Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CORE Radiology Exam > IR > Flashcards

IR Flashcards

1
Q

1 mm = ? Fr

A
  1. For hole created add 2Fr.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Of all the variables in the equation, the radius (r) has the greatest impact on the flow. Doubling the internal diameter of the sheath will obviously double its radius. and the flow ir proportional to R to the what power?

A

r^4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1 mg of protamine sulfate will inactivate approximately

A

100 units of active heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

“Five for fifteen” is an injection of

A

5 mL/s for a total volume of 15 mL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Common injection rates that one should be familiar with include

Thoracic aorta 
Abdominal aorta 
Abdominal aortic bifurcation/iliac arteries
Femoropopliteal arteries
Celiac/SMA 
Main pulmonary artery
Selective right or left pulmonary artery
Inferior vena cava 10 to 20 mL/
A

Thoracic aorta 20 mL/s

Abdominal aorta 15 mL/s

Abdominal aortic bifurcation/iliac arteries 5 to 10 mL/s

Femoropopliteal arteries 4 to 6 mL/s

Celiac/SMA 4 to 6 mL/s

Main pulmonary artery 20 mL/s***

Selective right or left pulmonary artery 10 mL/s

Inferior vena cava 10 to 20 mL/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ACT value to define therapeutic anticoagulation

A

> 200 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases) recommends an infusion of albumin of ______ of ascites removed for large-volume paracentesis

A

6 to 8 g/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

large-volume paracentesis is defined as

A

> 5 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

uncontrolled postpartum hemorrhage can be tx w

A

catheter-directed particle or gelfoam embolization (avoiding the morbidity of a hysterectomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a reasonable starting dose for moderate sedation?

A

Fentanyl 50 mcg; Midazolam 1 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Although asymptomatic in most patients, a Kommerell diverticulum has been associated with

A

dissection and rupture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Typical indication for vertebroplasty or kyphoplasty. Goal of procedure:

A

symptomatic compression fracture(s) from underlying osteoporosis or neoplasm.
Pain relief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Marrow displacement during the procedure can result in

A

fat emboli syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Initial conservative management for chyle leak

A

low-fat diet or total parenteral nutrition, octreotide infusion, and tube drainage of the leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If the chyle leak is of high output or refractory to conservative measures what can you do?

A
  • Surgical ligation of the thoracic duct (traditional)

- Percutaneous transcatheter embolization of the thoracic duct (and other chyle leaks) (more recent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

To opacify the draining branches to the superior mesenteric vein and subsequently the main portal vein, a delayed image from injection to ____ should be obtained

A

SMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

superior hemorrhoidal artery is a branch of the

A

IMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

After wire and catheter manipulation into a right hepatic artery branch, angiography shows spasm. Appropriate nxt step?

A

Nitroglycerin infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

portal vessels tend to be _____ compared to hepatic arteries arteries which are _____

A

straighter and larger; smaller in caliber and more tortuous as they branch peripherally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Preferred access for PA angio

A

Venous access via the internal jugular or common femoral veins is preferred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Normal main pulmonary artery pressure (PAP)

A

25/10 mmHg with a mean around 15 mmHg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pulmonary hypertension is defined as resting mean PAP

A

> 25 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tx for hemangioma to regress

A

Propanolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Terms used for hemangiomas that are
fully grown at birth:
appear/grow after birth:

A

Congenital

Infantile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Characteristics of Venous malformations

A
  • usually a child
  • phleboliths
  • enlarge over time
  • fluid fluid levels
  • increased enhacement over time
  • Dark on T1 FS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

high T2 signal intensity mass with large cystic spaces and thin internal septations. CE images show enhancing thin septations and enhancing periphery

A

lymphatic malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  • may grow after birth
  • flow voids
  • homo enhancement
  • T1 iso
    what am I?
A

hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The most accepted indication for the treatment of a type 2 endoleak is

A

growth by 5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Failure of the stent graft to achieve a circumferential seal. This can occur at the proximal attachment site or distal attachment sites . What type of endoleak?

A

1a and 1b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Retrograde collateral arterial flow to the aneurysm sac by branch vessels. Most commonly the inferior mesenteric artery or a lumbar artery. What type of endoleak?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Leak or separation between stent graft components. Less commonly tear or hole in the stent graft fabric. What type of endoleak?

