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CORE Radiology Exam > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

MRI parameter that would result in decreased metallic susceptibility artifact:

A

Increasing the receiver bandwidth*** by restricting geometric distortion what would do the opposite Increasing field strength, increased voxel size, and increased slice thickness

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2
Q

Mixture contrast for arthrogram ratio : iodinated contrast with saline and/or anesthetic … ?:?

A

1:1

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3
Q

contraindications for arthrography

A

Anticoagulation and infection at the joint

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4
Q

Placing an MRI receiver coil farther than normal from the area of interest will result in

A

lower signal, lower SNR, noise is constant

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5
Q

What percentage of bone mineralization must be lost to be detected by radiographs?

A

30% to 40% . Radiographs are insensitive in detecting early bone loss.

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6
Q

preferred location for needle placement in the direct vertical approach for hip arthro

A

superior lateral head–neck junction of the femur.

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7
Q

Appropriate mixture for MR arthrogram

A

0.1 to 0.2 mL gadolinium per 20 mL of iodinated contrast, saline, and/or anesthetic Gad is therefore diluted to a 1/100–1/200 concentration

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8
Q

CT over MRI arthrography in…

A

-large or obese patients -postop evaluation of labral tears to avoid the metallic artifact - and in patients who cannot undergo MRI evaluation.

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9
Q

How to fix aliasing artifact on MRI?

A

Double the image oversampling in the phase-encoded direction. [it was not to double the FOV]

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10
Q

Structures with long T2 relaxation time Structures with short T1 relaxation time

A

bright on T2 (water) bright on T1 (blood - some)

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11
Q

What will achieve high-resolution imaging of small MSK structures

A

thin slices; however, when you use thin slices in a 2D acquisition, the signal-to-noise tends to decrease too much for the images to be useful. This decrease can be overcome using 3D, which achieves thin slices but regains SNR through averaging.

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12
Q

What radial imaging techniques on MRI can tolerate more movement and why?

A

BLADE (MRI acronym, Siemens) and PROPELLOR (MRI acronym, GE) sample the center of k-space more frequently

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13
Q

also known as ringing artifact, has the appearance of multiple, regularly spaced bands that are parallel to one another. why does it happen?

A

Gibbs caused by insufficient sampling of high frequencies, which may occur at sharp boundaries (discontinuities in signal)

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14
Q

What parameter can be altered without changing the total scan time

A

Number of frequency encoding steps

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15
Q

Total scan time is directly proportional to

A

time of repetition (TR) number of excitations (NEX) # of phase-encoding steps.

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16
Q

Total scan time is inversely proportional to

A

echo train length (ETL)

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17
Q

The number of frequency-encoding steps does not alter

A

acquisition time

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18
Q

What change in parameter would cause a lower signal-to-noise ratio on a T2-weighted image

A

Increase the bandwidth

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19
Q

Concerns for tattoos in MRI

A

Heating of the tattoo by radio waves

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20
Q

The presence of the metal induces substantial ______ in the magnetic field.

A

inhomogeneity

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21
Q

_______ are particularly sensitive to magnetic field inhomogeneities because they do not have a 180-degree pulse to refocus the magnetization.

A

GRE This effect is exacerbated with longer echo times.

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22
Q

Correct dose of epinephrine

A

1 to 3 mL of 1/10,000 dilution IV or 0.3 mL of 1/1,000 dilution IM.

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23
Q

Needle size for FNA for core bx

A

22G 14-18G

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24
Q

Bx for _____ lesions should be performed with CT > US.

A

intramedullary

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25
Q

medulla definition

A

inner region of an organ or tissue, especially when it is distinguishable from the outer region

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26
Q

the most appropriate position to place the needle for a hip aspiration or injection under ultrasound guidance.

A

anterior recess of the femoral head neck junction

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27
Q

the ability to differentiate between two high-contrast objects

A

Spatial resolution

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28
Q

the ability to detect differences in intensities in adjacent regions on an image.

A

Contrast resolution

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29
Q

Modality that offers the best spatial resolution for evaluation of superficial structures such as many ligaments and tendons. Frequencies used?

A

US 7.5 to 20 MHz

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30
Q

a normal bone mineral density has a T-score

A

≥ − 1.0

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31
Q

T score for osteopenia

A

−1.0 and −2.5

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32
Q

T score for osteoporosis

A

≤−2.5

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33
Q

When diagnosing osteoporosis, what T score is used?

A

the lower of the T-scores between the PA spine and the hip

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34
Q

When evaluating the hip for fracture risk, what T score should be used?

A

the lower of the T-scores of the hip.

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35
Q

Potential uses for FDG PET in malignant soft tissue tumors

A

primary staging, metastatic evaluation, and evaluation of tumor response to treatment.

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36
Q

If In-111 WBC uptake exceeds Tc-99m sulfur colloid uptake in a knee prosthesis…

A

Diagnostic for infxn.

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37
Q

No grids are used when imaging extremities because

A

Grids are used to removed scatter and small body parts generate low scatter radiation (scatter depends on size of the imaging area and the pts size)

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38
Q

Increased SID will do what to focal spot blurring?

A

Decrease… no entendi esto

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39
Q

What happens to attenuation with increasing XR energy?

A

always decreases the attenuation difference between material will also decrease

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40
Q

Increasing reconstruction slice thickness does what to metal artifact?

A

Reduce (the artifact pattern will remain the same, just look less intense, vs. when using a metal artifact software where the pattern will change)

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41
Q

With the heel effect, The difference in radiation intensity across the useful beam of an x-ray field can vary by as much as ____

A

45%.

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42
Q

Physiologic bowing is often seen in the setting of

A

Neg ulnar variance

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43
Q

Periosteal desmoid (has many other names, including avulsive cortical irregularity, distal metaphyseal femoral defect, cortical desmoid, and medial supracondylar defect of the femur) is often seen where? management?

A

posteromedial cortex of the distal end of the femur, adjacent to the medial femoral condyle. located at the insertion of the adductor magnus aponeurosis or the origin of the medial head of the gastrocnemius tendon. Benign finding. No further imaging is needed.

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44
Q

The most common accessory muscle seen in the lateral ankle

A

peroneus quartus.

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45
Q

three accessory muscles, which can be seen in the medial ankle:

A
  1. accessory flexor digitorum longus 2. accessory soleus (only one located superficial to the flexor retinaculum) 3. peroneocalcaneus internus.
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46
Q

What is the most common accessory muscle of the ankle?

A

the peroneus quartus, occurring in up to 10% to 22% of the population. -Posterior to peroneus brevis and longus tendonds (lateral ankle)

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47
Q

order of ossification of the elbow

A

CRITOE 1,3,4,8,10

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48
Q

_____ tendons originate at the medial epicondyle ____ tendons at the lateral epicondyle

A

flexors, extensors

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49
Q

osteochondrosis of the navicular of the foot with a sclerotic, flattened, and fragmented navicular. Symp?

A

Köhler disease ( M>F) pain and swelling

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50
Q

osteochondrosis of the second metatarsal head

A

Freiberg infraction Pain increased by weight bearing

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51
Q

What is the most common carpal coalition?

A

Lunotriquetral

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52
Q

Madelung deformity is often idiopathic but can also be seen in the setting of

A
  • prior trauma - Turner disease, or - skeletal dysplasias such as MHE
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53
Q

shortened distal radius, which demonstrates abnormal ulnar tilt of its distal articular surface. Dx?

A

Madelung deformity

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54
Q

pattern of wrist malalignment characterized by widening of the scapholunate interval, midcarpal collapse, proximal migration of the capitate, and radioscaphoid degenerative changes

A

SLAC wrist

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55
Q

Common causes of SLAC wrist

A

prior trauma or CPPD arthropathy

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56
Q

MC presenting symptomp of bipartite patella

A

anterior knee pain

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57
Q

MC locaation for bipartite patella

A

superolateral

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58
Q

MC MRI finding with bipartite patella?

A

Hyperintense T2 signal within the bipartite fragment (66%)

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59
Q

Nail-patella syndrome tetrad

A

iliac horns w abnormalities of nail (MC), patella and elbow.

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60
Q

iliac horns pathog for?

A

Nail patella Syndrome (AD) A Neil Patel se las pegan…. :/

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61
Q

Congenital etiologies for acroosteolysis

A

pycnodysostosis, HajduCheney syndrome, and Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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62
Q

MC initial site of briding ossification in fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva?

A
  1. SCM 2. shoulder
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63
Q

nerve territory oriented macrodactyly, and neural fibrolipoma with macrodactyly. In the hand, the second and third digits are most commonly affected. Dx?

A

Macrodystrophia lipomatosa

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64
Q

Primary hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is also known as

A

pachydermoperiostosis

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65
Q

The most common cause of secondary hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

A

malignancy (90% of cases)

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66
Q

Involvement of the tufts is not common in either primary or secondary cases; however, when it does occur, acroosteolysis is more commonly associated with ____ hypertrophic osteoarthropathy while tuft hypertrophy is more commonly associated with ___ hypertrophic osteoarthropathy.

A

primary; secondary

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67
Q

decreased disc space heights, increased AP diameter of the involved vertebral bodies, anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees involving three or more consecutive vertebral bodies, and Schmorl nodes.

A

Scheuermann disease

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68
Q

most commonly results from intraosseous disc herniation through a weakened vertebral endplate

A

Schmorl node

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69
Q

Klippel-Feil syndrome def

A

failure of cervical segmentation at multiple levels. This is often associated with a short neck and a low hairline.. These patients have limited cervical motion as well as an increased risk for renal; spinal cord; and inner-, middle-, and outer-ear abnormalities.

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70
Q

Tethering of the scapula to the cervical spine by a fibrous band, resulting in a high position of the scapula. Occurs in 1/3 of pts with Klippel-Fail.

A

Sprengel deformity

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71
Q

How is congenital dislocation of the radial head distinguished from a prior traumatic radial head dislocation?

A

The radial head is overgrown and dysplastic in congenital dislocation of the radial head, +/- dysplastic configuration of the capitellum.

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72
Q

OI types

A

I: Least severe II: Most severe, lethal at birth III: Most severe and alive IV: Like type one but with basilar skull impression (Odontoid process precess into brainstem)

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73
Q

[BW] dripping candle wax

A

Melorheostosis

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74
Q

MC location for melorheostosis

A

lower extremities. MC spares the skull and facial bones.

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75
Q

The os odontoideum is fixed to the arch of ____ and moves with it on flexion and extension views.

A

the atlas, C1

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76
Q

primary etiology leading to Osteopetrosis

A

Abnormal osteoClast function, leading to an imbalance between bone resoprtion and formation.

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77
Q

bones are diffusely and uniformly dense with loss of the normal corticomedullary differentiation

A

Osteopetrosis

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78
Q

acute kyphosis seen in association with Pott disease

A

Gibbus deformity

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79
Q

It is seen on a lateral radiograph as a triangular ossicle, most commonly located at the anterior–superior border of the vertebral body.

A

Limbus vertebra

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80
Q

thin vertical ossifications in the annulus fibrosis at the discovertebral junction

A

Syndesmophytes seen with AS

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81
Q

The most common cause of scoliosis is

A

idiopathic (85% of cases)

82
Q

broadened femoral head with a short and wide femoral neck represents _____ seen with ____.

A

Coxa Magna; DDH

83
Q

DDH is bilateral in ___% of cases

A

20

84
Q

To make the diagnosis of a discoid meniscus, the bow tie appearance should be present on at least ____ consecutive sagittal images, assuming 5-mm-thick sagittal sections.

