MRCP Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Thyroid cancer diagnosed by…

A

Fine needle aspiration of thyroid nodule

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2
Q

Small cell lung cancer paraneoplastic syndromes

A

SMAA

ADH
ACTH

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3
Q

Squamous cell lung ca paraneoplastic syndrome

A

PTH

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4
Q

Bronchial carcinoma paraneoplastic syndrome

A

Carcinoid syndrome

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5
Q

Which lung cancer is not associated with smoking

A

Adenocarcinoma

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6
Q

What is the most common deaths due to cancer in men top 3

A
  1. lung
  2. prostate
  3. colon
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7
Q

What is the most common deaths due to cancer in women top 3

A
  1. lung
  2. breast
  3. colon
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8
Q

Which rheumatological condition is associated with cancer

A

dermatomyositis

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9
Q

What is the management of bladder cancer

A

No metastasis (local no lymph node/muscle invasion)
- TURBT with single mytomicin C
- Follow up cystoscopy in 3 and 12 months

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10
Q

Which cancer is hep B/C associated with

A

HCC

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11
Q
A
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12
Q

facial swelling,
distended neck vein,
upper limb oedema,
distended veins in anterior chest wall

A

SVC obstruction due to lung cancer

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13
Q

What is MESNA (sodium 2-mercapto ethanesulfonate)

A

detoxify urotoxic chemotherapy
- ifosfamide
- cyclophosphamide

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14
Q

NF type 2 bilateral cancer…

A

acoustic neuroma

chr 22

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15
Q

Neutropenic sepsis

A

fever
low BP
tachycardia

urgent abx and cultures

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16
Q

Which leukaemia is assocaited with RAR alfa mutation on Chr 17

A
  • acute pro-myelocytic leukaemia (AML subtype)
  • translocation between chr 15 and 17
  • forms PML-RAR alfa –> block myeloid differentiation
  • treat with all trans retinoic acid (ATRA)
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17
Q

Virus and cancer associations

A

EBV- burkitt and hodgkins
Hep B- HCC
HHV-8 - kaposi
HPV 16,18 - cervical, anal, oropharyngeal
Human T lymphocyte - leukaemia

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18
Q

What mutation if papillary thyroid carcinoma associated with

A

RET prto-ongogene for tyrosine kinase mutation

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19
Q

testicular lump, CXR mass, raised beta hcg

A

testicular seminoma

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20
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome hallmarks

A

treatment of high grade lymphoma and leukaemia
triggered by R-CHOP combination
- breakdown of tumour cells –> release cell content –> high potassium high phosphate low calcium

Present: AKI, high phosphate, high uric acid

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21
Q

What medication lowers incidence of Tumour lysis syndrome

A

allopurinol

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22
Q

Lung cancer with back pain and bilateral leg weakness suddenly,…

A

spinal cord compression due to spinal mets

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23
Q

what are negative acute phase proteins
- decreases during inflammation

A

albumin
transferrin
antithrombin

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24
Q

Which cancers are tyrosine kinase inhibitors effective in?

A
  1. CML (philadelphia chromosome 9:22, BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor)
  2. GIST - kit inhibitor

imatinib

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25
Q

Myeloma blood test shows…

A

anaemia
thrombocytopenia
high IgG
monoclonal bands on electrophoresis
hypercalcaemia

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26
Q

Transitional cell tumours associated with…

A

smoking
rubber/chemical industry
phenacetin

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27
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma bladder cancer

A

schistosomiasis chronic inflammation

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28
Q

Courvoisier’s law

malignant obstruction below level of cystic duct-> palpable distended GB

A

a painless, enlarged gallbladder with jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstones

more likely to be caused by a malignant obstruction of the bile duct, such as pancreatic cancer or bile duct cancer

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29
Q

monoclonal ab against CD20 example

A

rituximab

  • used in CLL
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30
Q

itchy and tender acanthosis nigracans associated with…

A

malignancy

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31
Q

What is the action of imatinib

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitor

in GIST- KIT inhibitor for stem cell

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32
Q

First line investigation for women >50 with ascites, palpable mass in iliac fossa and raised CA125

A

US abdo pelvis —> CT staging and biopsy

?ovarian cancer

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33
Q

Ovarian cancer symptoms

A

abdo distension
early satiety bloating
frequent UTI
weight loss
palpable abdo mass

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34
Q

Thyroid cancer epidemiology

A

Papillary (80-85%) - papillary popular
follicular (5-10%) - followed by…
medullary rare
anaplastic rare

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35
Q

Which thyroid cancer produced calcitonin

A

medullary

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36
Q

Which serum marker gives early detection of recurrent papillary and follicular thyroid cancer

A

thyroglobulin

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37
Q

Phase 1-4 of human trial

A

1- human toxicity
2- efficacy of drug
3- compare to current drug
4- long term toxicity

38
Q

first line treatment for symptoms for carcinoid syndrome

A

octreotide

somatostatin analogue blocks 5-HT

39
Q

Bone mets blood film

A

leucoerythroblastic blood film
- immature RBC

40
Q

MSCC treatment

A

dexamethasone

41
Q

Pancost tumour

A

pain in shoulder
brachial plexus involved
weakness and atrophy of hand
Horner syndrome
hoarsness
T1-2 cord compression

42
Q

Syringomyelia

A

weakness and wasting of upper limb
loss of sensation of pain
sparing touch and proprioception
areflexia in arms
spastic paraparesis
cape pattern

43
Q

Investigation for myeloma

A

First:
- serum electrophoresis
- urine electrophoresis (bence protein)
- serum free light chains (paraprotein)

Note: bone marrow biopsy needed if above -ve to confirm monoclonal plasma cells

44
Q

Cryoglobinaemia hallmarks

A

raynauds in type 1
underlying lymphoma
cryoglobulin precipitate when serum incubated at 4 degrees
raynaud symptoms in cold due to precipitation

45
Q

Osmotic fragility test…

A

hereditary spherocytosis

46
Q

Cerebral mets with oedema management

A

dexamethasone
+/- IV mannitol to reduce cerebral oedema

47
Q

Best diagnostic test for CLL

A

flow cytometry

  • analyse cell surface markers on leukocytes aka B clonal cells
  • non invasive method
48
Q

Common site of neuroendocrine tumour

A

ileum

carcinoid tumour –> serotonin

49
Q

What is the most important thing about screening cancer method

A

clinically effective and cost effective method of early treatment

50
Q

Febrile neutrophilia commonest organism

A

staph epidermidis
strep viridans

51
Q

Treatment of choice for SVCO

A

radiotherapy

52
Q

Clear cell renal adenocarcinoma

A

hypernephroma causing left varicocele

Triad:
haematuria
loin pain
abdo mass

53
Q

Why is left varicocele seen

A

compression of left renal vein (drains)

54
Q

Platelet transfusion in unwell patient

A

aim plt above 20

55
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma hallmarks

A

B cell lymphoma

EBV related
translocation (8;14)
results in c-myc protooncogene transposition
leading to dysregulated cell proliferation

STARRY SKY appearance (macrophage phagocytosin cell debris and apoptotic cells scattered)

56
Q

Anaplastic thryoid cancer sequelae

A

rarest
cervical lymph node mets in 90%
lung mets and tracheal deviation
VERY POOR PROGNOSIS
UPPER AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION

57
Q

What is residual tumour classification for colon cancer

A

RX - cannot assess
R0- no residual tumour
R1- microscopic residual
R2- macroscopic residual

58
Q

TNM stands for

A

tumour size
lymph node
metastasis

59
Q

Treatment for resectable oesophageal cancer

A

chemo preop
then surgery

stent if dysphagic.

60
Q

Cellcycle

A

G0 - rest
G1- ready to divide
S - DNA copied
G2 - just before mitosis
M - mitosis

Note: chemotherapy does not affect G0 phase

61
Q

Prolactinoma management

A

medical management with cabergoline/bromocriptine

surgical if significant mass effect or refractory case

62
Q

Most common cancers with bone mets

A

bronchial
breast
prostate

63
Q

Which Tumour marker is sensitive to bronchial carcinoid

A

chromogranin A

Note: neuron specific enolase also seen

65
Q

Risk factors for oesophageal adenocarcinoma

A

GORD (strongest)
Obesity
Barrett’s
Smoking
Poor Diet

66
Q

Oesophageal cancer location

A

Adenocarcinoma:
Lower third - near the gastroesophageal junction

SCC:
Upper two-thirds of the oesophagus

67
Q

Risk factor for oesophageal SCC

A

smoking
alcohol
achalasia
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
diets rich in nitrosamines

68
Q

SCC skin hallmarks

A

scaly crusty skin
red inflamed base
UV exposed areas
areas of bowmen disease/chronic leg ulcer
risk: immunosuppression/organ transplant
metastasis via lymphatic channels

69
Q

Anti yo associated with…

A

breast/ovarian/endometrial/fallopian ca
- paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration
- tumour express protein triggering autoimmune rx
- dysarthria, ataxia, nystagmus

70
Q

Anti hu associated with…

A

small cell lung cancer

71
Q

First line treatment for hodgkins lymphoma

A

combines chemo and radiotherapy
- ABVD
(adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine, decarbazine)

72
Q

MEN 1 genetics

A

autosomal dominant

  • pituitary
  • parathyroid
  • pancreas
73
Q

When is CEA useful

A

post op surveillance

74
Q

HCC hallmarks

A

most common primary hepatic tumour
more common in asia and africa due to hep B/C/aflotoxin
AFP tumour marker

75
Q

Most rapidly progressing lung cancer

A

small cell lung cancer

76
Q

Mechanism of action of cisplatin

A

cross linking in DNA

side effects:
- nephrotoxic
- neurotoxic
- ototoxic
- low Mg K Ca

77
Q

HCC tumour size amenable to liver transplant

A

<5 CM
<3 CM X 3
No extrahepatic or major vessel

78
Q

Chemotherapy for colorectal cancer

A

FOLFOX and FOLFIRI
folic
flurouracil
oxaliplatin

79
Q

apple green bifringence under polarised light after congo red staining

A

myltiple myeloma

80
Q

Small cell lung cancer chemotherapy

A

cisplatin
etoposide

81
Q

Non small cell lung cancer chemotherapy

A

Carboplatin
paclitaxel

82
Q

CA 153

A

Breast cancer

83
Q

Renal tumour management

A

partial or total nephrectomy

tumour <7cm - partial

84
Q

Neurological paraneoplastic disease

A

encephalistis
myelopathy
neuropathy
myopathy
cerebellar degeneration
eaton lambert syndrome

85
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes

A

Paraneoplastic neutrophilia
SIADH
dermatomyositis
acanthosis nigracans
polycythaemia
PUO

86
Q

Aromatic amines cause…

A

Bladder cancer

87
Q

Best investigation for bone metastasuis

A

Bone scintigraphy

88
Q

Reed steinburg is associated with..

A

Hodgkins disease

89
Q

Dukes criteria for colorectal cancer

A

Stage A
- confined to bowel

Stage B
- full thickness of bowel wall into serosa

Stage C
- spread to tumour to draining lymph nodes

Stage D
- distant spread primarily to liver

90
Q

Colorectal stage D management

A

5-FU with folinic acid

91
Q

HNPCC (lynch) sydrome associated with…

A

CEO

colorectal
endometrial
ovarian