A

3 slit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Graft porosity. Identified immediately after stent graft deployment. What type of endoleak?

A

4 for pores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Graft porosity. Identified immediately after stent graft deployment. Resolves on its own. What type of endoleak?

A

4 for pores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Unknown. By definition, an enlarging aneurysm sac without a demonstrable endoleak. What type of endoleak

A

five for why?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

diminished or absent common femoral artery pulses, buttock claudication, and impotence from severe aortoiliac arterial occlusive disease

A

Leriche Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

An abrupt onset of pain in a pulseless leg is consistent with

A

acute limb-threatening ischemia (ALI). This can be due to in situ disease with thrombosis or distant embolus occluding otherwise normal arteries in the leg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

long-segment occlusion, chronic in appearance, with reconstitution distally. Most likely pts presenting symptoms?

A

Intermittent claudication in the left calf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

the time from the original intervention performed to restore vessel patency (SFA recanalization with stenting) until the time that a second intervention is required to treat thrombosis or stenosis.

A

Primary patency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

time from the original intervention performed to restore vessel patency plus additional time gained from a second intervention to keep the vessel patent, such as balloon angioplasty or atherectomy.

A

Primary assisted patency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Acute limb ischemia symptoms

A

absent pulse. cool to the touch, pale, and rigid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Mesenteric arterial pseudoaneurysms management:

A

Tx: Urgent treatment of any size.

Coil embo prox and distal to pseudoA or stent if seal can be achieved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

PSV of ____ has a high risk of graft thrombosis and requires immediate intervention

A

> 300cm/sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When evaluating a patient with symptomatic arterial blockages from Takayasu, which is the most useful piece of info in determining the next step in treatment?

A

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Avoid intervention w active inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

typically affects younger patients with a history of heavy smoking and involves the small- to medium-sized arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities. In the lower extremities, the tibial arteries are often affected with multifocal occlusions and formation of collateral arteries with a characteristic “corkscrew” appearance.

A

Thromboangiitis obliterans or Buerger disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Provides flow to all three arterial branches through SMA in case of Celiac artery occlusion

A

GDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

persistent embryonic connection between the celiac and SMA.

A

The Arc of Buhler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When evaluating a patient with suspected median arcuate ligament syndrome (MALS), which technique will help discern the etiology of the celiac artery stenosis?

A

Angiogram in lateral view with separate inspiration and expiration injections

48
Q

the middle and inferior rectal arteries, which are branches from the

A

ant division of int iliac a.

49
Q

The rectum receives its blood from the ____ via the superior rectal artery

A

IMA

50
Q

contraindication to percutaneous thrombin injection?

A

infxn of the overlying skin, concomitant arteriovenous fistula, inability to visualize the needle, and/or a short wide neck.

51
Q

Tx for symptomatic popliteal artery entrapment syndrome (PAES)

A

surgical reconstruction

52
Q

Although there is evidence of vascular injury on the initial angiogram in this case, one should not clear the pelvis with

A

nonselective angiography alone. Bilateral selective internal iliac angiography in multiple obliquities should be performed with quality power injections to completely evaluate the vasculature for injury.

53
Q

The artery of Adamkiewicz MC arises from ________ in the lower thoracic region.

A

left intercostal artery

54
Q

MC involved artery in FMD? Second?

A

Renal; Extracranial carotid arteries

55
Q

MC presenting symptom of FMD?

A

renovascular hypertension**

56
Q

MC type of FMD

A

medial fibroplasia

57
Q

Tx for FMD?

A

angioplasty alone (responds well) w stents reserved for complications and refractory lesions. **

58
Q

post traumatic arterial phase images show abnormal round and linear contrast enhancement within the splenic parenchyma with gradual washout w/o pooling or spreading of the abnormal contrast

A

intra splenic pseudoaneursym**

active bleeding would show increasing accumulation and intrasplenic hematoma

59
Q

Tx for a hemodynamically stable adult patient with blunt splenic injury and intrasplenic pseudoaneurysm formation?

A

Proximal main splenic artery embolization with coils** Diminished arterial pressure beyond the embolization site promotes hemostasis and healing of splenic injuries, whereas collateral arterial pathways (pancreatic and gastric) reconstitute the distal splenic artery, maintaining viable perfusion to the splenic parenchyma.

60
Q

After prox splenig a embo it is (common/uncommon) to see persistent pseudoaneurysm filling after embolization, particularly on early follow-up examinations. No further treatment.

A

Common

61
Q

Discrete terminus to the normal-looking artery, with an abnormal wire-thin lumen beyond. On the delayed phase image, there is contrast retention in a relatively larger distal artery segment. This appearance is classic for ….

A

arterial dissection with dyssynchronous filling of the true (smaller) and false (larger) lumen.

62
Q

DSA w early arterial filling with lesion being perfused before parenchyma

A

HCC

63
Q

densely calcified atherosclerotic plaque throughout the proximal to mid common femoral artery that appears occlusive

A

Vascular surgery…surgical endarterectomy

64
Q

most important treatment strategy for Buerger Dx

A

Cessation of smoking

65
Q

An abdominal aortic aneurysm is most commonly defined as

A

aortic diameter >3.0 cm or diameter 1.5x normal.

66
Q

Prophylactic vs therapeutic contraindications to PE

A

Pro: Pt has no DVT or prior PE but is at inc risk for many reasons.
Therapeutic: Contraindication to AC, has DVT or has had prior PE.

67
Q

most common renal venous anomaly (reported prevalence up to 17% of patients)

A

Circumaortic left renal vein

68
Q

duplicated IVC is in need of filter placement

A

suprarenal IVC filter or two IVC filters

69
Q

Implanting physicians should consider removing retrievable IVC filters when they are no longer medically needed for protection from PE. Ideally between

A

29-54 days

70
Q

A chronically occluded jugular vein is_____ in size, often difficult to find, and tends to have a______ thrombus. Also, prominent collaterals are often seen elsewhere.

A

diminutive; hyperechoic

71
Q

The echotexture of the vein is heterogeneous with a swirled appearance. This appearance is seen with

A

slow flow

72
Q

acute clot would cause what in a vein? And would be?

A

distention

hypoechoic

73
Q

prolonged bleeding after needle decannulation,

reduced flow in the circuit and high return pressures on the dialysis machine

A

inc in pressure 2ndary to outflow obstruction.

74
Q

May-Thurner tx

A

angioplasty and self expanding stent

75
Q

symptomatic left great saphenous venous insufficiency tx

A

Closure of the left great saphenous vein with endovenous ablation

76
Q

in the setting of large gauge needle access multiple times a week on a graft what can happen?

A

graft degeneration with focal contained outpouchings**

77
Q

focal rupture of the outflow vein with active extravasation after angioplasty management…

A

angioplasty to obstruct defect, serial angioplasties, stent

78
Q

Following a period of maturation (typically ____), the fistula venous outflow should have a flow rate of _____mL/min, achieve a diameter of _____ mm, and travel _____ mm from the skin surface.

A

6-8 wk; >600 mL/min; >6 mm; <6 mm

The rule of 6.

79
Q

If graft stent is too deep. Management?

A

surgical revision

80
Q

Best initial option for cuffed tunneled central venous catheter for hemodialysis

A

right internal jugular vein (2) left internal jugular vein (3) right external jugular vein (4) left external jugular vein

81
Q

MegaCava diameter

A

28mm

82
Q

just cephalad to the right mainstem bronchus, the catheter deviates medially rather than straight down the SVC to the right atrium. This course is classic for

A

azygos vein positioning. A lateral image can demonstrate the classic posterior deviation of the catheter.

83
Q

initial treatment of dialysis access stenosis (minimum stenosis of 50%) is

A

balloon angioplasty.

84
Q

severe acute thrombosis with complete blockage of venous drainage and almost a compartment syndrome

A

Phlegmasia Cerulea Dolens

85
Q

Tx for phlegmasia cerulea dolens in addition to beginning anticoagulation….

A

prompt endovascular venous thrombectomy

86
Q

Paget-Schroetter syndrome management?

A
  1. catheter-directed thrombolytic therapy 2. Once venous patency is restored, surgical decompression of the thoracic outlet is performed
    Avoid stents***

An alternative approach with similar outcomes is anticoagulation alone followed by surgical decompression of the thoracic outlet, avoiding the risks of tPA.

87
Q

Once HIT is suspected, providers should ___. How do you confirm this?