A

Three

85
Q

Chronic osteomyelitis has been associated with development of ______ within sinus tracts in 0.2% to 1.6% of patients

A

squamous cell carcinoma

86
Q

Chronic OM changes?

A

increased osseous destruction, sclerosis, and thickening of the remaining cortex. Other findings: periosteal new bone formation, sequestrum and involucrum formation, cloaca formation, and sinus tracts to the skin surface.

87
Q

80 - 90 % of pts with Ewing Sarcoma are what age?

A

< 20yoa

88
Q

Possible clinical hx of a sequestrum associated with osteomyelitis

A

recent IV drug use

89
Q

necrotic bone surrounded by purulent material or granulation tissue. What am I?

A

Sequestrum

90
Q

The sequestrum and purulent material are typically surrounded by a bone shell called the

A

involucrum

91
Q

a cortical and periosteal defect that allows pus to drain from the infected medullary cavity into the adjacent surrounded tissues

A

cloaca

92
Q

MC site of foot OM in DM pts?

A
  • first and fifth metatarsal heads - the phalanges - and the calcaneus. At site of increased pressure.
93
Q

MC infectious etiology in subperiosteal abscess

A

S. aureus.

94
Q

Earliest radiographic finding of septic arthritis?

A

joint effusion Later findings include periarticular osteoporosis, cartilage destruction seen as joint space narrowing, indistinctness of the cortical bone, marginal erosions, osteomyelitis, sclerosis, and eventually ankylosis.

95
Q

enhancement of the deep fascia would suggest

A

nec fasc

96
Q

intramuscular abscess with an enhancing peripheral rim. What am I?

A

pyomyositis

97
Q

Which T1-weighted signal pattern is most reliable in diagnosing osteomyelitis of the foot?

A

low T1 signal in a geographic medullary distribution with corresponding high signal on T2FS.

98
Q

Characteristics of abscess on MRI

A

Central low T1 high T2 signal with a thick enhancing rim corresponding to the fibrous capsule. ?

99
Q

classic CT finding of necrotizing fasciitis is …

A

soft tissue gas associated with fluid collections within the deep fascial planes.

100
Q

Earliest osseous radiographic sign of OM?

A

indistinctness of the cortex. No changes will be seen in the first two weeks of infxn. This is followed by permeative osseous destruction, endosteal scalloping, and periosteal reaction. Later changes include the formation of a sequestrum, an involucrum, or an abscess.

101
Q

Most critical MRI finding in diagnosing gangrene of the foot?

A

Areas of nonenhancement

102
Q

MRI findings seen in cellulitis but not in soft tissue edema assoc w diabetic vasculopathy?

A

intense soft tissue enhancement

103
Q

Signs that suggest the presence of OM in a neuropathic joint

A

sinus tracts, replacement of the soft tissue fat, fluid collections, disappearance of subchondral cysts on sequential imaging, and extensive marrow abnormalities.

104
Q

Signs that suggest osteomyelitis is not present in a neuropathic joint

A

thin rim enhancement of joint effusions, the presence of subchondral cysts, and the presence of intra-articular loose bodies.

105
Q

non-hereditary dysplasia characterized by multiple enchondromas involving the metaphysis of long bones usually unilateral or asymmetric. Spares spine and skull.

A

Ollier Lesions usually regress or stabilize after skeletal maturation. The enchondromas can result in growth disturbance, bowing deformities, and increased risk of sarcomatous degeneration (due primarily to their multiplicity).

106
Q

Ewing sarcoma characteristically occurs in which part of the bone?

A

Metadiaphysis

107
Q

A type of benign fibroblastic and myofibroblastic tumor of the foot most commonly occuring at medial non weightbearing surface of the plantar fascia M>F Bilateral in 20-50% of cases Dx?

A

Plantar fibromatosis

108
Q

Forestier disease is also known as

A

DISH

109
Q

MC cause of heel pain characterized by thickening of the fascia, usually at the calcaneal margin, with variable degrees of soft tissue and osseous inflammation. Dx?

A

Plantar fasiitis

110
Q

mass-like fibrosis of the plantar digital nerve, at the level of the metatarsal heads

A

Morton neuroma

111
Q

Morton neuroma most commonly between

A

the 2nd and 3rd intermetatarsal spaces.

112
Q

Features within a fatty soft tissue lesion that should raise suspicion for liposarcoma

A
  • thick septations measuring >2 mm - lesion size larger than 10 cm - the presence of globular or nodular nonadipose areas.
113
Q

What is the most frequent donor site for cancellous bone grafting?

A

The iliac bone - anterior iliac crest is the most easily assessed site for grafting.

114
Q

well-defined, lytic lesion without a defined sclerotic margin, eccentric in location, and extending to the subarticular margin of the tibia in a 30 y/o

A

Giant cell tumor

115
Q

Cause of increased T2 signal on intramuscular hemangioma

A

Slow flow

116
Q

venign tumor with vascular changes, high T2, +CE, phleboliths on XR

A

hemangioma

117
Q

appropriate indication for treatment of a NOF?

A

pathologic fracture; curettage and bone grafting may be indicated.

118
Q

heterogeneous, multifocal areas of abnormal osseous uptake throughout the axial and appendicular skeleton, with decreased renal tracer uptake

A

superscan

119
Q

Osseous bowing, osseous enlargement, and intracortical osteolysis with a characteristic sclerotic band are typically seen at the ant cortex of the tibial diaphysis in …?

A

Osteofibrous dysplasia

120
Q

rare, exophytic growths from osseous cortical surfaces consisting of bone, cartilage, and fibrous tissue.

A

BPOP ~ Nora lesion Some studies suggest the etiology of this lesion to be related to a reparative process after periosteal injury, while others point to a benign neoplastic process as its cause.

121
Q

Osteochondromas must demonstrate

A

corticomedullary contiguity.

122
Q

Osteomas commonly involve the

A

skull, paranasal sinuses, and mandible

123
Q

Osteomas can be seen in association with what syndrome?

A

Gardner syndrome

124
Q

multiple enchondromas of the hand

A

Maffucci or Ollier

125
Q

Pts w HME have (increased/decreased) risk of malignant degeneration to Chondrosarcoma when compared to pts w solitary osteochondromas

A

Increased. (Happens to 1-3% of pts)

126
Q

An eccentrically positioned lesion in relation to the parent nerve suggests a

A

schwannoma

127
Q

Sign assoc w multiple small ring-like structures with peripheral T2 hyperintensity hyperintensity?

A

Fasicular sign seen with tumors of neurogenic origin (neurofibroma, schwannoma, PNST)

128
Q

Factors suggesting malignant transformation of an osteochondroma

A
  1. Growth in a skeletally MATURE pt 2. cartilage cap > 1.5cm 3. Interior focal destruction w lucent foci 4. irregular or indistinct surface Fluid at the overlying bursa is likely related to frictional forces and not malig degeneration
129
Q

Benign disorder with multiple intra-articular nodules composed of hyaline cartilage (low T1, high T2) w/ +- erosion of adjacent bones (80%)

A

Synovial chondromatosis

130
Q

MC location of Synovial chondromatosis

A

Knee (50% then elbow, hip and shoulder. But may arise anywhere there is synovium.

131
Q

MC location for osteoid oseoma

A

Cortex of long bones

132
Q

Preferred tx for osteoid osteoma

A

radio-frequency ablation

133
Q

For successful tx of an osteoid osteoma, what needs to be resected for successful tx?

A

The lucent nidus

134
Q

Typical location for a synovial sarcoma

A

Near a joint within a tendon sheath, less commonly within the joint.

135
Q

centrally located, intramedullary, geographic lytic lesions, +/- endosteal scalloping and expansile remodeling. Dx?

A

SBC. Its a fluid filled cyst.

136
Q

MC locations for SBC

A

prox humerus, prox femur & prox tibia in the pediatric pop

137
Q

____ % of pts with an SBC present w a pathologic fx

A

50% fallen fragment sign

138
Q

ideal approach for proximal humeral biopsies and why?

A

Traversing the deltoid musculature anteriorly just lateral to the deltopectoral interval - bc the deltoid is innervated post to ant.

139
Q

Volar def?

A

Related to the palm of the hand or sole of the foot

140
Q

Epiphyseal lesions

A

CIG Chondroblastoma infxn GCT

141
Q

Metaphyseal lesions

A

UBC, Enchondromas, osteochondromas

142
Q

MC location for lymphangiomas

A

H&N 75%

143
Q

Chondroid matrix, endosteal scalloping, and pathologic fracture may be seen with both

A

enchondromas and chondrosarcomas

144
Q

Features of chondrosarcoma not seen with enchondromas

A
  1. cortical destruction 2. soft tissue mas 3. Pain 4. + uptake on bone scan
145
Q

benign fibro-osseous lesion comprised of a mixture of histologic elements with a predilection for the intertrochanteric region of the femur. Dx?

A

Liposclerosing myxofibrous tumor

146
Q

vascular lesion of intermediate malignancy

A

Hemangiopericytoma

147
Q

lytic lesion with +/- periosteal rxn, endosteal scalloping, cortical breakthrough, and no sclerotic margin.

A

LCH

148
Q

Central or ring-like calcification/ossification in a lucent calcaneal lesion [P]

A

intraosseous lipoma

149
Q

MC location for an intraosseous lipoma

A

Proximal femur

150
Q
  1. Typical MR imaging feature of an intraosseous hemangioma?
A

Coarsened trabeculae Usually bright in T1 & T2 w/o enhancement

151
Q

MC location of intraosseous hemangioma

A

VB

152
Q

The risk of sarcomatous degeneration of pagetoid bone is approximately ___ in individuals with limited skeletal involvement.

A

1%

153
Q

MC sarcoma assoc w Paget

A

Oseosarcoma

154
Q

rings and arcs pattern with high T2 lobulated growth.

A

Chondrosarcoma

155
Q

MC site of met from primary osteosarcoma

A

lung

156
Q

MC site of origin of primary osteosarcoma

A

Innominate bone

aka the hip bone (formed by the fusion of the ilium, ischium and pubis)

157
Q

Radiation dose MC assoc w sarcomas

A

5k-6k cGy

158
Q

A permeative, destructive osseous lesion with soft tissue mass is characteristic for

A

Ewing Sarcoma

159
Q

MC manifestation of extraosseus LCH

A

Skin

160
Q

T1 low or iso, T2 bright lesion with hypointense septations and nodularity

A

Myxoma

161
Q

Myxomas have a predilection for

A

muscle

162
Q

intramuscular myxomas and fibrous dysplasia Syndrome

A

Mazabraud

163
Q

Rare vascular disorder of lymphatic etiology characterized by spontaneous, progressive resorption of the bone +/- soft tissue changes adjacent to involved skeleton and splenic cysts Dx?

A

Gorham Syndrome = Vanishing bone syndrome

164
Q

Imp bone lesion descriptors

A

margin, zone of transition, periosteal reaction, mineralization/matrix, size, number of lesions, and presence/absence of a soft tissue component and location

165
Q

Rare benign cartilaginous tumor of the bone, with approximately 50% of lesions developing in the tibia or femur.

A

Chondromyxoid fibroma

166
Q

Characteristics of Chondromyxoid fibroma

A

eccentric, internal septations, thin sclerotic rim they can be elongated and expansile and erode through the cortex

167
Q

benign subungual tumor (hamartoma) developing from the neuromyoarterial glomus bodies

A

Glomus tumor

168
Q

Glomus tumor MRI and enhancement enhancement?

A

high T1 and high T2, +++ richly vascularized

169
Q

Glomus tumor mx?

A

Surgical excision

170
Q

combination of enchondromas and hemangiomas

A

Maffucci

171
Q

Diffusely and avidly enhancing mass, with intimate association with the tendons of the thumb, and has associated underlying bony erosion Dx?

A

Giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath

172
Q

The two MC soft tissue mass in the hand and wrist

A

Ganglion cyst and GCT of the tendon sheath

173
Q

densely ossified juxtacortical mass that lies outside the cortex and occurs in the metaphyses which LACKS corticomedullary continuity between the tumor and the underlying medullary canal

A

Parosteal osteosarcoma

174
Q

Periosteal osteosarcoma characteristics

A

Diaphysis, more lytic, cortical erosion and periosteal rxn.

175
Q

Diff dx for multicystic mass w fluid fluid levels

A

ABC + Telangiectatic oseocarcoma

176
Q

What effect does hemosiderin have on T2?

A

shorten

177
Q

Extensive bone marrow edema surrounding an otherwise well-circumscribed epiphyseal lesion in a skeletally immature patient is highly characteristic of

A

chondroblastoma

178
Q

In a young patient with a posterior spinal element mass, what would be the the most likely diagnosis? -Osteoblastoma -Chondroblastoma -Clear cell chondro -Osteosarcoma

A

Osteoblastoma

179
Q

A 32 year old woman has history of Gaucher dx. What would be the most likely reason to obtain serial follow up MRI exams?

A

Treatment response Gaucher dx can be treated by enzyme replacement, and response to therapy can be monitored by MRI.

180
Q

Best sequence and FOV size to visualize and measure the tendon gap in achilles Tendon Rupture

A

Large field of view w T2Fatsat (or STIR)

181
Q

T score value cutoff for Osteopenia

A

Less than -1 (NOT -1)

182
Q

What is the abnormality?

A

Torn TFC

183
Q

chronic disorder of synovitis, acne, pustulosis and hyperostosis?

A

SAPHO syndrome

184
Q

Best tx for Osteoid Osteoma

A

Radiofrequency Ablation

185
Q

On ultrasound of full thickness rotator cuff tears, what is the most common finding?

A

hypo/anechoic defect

186
Q

What is the best interpretation of the biceps tendon abnormality? Add MRI

A

Medial dislocation

187
Q

What is the weakest and most frequently torn ankle ligament?

A

ATFL

188
Q

Chronic, repetitive injury to the ATFL structure/region can lead to…

A

Anterolateral ankle impingement ( a soft tissue “mass” consisting of hypertrophic synovium and fibrotic tissue may develop within the lateral gutter of the ankle)

189
Q

A typical field of view for a shoulder MRI on a 1.5 Tesla magnet is (cm):

A

16 cm

190
Q

Dx?

A

Tumoral Calcinosis (Amorphous calcs in a periarticular distribution)

191
Q

What type of arthropathy commonly results in joint deformation withOUT erosions?

A

Lupus

192
Q

An epiphyseal geographic lesion with surrounding reactive edema in a skeletally immature patient is highly suggestive of

A

Chondroblastoma

193
Q

Progressively decreasing interpedicular distance in the lumbar spine, flat acetabular roof, champagne glass pelvis with squared iliac bones, metaphyseal flaring of tubular bones and trident hand. Dx?

A

Achondroplasia

194
Q

Fast spin echo sequence with a high receiver bandwidth is used to decrease what type of artifact?

A

Metallic

195
Q

Lace like reticular pattern within the proximal phalanges without significant periosteal ran is seen with?

A

Sarcoidosis

196
Q

Medication that is a risk factor for Achilles tendon rupture

A

Quinolones

197
Q

MHE is assoc with the development of what malignancy?

A

Chondrosarcoma

198
Q

What pattern of bruising of the knee bones suggests ACL tear?

A

ant femur, post tibia

199
Q

A mass-like distention of the iliopsoas bursa that develops after total hip replacement?

A

Pseudotumor

200
Q

What are the three complications of particle dx after THA that can be differentiated with MRI?

A

synovitis, osteolysis, and pseudotumor formation

CORE Radiology Exam (16 decks)

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