Management in septic arthritis of prosthetic joint where broad-spectrum antibiotics have not provided any relief

A

Surgical washout

61
Q

Back pain which wakes from sleep assoc with raised ESR?

A

Inflammatory pain e.g. AS
- lumbar x-ray

62
Q

Back pain which radiates to buttocks and thigh and improves on sitting down/leaning forward

A

Lumbar spine stenosis

63
Q

Intrinsic hand muscle wasting suggests a lesion at what site?

A

T1 nerve root

64
Q

Which test has highest specificity for RA?

A

Anti-CCP

65
Q

Back pain with leg weakness and minor trauma and PMHx of cancer

A

Spinal cord compression

66
Q

C8/T1 radiculopathy would cause what type of symptoms in what location?

A

Sensation synptoms proximal to wrist
e.g. paraesthesia or numbness

67
Q

55y/o make with acute back pain, cervical stiffness, foot pain and difficulty breathing?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

68
Q

X-ray showing a well healed fracture with a backed out DHS assoc with pain over greater trochanter?

A

Trochanteric bursitis from prominent metalwork

69
Q

Bilateral parotid swelling assoc with Sjogren’s, gradual and assoc lymphadenopathy

A

MALT lymphoma

70
Q

Diagnostic test for disc herniation

A

Straight leg raise

71
Q

Swan-neck deformity?

A

MCP flexion
Prox hyperetension
Distal hyperflexion

72
Q

Symptoms of S1 nerve root lesion

A

Foot eversion is weak
Ankle jerk is affected

73
Q

Characteristics of IgG4 disease

A

Recurrent AI pancreatitis
Haemodynamic stability, mildly deranged LFTS, and a normal CRP are also characteristic
Sausage pancreas = diffuse thickening

74
Q

What investigations should be undertaken before starting methotrexate?

A

Baseline liver function test, renal function, full blood count, CXR

75
Q

What is first line for lupus?

A

Hydroxychloroquine
Then azathioprine
Acyclophosphamide if acute e.g. lupus nephritis

76
Q

Pain on medial heel, worse in the morning, no injury history, runner?

A

Plantar fasciitis

77
Q

Is paralysis a late or early comp of compartment syndrome?

A

Late

78
Q

Innervation of thumb adduction

A

Ulnar

79
Q

Immediate swelling of knee joint after injury would suggest damage to which ligaments?

A

Cruciate
- meniscal is usually 12-24h after

80
Q

In what incidence would you give a septic arthritis patient antibiotics before aspiration?

A

If there is an unavoidable delay in performing a knee aspiration or the patient is septic

81
Q

How doe pain from talus fracture present?

A

Ankle pain rather than foot pain

82
Q

Swellings in osteochondritis dissecans and osgood-schlatter’s

A

Tibial tuberosity - osgood
Femoral condyle - osteochondritis

83
Q

Most unstable type of ankle fracture

A

Ones involving tibiofibular syndesmosis
- manage ORIF

84
Q

Which head of biceps more commonly ruptures?

A

Long head

85
Q

What is the female athletic triad and what hip fracture can it cause?

A

Osteoporosis, eating disorders and amenorrhoea
- stress fracture of femoral head due to osteoporosis

86
Q

Achilles tendon rupture inv

A

US ankle and calf

87
Q
A

Year 2 Incorrect Questions (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions