MRCP Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

Which autoantibodies are associated with limited systemic sclerosis (CREST)?

A

anti-centromere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which antibodies are associated with dermatomyositis?

A

ANA (60%)

Anti-Mi-2 (25%) - more specific than ANA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe T scores and what they signify

A

> -1.0: normal

-1 to -2.5: osteopenia (lifestyle modifications)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is a Z score used?

A

In younger patients to assess their bone mineral density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe mechanism of action of bisphosphonates

A

Decreased osteoclastic bone resorption and increased osteoclastic apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Method of action of allopurinol

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Earliest x-ray finding in ank spond?

A

Blurring of the upper and/or lower vertebral rims at the thoracolumnar junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What osteoporosis prevention is offered to people on LT steroid therapy?

A

Alendronic acid, calcium carbonate and vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ank spond symptoms remain uncontrolled by 2 NSAIDS - next step

A

anti-TNF eg adalimumab, etanercept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Autoantibodies associated with diffuse systemic sclerosis

A

Anti-Scl-70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which anti-TB drug is most likely to cause raised serum urea and therefore gout?

A

Pyrazinamide

ethambutol also raises serum urea but to a lesser extent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Autoantibodies associated with polymyositis

A

ANA (33%)

Anti-Jo-1 (more commonly seen in patient who also have pulmonary fibrosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Best investigation for confirming diagnosis of polymyositis or dermatomyositis?

A

Muscle biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the most common pulmonary manifestations of SLE?

A

Pleurisy and pleural effusions (often bilateral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which typically comes first in psoriasis - rash or arthritis?

A

Rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HLA type associated with Felty’s syndrome

A

HLA-DRW4

17
Q

Biochemical evidence of ACTIVE SLE

A

Low complement
Raised anti-dsDNA
Rising ESR
Falling Hb/WCC/platelets

18
Q

Cause of vision loss in GCA

A

Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy

19
Q

Episcleritis vs scleritis

A

Episcleritis - gritty, red eyes. Visual acuity preserved. Self-limiting.
Scleritis - very painful (esp when moving), red eyes. Watering, photophobia, decreased vision. Requires systemic treatment.

20
Q

Red hot swollen joint with meniscal calcification on x-ray

A

Pseudogout (calcium pyrophosphate)

21
Q

HLA type most commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis

A

HLA-DR4

22
Q

Most common reason for hyperuricaemia in gout?

A

Decreased renal excretion (around 90% of cases)

Only 10% is increased dietary intake

23
Q

All patients with lupus nephritis regardless of stage should receive which drug?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

Stage III/IV require immunosuppression with steroids + cyclophosphamide/mycophenolate mofetil

24
Q

Most common site affected by Paget’s disease

A

Spine, esp lumbar

25
Q

Commonest abnormality of renal biopsy in EGPA (ie Churg-Strauss)

A

Necrotising glomerulonephritis

26
Q

Generalised joint pains, high fever (spiking at night), rash

A

Adult onset Stills disease

May also have hepatosplenomegaly
Bloods: v high ferritin. autoantibody negative

27
Q

First line treatment for psoriatic arthritis

A

Methotrexate

Treat as for RA

28
Q

How long after acute gout flare can urate lowering therapy be commenced?

A

2 weeks

29
Q

PMR vs polymyositis symptoms

A

PMR - stiffness & pain/ache (only 50y+)

Polymyositis - stiffness & WEAKNESS. NO pain

30
Q

Positive Schirmers test

A

<5mm in 5min signifies defective tear production

31
Q

Test for monitoring disease activity in Paget’s disease

A

6-12 monthly alk phos levels (aim is to normalise bone turnover)

32
Q

Haemochromatosis is associated with PSEUDOGOUT

A

yes it is!

33
Q

Rescue medication to counteract the effects of accidental methotrexate overdose

A

Calcium folinate (folinic acid)