MS Flashcards

1
Q

Acute management of MS

A

Steroids (1 g IV solumedrol x 3-5 days), safe in pregnancy, including 2nd and 3rd trimesters
If fail IV methylprednisone, PLEX is second line treatment for acute flare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Injectable DMTs

A

Copaxone (glatiramer acetate)
Interferons
Kesimpta (ofatumumab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Oral DMTs

A

Aubagio (teriflunomide)
Gilenya (fingolimid)
Mavenclad (cladribine)
Mayzent (siponimod)
Tecfidera (dimethyl fumarate)

All of the oral agents require laboratory monitoring, including blood counts and liver function testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Infused DMTs

A

Lemtrada (Alemtuzumab)
Novantrone (Mitoxantrone)
Ocrevis (Ocrelizumab)
Tysrabi (Natalizumab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most DMTs work in the periphery except…

A
Natalizumab (Tysrabi) works at the BBB
Dimethyl fumarate (Tecfidera) and fingolimod (Gilenya) also penetrate the CNS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most DMTs work in the periphery except…

A
Natalizumab (Tysrabi) works at the BBB
Dimethyl fumarate (Tecfidera) and fingolimod (Gilenya) also penetrate the CNS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Interferons MOA and side-effects

A

Injectable

MOA: Suppresses T-cell activation, alters balance of pro- and anti-inflammatory cytokines

Notable side effects: 1) Flu-like symptoms 2) Depression 3) Neutralizing antibodies 4.) Increase miscarriage risk

The interferons as a class cause flu-like symptoms after injections and may cause injection site reactions. They require laboratory monitoring for liver function changes and hematologic abnormalities.

Interferons need to be stopped 1 month before conception

Higher-dose interferons tend to cause neutralizing antibodies in one-third of cases that may interfere with the efficacy of these medicines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Glatiramer acetate (Copaxone)

A

Injectable

MOA: Similar to interferons

Side-effects: Lipoatrophy (can be permanent), safest during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ofatumumab (Kesimpta)

A

Injectable

MOA: mAb to CD20, depleting B cells

Side-effects: injection site reactions (fever, fatigue, myalgias, local reactions), headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fumarates

A

Oral

Dimethyl Fumarate (Tecfidera), Diroximel Fumarate (Vumerity), Monomethyl Fumarate (Bafiertam)

MOA: Induces Nrf2 pathway (anti-oxidant cascade)

Side effects: Flushing, GI upset

Dimethyl fumarate is a second generation fumaric acid ester with unclear exact mechanism of action, which may cause gastrointestinal upset and loose bowel movements as well as intermittent flushing. This tends to improve after the first 2 to 3 months on drug. Dimethyl fumarate is a pregnancy category C agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

S1P modulators (-imod)

A

Oral

Fingolimod (Gilenya) - first dose observation
Siponimod (Mayzent) - CYP2C9 testing, contraindicated in patients homozygous for CYP2C9*3 (i.e., CYP2C9*3/*3 genotype) because of substantially elevated siponimod plasma levels, modified dosing based on genetic result
Ozanimod (Zeposia) - no first dose observation or genetic testing

MOA: Sphingosine-1-phosphate receptor modulator -> cells can’t leave lymph nodes

Side-effects: bradycardia, macular degeneration, some forms of skin cancers

Fingolimod is an orally active modulator of four of the five sphingosine-1 phosphate (S1P) receptors. It acts as a superagonist at the S1P receptor on thymocytes and lymphocytes. It induces an uncoupling and internalization of that receptor. This makes these cells unresponsive to such signaling. They therefore lack the signal necessary for egress from the lymph nodes and secondary lymphoid tissues. In clinical trials, it reduces relapses of multiple sclerosis in patients with relapsing remitting multiple sclerosis, as well as reduces MRI measures of clinical activity. In addition, there appear to be direct effects on neurons and glial cells, which also express S1P receptors. It is unclear if this effect is active in vivo, but may indicate some potential for neuroprotection.

Fingolimod can cause macular edema and a first dose bradycardia, requiring 6-hour observation after first administration. Other potential side effects include bronchitis and elevation in liver enzymes. Fingolimod has also been associated with the risk of severe (potentially fatal) varicella zoster virus infections. Fingolimod is a pregnancy category C agent.

Patients being started on fingolimod will require baseline EKG and ophthalmologic examination. Adequate varicella zoster virus immunity is also recommended prior to starting fingolimod.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Aubagio (teriflunomide)

A

Oral

MOA: Dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase inhibitor -> decrease pyrimidine synthesis and T-cell proliferation

Side-effects: Hair thinning, diarrhea, hepatotoxicity, Pregnancy Cat X – washout with cholestyramine to minimize fetal exposure, peripheral neuropathy, decreased sperm count

Teriflunomide inhibits the mitochondrial enzyme dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, which plays a role in pyrimidine synthesis. This agent is associated with diarrhea, nausea, elevated liver enzymes, alopecia and may be teratogenic, considered as a pregnancy category X agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Natalizumab

A

Infusion
MOA: mAb to alpha-4-integrin on cells, blocking cxn with VCAM1 at BBB
Side-effect: PML

Natalizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody against the cellular adhesion molecule α4-integrin. It binds to lymphocytes and prevents adherence at the endothelial surface of blood vessels in the brain and gut. It therefore reduces the entry of immunologically active cells into the CNS compartment. Trials have shown a 60% to 70% reduction in exacerbation rate, reduced activity on MRI, and slowed progression with the use of this medicine in relapsing forms of multiple sclerosis. In the United States, it is indicated for relapsing forms of multiple sclerosis usually when patients have failed other forms of disease-modifying therapy. Use of natalizumab requires an FDA-approved monitoring program.

Anaphylaxis occurs in about 1 in 50 patients often by the second to fourth dose of natalizumab. Symptoms include shortness of breath, wheezing, hypotension, rash, and tachycardia. The infusion should be stopped immediately if this occurs, and treatment for anaphylaxis should be instituted. This is an absolute contraindication to restarting natalizumab. There is no desensitization procedure, nor should the medicine be retried with premedication or at a lower dose. This is not related to immunoglobulin A deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PML and PML-IRIS

A

PML:
MS on natalizumab OR HIV patient not on HAART-> Progressive cognitive, speech, motor decline
Treatment: STOP Tysabri or START HAART, plasma exchange
JCV, tropism for oligodendrocytes

PML-IRIS
Look for: worsening deficit after stopping Tysabri (or starting HAART)
Contrast enhancement on MRI
Treat with: corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Alemtuzumab (Lemtrada)

A

Infused

MOA: Monoclonal Ab to CD52- depletes B and T cells

Notable side effects: delayed autoimmunity (thyroid, ITP)

Alemtuzumab is an FDA-approved medication for relapsing forms of multiple sclerosis in patients having broken through on treatment with two other disease-modifying therapies. It is a monoclonal antibody that specifically binds to CD52, an antigen that is present on the surface of B and T lymphocytes, a majority of monocytes, macrophages, natural killer (NK) cells, and a subpopulation of granulocytes. The proposed mechanism of action is antibody-dependent cellular-mediated lysis of B and T cells causing immunomodulation and reduced immune injury in multiple sclerosis patients. It reduces relapses and new MRI lesion burden more effectively than interferon β-1a. Specific risks include hyperthyroidism and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), probably on the basis of return of immune active B cells after treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ocrelizumab

A

Infusion

MOA: mAb to CD20, depleting B cells

Side-effects: Infusion related reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mitoxantrone

A

Infusion

MOA: Topoli inhibitor, disrupts DNA synthesis

Side-effects: Cumulative cardio toxicity, leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fatigue in MS

A

Stimulants - amantidine, modafinil, Ritalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Depression in MS

A

SSRIs (fluoxetine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pseudobulbar affect in MS

A

Dextromethorphan-quinidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Neurogenic bladder in MS

A

Oxybutynin (urinary frequency w/ detrusor hyperreflexia)
Tamsulosin (incomplete emptying from dyssynergia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Spasticity in MS

A

Baclofen/tizanidine

Both baclofen and tizanidine are indicated for multiple sclerosis- related spasticity. They have similar efficacy. Side effects of baclofen include fatigue, dizziness, and dose-related leg weakness at higher doses. Sudden cessation of baclofen may cause withdrawal seizures. Side effects of tizanidine include light- headedness and hypotension, fatigue, and, rarely, liver function changes.

Tizanidine reduces spasticity by causing presynaptic inhibition of motor neurons via agonist actions at Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor sites. This drug is centrally acting and leads to a reduction in the release of excitatory amino acids like glutamate and aspartate, which cause neuronal firing that leads to muscle spasm.

Baclofen is GABAb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pain in MS

A

TCA and AEDs (Gabapentin, Trileptal, Tegretol, Topiramate, Zonisamide, Lamictal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sexual dysfunction in MS

A

PDE5 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Gait issues in MS

A

Dalfampridine (ampyra)
Inhibitor of voltage-dependent K channels to improve conduction along demyelinated axons
Improves vision, strength, ambulation, endurance
Contraindicated in patients with seizures or GFR<50 (seizures at toxic levels)

Dalfampridine is FDA approved as an oral medication to improve walking in patients with multiple sclerosis. Dalfampridine is a symptomatic therapy, and can be used in combination with disease- modifying agents. It is an extended-release form of 4- aminopyridine (previously known as fampridine). Dalfampridine is a broad-spectrum inhibitor of voltage-sensitive potassium channels. In laboratory studies, dalfampridine has been found to improve impulse conduction in demyelinated nerve fibers and to increase synaptic transmitter release at nerve endings. Dalfampridine is administered as a 10-mg timed-release pill every 12 hours. In two phase III trials in patients with multiple sclerosis randomized to dalfampridine versus placebo, a significantly greater percentage of patients were “responders” on dalfampridine than on placebo. A responder was defined as a patient who showed faster walking speed while on therapy than while not on therapy. About one-third patients responded to dalfampridine in these studies. The increased response rate in the dalfampridine group was observed across all four major types of multiple sclerosis (relapsing-remitting, secondary progressive, progressive relapsing, and primary progressive).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Paroxysmal dystonic spasms in MS

A

From aberrant discharges from demyelinated nerves, treat with carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MS in pregnancy

A

Decreased risk of relapse during pregnancy, but INCREASED risk in the postpartum period
Breastfeeding is protective
Steroids are OK (2nd and 3rd trimester)
Glatiramer acetate is the safest (or at least best-studied) in pregnancy
Teriflunomide is CATEGORY X–> wash out with cholestyramine!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MS in pregnancy

A

Decreased risk of relapse during pregnancy, but INCREASED risk in the postpartum period
Breastfeeding is protective
Steroids are OK (2nd and 3rd trimester)
Glatiramer acetate is the safest (or at least best-studied) in pregnancy
Teriflunomide is CATEGORY X–> wash out with cholestyramine!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Classifying MS

A

The classic clinical course of MS is the relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS) course which accounts for about 85% of patients
Most patients with RRMS will develop secondary progressive MS (SPMS)
25-40% of patients transition to SPMS within 15 years of disease onset in adults
Primary progressive MS(PPMS) accounts for 10-15% of MS patients
Ocrelizumab is the only DMT approved to treat PPMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Classifying MS

A

The classic clinical course of MS is the relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS) course which accounts for about 85% of patients
Most patients with RRMS will develop secondary progressive MS (SPMS)
25-40% of patients transition to SPMS within 15 years of disease onset in adults
Primary progressive MS(PPMS) accounts for 10-15% of MS patients
Ocrelizumab is the only DMT approved to treat PPMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CIS

A

Clinically Isolated Syndrome (CIS): an initial CNS event with a presumed demyelinating cause, can be multifocal, may or may not have MRI findings -> essentially an initial event, not meeting criteria for CDMS
Conversion rate to CDMS is about 43% at 5 years, 59% at 10 years and 63% at 20 years
If MRI shows evidence of another lesion, 56-88% of MS. If MRI is negative, 22% chance of MS
Start DMT to delay CDMS if high risk features
No indication for DMT if isolated, otherwise normal MRI
Positive OCBs in the CSF and spinal cord lesions are associated with increased risk of conversion to CDMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

RIS

A

MRI consistent with MS but no clinical symptoms.
Associated with 30% risk of MS
Spinal cord lesion significantly increases risk of developing MS
Do not necessarily need to start DMT at time of RIS
Serial imaging surveillance is recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

MS Epidemiology

A

Most common cause of neurologic disability in young adults after trauma
Approximately 2.8 million people have MS worldwide
Onset often between 15-45 years of age
Female:Male = 3:1
Life expectancy is reduced by 7-14 years (narrowing in recent estimates)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Clinical features of MS

A

Clinical symptoms of MS are variable and result from involvement of sensory, motor, visual, and brainstem pathways
Most common disease course of MS is Relapsing Remitting MS (RRMS)
During disease course clinical episodes occur called “relapses”
Relapses are defined as episodes that last >24 hours and occur in absence of fever, infection, or clinical features of encephalopathy
Symptoms of a clinical attack typically have acute to subacute onset and reach peak severity within days to weeks, with recovery 2-4 weeks afterwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Optic neuritis in MS

A

First neurologic episode in about 25% of patients
About 70% of MS patients have optic neuritis during the course of the disease
Triad of:
Pain with extra-ocular eye movements
Dyschromatopsia (deficiency of color vision)
Partial or total visual loss in one eye with a central scotoma

If patient presents with optic neuritis, further evaluate with MRI!

37
Q

INO

A

Named for the eye with the adduction deficit

38
Q

Partial transverse myelitis in MS

A

Sensory symptoms are the first clinical manifestation in up to 43% of patients
Sensory symptoms may include: numbness, pins and needle sensation, tightness, “MS hug”
Motor symptoms are initial symptoms in 30-40% of patients with MS
Motor symptoms may include: paresis, spasticity, pyramidal signs (+Babinski, hyperreflexia), bowel/bladder dysfunction

39
Q

DIS locations

A

Cortical or juxtacortical (≥1 lesion)

Periventricular (≥1 lesion, unless the patient is over the age of 50 in which case it is advised to seek a higher number of lesions)

Infratentorial (≥1 lesion)

Spinal cord (≥1 lesion)

40
Q

Symptomatic and asymptomatic lesions in DIS/DIT

A

Both symptomatic and asymptomatic lesions can count towards t his

41
Q

+OCBs count towards

A

DIT

42
Q

Open ring sign

A

Ring opens where lesion touches grey matter
Enhancement is classic for demyelinating lesions, more commonly seen in tumefactive MS
Can also feature cystic changes

43
Q

MS pathology

A

Active lesions - relative axonal preservation and infiltration by macrophages
Acute active lesions - macrophages containing all stages of myelin degradation products; ill-defined margins
Chronic active lesions - macrophages at the edge of the plaque
Smoldering lesions - inactive center and rim of activated macrophages and microglia
Inactive Lesions - substantial axonal loss and completely demyelinated

44
Q

NMO

A

Presentation: Optic neuritis, paraparesis secondary to transverse myelitis, area postrema syndrome
Diagnostic criteria
1 core clinical feature: ON, TM≥3 segments, area postrema syndrome (unexplained hiccups + N/V), acute brainstem syndrome, symptomatic narcolepsy, or cerebral syndrome PLUS AQP4-IgG (against astrocytic foot processes at BBB)
2 clinical features with corresponding MR lesions separated in space. Must have 1: ON, TM, APS (dorsal medullary lesion).
Treatment:
Acute: Steroids, PLEX, IVIG
Chronic: 1) Rituximab, 2) Azathioprine + 6 month steroid taper. NOTE: MS therapies worsen NMO.
NEW THERAPIES: (1) Eculizumab (Complement 5) and (2) Tocilizumab (IL-6)
Worse than MS, less likely to have OCBs, higher WBCs.

45
Q

ADEM

A

Presentation: Often follows vaccine/viral illness in kids
Diagnostic Criteria
One multifocal CNS inflammatory event of WM + deep gray (BG) structures.
Encephalopathy not explained by fever, seizures or infections.
Brain MRI is abnormal in acute phase (3 months)
No new MR findings ≥3 months after onset.
Severe variant: acute hemorrhagic leukoencephalitis (Hurst disease)
Treatment:
Steroids
Typically monophasic, but multi-phasic form exists i.e. 2 attacks separated by 3 months
Prognosis: Complete recovery

46
Q
A

ADEM

47
Q

Susac syndrome

A

Triad of encephalopathy, hearing loss, vision loss (retinal branch occlusion)
MRI with corpus callosum lesions, but can be scattered throughout WM as well as leptomeningeal enhancement or deep GM (BG and thalamus) lesions
Thought to be from an autoimmune process against endothelial cells, not demyelination
Treatment:
Acute: Steroids, IVIG
Chronic: Azathioprine, mycophenolate, cyclophosphamide

48
Q

CADASIL

A

Characterized by:
Migraine headaches
Recurrent Strokes
Progressive focal neurologic deficits
Cognitive deficits
Psychiatric disturbances
MRI with lesions in anterior temporal lobes and external capsule
Caused by mutation in NOTCH 3 gene, chromosome 19
Treatment: Aspirin for stroke prevention, standard migraine therapies (NO triptans), Acetazolamide (Diamox)

49
Q

MOG-Antibody Associated Diseases

A

MOG=Myelin Oligodendrocyte Glycoprotein
MOG is a myelin glycoprotein exclusively expressed in the CNS
Antibodies have been found in a select group of patients with an acquired demyelinating syndrome and follow a NON-MS course
Classic Phenotypes : (1) ADEM, (2) ON, (3) TM, (4) Cortical Encephalitis
Classic MRI findings: (1) Large, ill-defined lesions, (2) extensive anterior optic nerve involvement with optic disc edema, (3) LTM with conus involvement, (4) Cortical involvement
CSF Findings: Pleocytosis with WBC>50, variable protein elevation, and negative OCBs
Disease course: Predominately monophasic course, though relapse can occur
Acute Treatment: IV steroids, PLEX, IVIG
For relapsing disease: (1) Rituximab, (2) Monthly IVIG, (3) Mycophenolate, (4) Azathioprine

50
Q

Anti-NMDA encephalitis

A

Cardinal clinical features include:
Change in behavior or cognition
Seizures
Orofacial dyskinesias
Autonomic instability
Can present with psychiatric symptoms in young

More than half of patients are found to have ovarian teratomas, early removal associated with better outcomes

EEG often shows “extreme delta brushes” (Rhythmic delta with superimposed beta)

Acute Treatment: Steroids, IVIG, plasmapheresis

Chronic Therapy: Rituximab

51
Q

MS epidemiology

A

Most patients with this disorder have onset between age 20 and 40, though age of onset ranges from early childhood to late adulthood. Women are affected more than men in a 2.3:1 ratio. It is more common further north and south from the equator, and more common in Caucasians. It occurs in about 1 in 1,000 people.

52
Q

MS relapse

A

A “relapse” is defined as an episode of new or worsened neurologic symptoms, lasting more than 24 hours, not due to fever or infection.

53
Q

PPMS

A

Primary progressive multiple sclerosis usually occurs in older patients. These patients have a gradually progressive course from onset and do not have relapses. They may have a lower burden of MRI lesions than do patients with RRMS.

54
Q

ADEM

A

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM) is an acute disorder, more common in childhood, and often occurs soon after an infection or vaccination. Patients with ADEM develop a severe disorder with multifocal demyelination in the brain and spinal cord (see discussion to questions 19 to 21).

55
Q

Fulminant MS

A

A rapidly progressive course with repeated relapses that are refractory to standard treatment.

56
Q

Prognosis RRMS

A

The prognosis for RRMS is better than most people expect. Various studies have shown a good prognosis over 10 years in a representative population without treatment. However, neurologic examination shows abnormalities after 10 years of disease in most patients. The diagnosis of benign multiple sclerosis is a retrospective one after 15 to 20 years of disease without measurable disability and cannot be reliably predicted.

This occurs in approximately 10% to 20% of patients with multiple sclerosis. Pregnancy does not affect the overall course of multiple sclerosis. _Most patients with RRMS will not progress to wheelchair status withi_n 10 years.

57
Q

Optic neuritis - treatment

A

This patient has optic neuritis. The results of a large randomized double-blind treatment trial for acute optic neuritis compared intravenous methylprednisolone with prednisone taper, oral prednisone taper, and placebo. This study showed that recovery was hastened by intravenous methylprednisolone with oral prednisone taper, but visual outcome at 1 year was not significantly affected. Oral steroids were at best no better than placebo, and possibly worse.

In the Optic Neuropathy Treatment Trial, patients with visual acuity of 20/50 or better did not measurably benefit from intravenous steroids treatment.

58
Q

Optic neuritis - prognosis

A

In about 80% of patients with acute optic neuritis, recovery occurs over 2 to 6 weeks. This may be incomplete. Over a 15-year period after an episode of optic neuritis, multiple sclerosis occurs in about 50% of cases.

Factors that increase the risk of multiple sclerosis developing include the presence of brain MRI lesions consistent with demyelination and abnormal CSF findings. If there are one or more well-defined demyelinating lesions on MRI, the risk of multiple sclerosis goes from about 20% in 5 years to approximately 80% over 5 years.

59
Q

Treatment of MS relapse

A

Intravenous methylprednisolone is usually given as a dose of 1,000 mg daily for 3 to 5 days, with an oral steroid taper, and is the treatment of choice for acute relapses. Other options include other forms of steroids, different dosing or duration of taper, not using a tapering dose, and oral high-dose steroids. The goal of treatment is to reduce the functional deficit and increase the speedy recovery of function.

60
Q

Risk of MS

A

Multiple sclerosis is more prevalent the further north or south of the equator one lives. The cause for this has not been established. Moving after the age of 12 does not seem to alter this risk.

However, various epidemiologic studies suggest a link between vitamin D levels and multiple sclerosis, with lower vitamin D levels being correlated with higher risk of multiple sclerosis

61
Q

MS pathology

A

Lymphocytes enter the CNS from the periphery. There are focal areas of demyelination (plaques) with glial cell infiltration and inflammatory cell accumulation. Macrophages are present in the core of the plaques. Areas of remyelination can be seen (“shadow plaques”). Oligodendroglial cells are reduced in the plaque core and increased at the periphery.

White matter is typically affected in multiple sclerosis; myelin is removed from around axons, and early in lesion formation, axons are also injured and measurably transected.

62
Q

WBC elevation in MS

A

White cells can be elevated in the CSF in multiple sclerosis. Usually, there is a predominance of lymphocytes and no more than 50 cells/mm3.

A neutrophilic predominance should suggest an alternative diagnosis - bacterial meningitis>NMO

63
Q

Tumefactive MS

A

Tumefactive multiple sclerosis appears to be a subform of relapsing multiple sclerosis with large, mass-like lesions. These often have incomplete peripheral enhancement, showing the “open-ring sign,” which is suggestive of this pathology. Patients may improve with intravenous steroids but, on occasion, may require other immunologic treatment such as plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulin

64
Q

NMO pathology

A

Histologically, focal areas of demyelination are seen with significant leukocyte infiltration and some areas of frank necrosis and cavitation. There may be nearly complete axon loss within lesions. There are antibodies, neuromyelitis optica immunoglobulin G (NMO-IgG), that bind selectively to the aquaporin-4 water channel. This is a component of the dystroglycan-protein complex located in astrocytic foot processes at the blood–brain barrier.

65
Q

Treatment of NMO

A

Devic’s disease progresses with relapses, but does not tend to progress in between relapses. It can have a monophasic or relapsing course. It is often severe. It can exhibit a spinal form. Relapses are frequently severe and may not recover completely. Treatment is urgent in relapses of Devic’s disease and many of the deficits do not resolve completely. Interferon β does not seem to be effective in Devic’s disease. There are no data on the use of natalizumab in Devic’s disease. Medicines that have been used anecdotally include steroids, azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, rituximab, and other immunosuppressants. For acute exacerbations, IV steroids or plasmapheresis can be used.

66
Q

A`DEM

A

ADEM is usually a monophasic syndrome often occurring after an infection or vaccination. It is a multifocal demyelinating syndrome with large lesions that can be peripheral and may involve the basal ganglia. CSF may show a pleocytosis, but usually does not show oligoclonal bands. Patients are often febrile and encephalopathic. It may leave residual deficits.

First-line treatment for ADEM is intravenous methylprednisolone. All treatment recommendations are anecdotal. Treatment consists of initial intravenous methylprednisolone and if this fails, a trial of plasmapheresis. There is no indication for antibacterial or antiviral agents to treat this condition.

67
Q

ADEM

A

ADEM is usually a monophasic syndrome often occurring after an infection or vaccination. It is a multifocal demyelinating syndrome with large lesions that can be peripheral and may involve the basal ganglia. CSF may show a pleocytosis, but usually does not show oligoclonal bands. Patients are often febrile and encephalopathic. It may leave residual deficits.

First-line treatment for ADEM is intravenous methylprednisolone. All treatment recommendations are anecdotal. Treatment consists of initial intravenous methylprednisolone and if this fails, a trial of plasmapheresis. There is no indication for antibacterial or antiviral agents to treat this condition.

68
Q

Weston Hurst

A

The hemorrhagic leukoencephalopathy of Weston Hurst is a severe immune-mediated encephalopathy with areas of hemorrhage often in the temporal lobes. It may be a subform of ADEM.

69
Q

Balo’s concentric sclerosis

A

Balo’s concentric sclerosis refers to a progressive demyelinating disorder in which concentric rings of demyelination are seen either pathologically or on MRI.

70
Q

Risk of PML with Natalizumab

A

There is an approximately 1 in 1,000 risk of developing progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) in patients on natalizumab. The risk appears to be higher with prior or additional immunosuppressing medicines and after 2 years of continuous use. Patients with positive serum JC virus antibodies are at even higher risk.

71
Q

MS and pregnancy

A

Pregnancy does not change the course of multiple sclerosis appreciably. Like other women contemplating pregnancy, patients should be on prenatal vitamins with folic acid. There are no specific issues in the conduct of pregnancy and patients can have an epidural anesthetic and can have a regular delivery or Cesarean section as needed obstetrically. Steroids can be used during pregnancy though should be limited as much as possible and preferably should not be given in the first trimester. Interferons (category C in pregnancy) should be stopped at least 1 month before conception. Glatiramer acetate is category B in pregnancy, but it is usually stopped before conception. Women with multiple sclerosis tend to have fewer exacerbations during pregnancy and more in the first 6 months after delivery (see Chapter 16). Breast- feeding may be protective against exacerbations.

Children of women with multiple sclerosis have a 3% to 5% lifetime chance of developing multiple sclerosis.

71
Q

Risk of PML with Natalizumab

A

There is an approximately 1 in 1,000 risk of developing progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) in patients on natalizumab. The risk appears to be higher with prior or additional immunosuppressing medicines and after 2 years of continuous use. Patients with positive serum JC virus antibodies are at even higher risk.

71
Q

Risk of PML with Natalizumab

A

There is an approximately 1 in 1,000 risk of developing progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) in patients on natalizumab. The risk appears to be higher with prior or additional immunosuppressing medicines and after 2 years of continuous use. Patients with positive serum JC virus antibodies are at even higher risk.

Treatment for PML in this population includes stopping natalizumab as soon as there is a suspicion of PML, checking JC virus PCR, and beginning plasmapheresis to clear residual natalizumab more rapidly from the system.

72
Q

Transverse myelitis

A

Transverse myelitis is a term used for patients with a subacute onset of myelopathy, which appears to have an immunologic basis. It may occur after a viral illness, Mycoplasma infection, or
vaccination, but is often not preceded by an illness. Symptoms include paresthesias and sensory deficit often ascending to a specific level, weakness, back pain, and bowel and bladder dysfunction.

73
Q

Uhthoff’s phenomena

A

_This is Uhthoff’s phenomenon, in which transient symptoms are elicited by heat or exercise. I_n this patient, it manifests as blurring of vision with exercise due to impaired conduction in an optic nerve that has had demyelinating injury.

74
Q

Lhermitte’s sign

A

Lhermitte’s sign is electrical sensations in the body with neck flexion.

75
Q

The useless hand of Oppenheim

A

The useless hand of Oppenheim can be seen with a relapse of multiple sclerosis where the hand can be moved but is perceived as useless by the patient.

76
Q

Pulfrich’s sign

A

Pulfrich’s sign refers to a visual phenomenon where patients have trouble following moving objects visually, and lateral motion in the field of vision is perceived as having a depth component.

77
Q

LGI1

A

LGI1 is a protein associated with the voltage-gated potassium channel. It is one of the ion channel or cell surface protein–associated antibody syndromes recently defined. The seizure activity described is characteristic of this cell surface antibody syndrome, and is known as faciobrachial dystonic seizures. It does not respond to antiepileptic medicines but is very responsive to immune therapy. Patients may develop a limbic encephalitis with behavioral and memory changes. There may be abnormal imaging findings (MRI or PET) in the hippocampal regions especially in the setting of cognitive dysfunction; however, MRI may be unremarkable. CSF may be unrevealing.

78
Q

MS relapse

A

Episodes of neurological worsening or new symptoms in MS not due to fever or infection, and lasting >24 hours

79
Q

Dawson’s fingers

A

Finger-like extensions of demyelination and inflammation extending rostrally from the corpus callosum in MS

80
Q

Lhermitte’s sign

A

Electrical sensations down the neck, back, or limbs with neck flexion. Often related to demyelinating in cervical sign.

81
Q

Uhthoff’s phenomenon

A

Transient symptoms elicited with heat or exercise

82
Q

INO

A

Due to disorder in MLF common in MS. With a right INO, on left gaze, cannot adduct right eye with left eye abduction nystagmus. Can be bilateral.

83
Q

Balo’s concentric sclerosis

A

Form of demyelination with concentric sclerosis, may appear as onion skin lesion son MRI

84
Q

Devic’s disease

A

Also known as NMO, neuromyelitis optic immunoglobulin G to aquaporin-4

85
Q

Useless hand of Oppenheim

A

Because of sensory deafferentation where the hand feels useless with otherwise normal function

86
Q

Pulfrich’s phenomenon

A

Visual phenomenon where patients have trouble following moving objects visually and lateral movement in the field of vision is perceived as having a depth component