A

discontinue all forms of heparin and switch to an alternative anticoagulation such as bivalirudin.
Confirm with antibody test

88
Q

Massive hemoptysis

A

at least 300 mL blood in 24 hours.

89
Q

Initial management of massive hemoptysis

A

airway protection with dependent positioning of the bleeding lung, and often intubation and placement of a bronchial blocker on the affected side.

90
Q

most commonly used first-line embolic agent in bronchial artery embolization for hemoptysis

A

Permanent particles. They can be sized accordingly, delivered in precise amounts, and mixed with iodinated contrast for visualization.

91
Q

Active bleeding is virtually never seen angiographically, and embolization should not/should be performed in its absence.

A

SHOULD

92
Q

most common etiology for pulmonary artery pseudoaneurysm.

A

Pulmonary artery catheterization for the purposes of physiologic monitoring and cardiopulmonary evaluation

93
Q

pulmonary artery pseudoaneurysm management

A

Coils or plugs prox and distal to pseudoaneu

94
Q

Patients with cardiac tamponade demonstrate which of the following on echo

A

cardiac chamber collapse

95
Q

Clinical practice guidelines from the Society of Vascular Surgery recommend TEVAR over open surgery and over expectant medical management for aortic injury grades…?

A

II through IV.

96
Q

Management when pinch-off is identified.

A

Portacath revision

97
Q

Catheter-associated fibrin sheath formation can be treated in several ways.

A

short-duration tPA infusion through the catheter, catheter stripping, and balloon fragmentation of the sheath to be effective in restoring catheter function.

98
Q

Anything ___ is considered right heart strain.

A

> 0.9

99
Q

Hemodynamically unstable patients with a acute PE are considered

A

high risk. Options for treatment include systemic fibrinolysis with intravenous tPA (or its equivalent), catheter-directed intervention, or surgical embolectomy.

100
Q

urrent recommendations for PAVM embolization in adults?

A

When feeding artery diameter is > 2-3mm or pts w smaller but symptomatic.
Both symp and asymp in HHT

101
Q

Which of the following is the preferred embolic agent for the treatment of PAVM?

A

Fibered coil

102
Q

acute SVC thrombosis mayor concern

A

airway compromise

103
Q

treatment for malignant SVC syndrome

A

often external radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and/or endovascular recanalization with stenting.

104
Q

“vascular blowout” from the left axillary artery management?

A

the operator must consider whether flow preservation is necessary. If it is… stent
This condition typically affects patients with advanced malignancies that have been previously treated with surgery, radiation, and/or chemotherapy.

105
Q

Indications to treat a left subclavian artery stenosis?

A

Symptoms such as arm claudication or vertebrobasilar insufficiency are indications for intervention
ALso, Planning for a left coronary artery bypass graft using the internal thoracic artery

106
Q

what are manifestations of a complicated aortic dissection?

A

those with impending rupture or malperfusion of organs such as the spinal cord, viscera, kidneys, or lower extremities.
also refraactory chest pain

107
Q

It also crosses the pleural surface at an oblique angle, which increases the risk of ____
Other factors are: operator inexperience, lesion size <2 cm, and the presence of underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

A

PTX

108
Q

Indications for chest tube after pneumothorax

A

symptomatic or growing PTX

109
Q

There is a real risk of ________ with percutaneous drainage of a lung abscess

A

bronchopleural fistula. preprocedural consultation with thoracic surgery is strongly recommended.

110
Q

The mortality rate for reexpansion pulmonary edema

A

20%

111
Q

pulmonary artery pseudoaneurysm arising specifically in the setting of a mycobacterial cavitary lesion.

A

Rasmussen aneurysm

112
Q

pulm mycotic aneurysm may be treated with

A

coil

113
Q

The best initial step if hemoptysis after lung bx->

A

position the patient biopsy side down.
This position will spare the contralateral lung from aspirated blood, which could further compromise lung aeration and gas exchange.

114
Q

Cryo, radiofrequency, and microwave thermal ablation have all been utilized in practice. Complication rates vary, with ____ bien a regular ocurrence

A

PTX

115
Q

MC presenting symp for air embolism

A

AMS

116
Q

Nxt step after air is seen in the ventricle

A

abort procedure, remove needle, trendelemburg, ( or theoretically R lat decubitus)

CORE Radiology Exam (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions