MRCP Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

In New LBBB: what are the first and second heart sounds like?

A

First soft

Second- reversed splitting (pulmonary valve closes before aortic valve due to delay in depol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is paradoxical embolism (crossed embolism), and what are the consequences?

A

when venous clot enters arterial side or vice versa. (DVT to stroke)

through patent foramen ovale.

bubble TTE ECHO would diagnose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does S4 heart sound indicate?

A

Non compliant stiff ventricle and pressure overload (HFPEF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Thiazide side effects?

A

Exacerbate hyperglycaemia
low sodium and potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the symptoms and consequences of Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

Changas disease

spread by blood sucking bugs

acute:
fever, myalgia, hepatosplenomegaly, myocarditis

consequence:
dilated heart, oesophagus and colon -> heart failure

romana sign- periorbital swelling and oedema from bite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Absolute contraindication of thrombolytic treatment

A
  • active bleed
  • recent head trauma <2 wks
  • known intracranial cancer
  • hx of stroke <2months ago
  • uncontrolled HTN >200/120
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the HS like in severe aortic stenosis?

A

Quieting of second HS = severe due to immobile valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the HS like in aortic stenosis?

A

soft first HS
reverse splitting of second HS in LVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the pathophysiology of WPW?

A

atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT)

narrow complex with anterograde through AVN and retrograde through accessory pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens when WPW syndrome develop AF?

A

VF (broad QRS- SVT with aberrancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Patients on life long warfarin requiring dental procedure- what is target INR?

A

INR<4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens to the S2 heart sound in RBBB?

A

Wide physiological splitting S2

Persistent in both inspiration and expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are 3 indications of temporary pacing?

A

symptomatic bradycardia (failed atropine)

complete heart block at risk of haemodynamic compromise (and prior to surgery)

suppression of tachyarrhythmia not amenable to drug therapy (enable overdrive pacing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What 5 indications for permanent pacemaker

A

CHB
Drug resistant tachyarrhythmia
mobitz type 2
persistent AV block post MI
sick sinus syndrome
sinus pause >3s
trifascicular block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the order of NNT for drugs prolonging survival post MI?

A

ACEi > statin > aspirin > beta blocker

ASAB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the auscultation sound you would hear for complete heart block?

A

variable intensity of first heart sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where does atrial myxoma originate from 75% of the time?

A

left atrium (interatrial septum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the murmur like in atrial myxoma?

A

Diastolic murmur changing in character with position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does S3 heart sound indicate?

A

Rapid Diastolic filling
Fluid overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which coronary artery is blocked in anterior MI?

A

LAD - left ANTERIOR descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which coronary artery is blocked in inferior MI?

A

right coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which coronary artery is blocked in lateral MI?

A

Left CIRCUMFLEX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How should you take out a person in cold water drowning?

A

pull out and leave prone position to prevent venous pooling and circulatory collapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why does isometric handgrip exercise accentuates mitral regurgitation?

A

due to increased BP and afterload hence increased backflow murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the problem in Young patient with high BP, and reduced renal function…

A

Renal artery stenosis can cause secondary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the causes of constrictive pericarditis

  • inflammation (chronic)
A

Any cause of pericarditis
Particularly TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus

A

when breathing in BP dropping by >10mmHg.

due to stiff heart, blood fills the right side, right bulges and presses on left, hence reduced left stroke volume and BP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the JVP waveforms (AxCx’Vy)

A

Atria contracts

x- reLAX atria

Closed tricuspid (as ventricle contract against)

x’ - reverse heart (passive filling ofatria)

Venous filling maxed out against closed tricuspid

y (tricuspid valve forced open and passive ventricular filling from atria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In constrictive pericarditis what happens to JVP waveform?

A

more prominent x and y

(as atria and ventrical are stiff hence early diastolic filling - imagine thick elastic band going back to original shape)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is pleural rub commonly associated with?

A

PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is pericardial rub associated with?

A

pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is systolic click associated with?

A

mitral valve prolapse

also in pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does paradoxical embolism occur in PFO?

A

right atrium to left atrium shunt on valsava (straining/diving) causing venous content to enter arterial content.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Complications of MI?

A

Death
Arrhythmia
Rupture (free ventricular wall/ ventricular septum/ papillary muscles)
Tamponade
Heart failure (acute or chronic)
Valve disease
Aneurysm of ventricle
Dressler’s syndrome- autoimmune pericarditis (months later)
thromboEmbolism (mural thrombus)
Recurrence/ mitral Regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What duration should patient be anticoagulated (warfarin) pre and post cardioversion for AF?

A

3 WEEKS PRE
4 WEEKS POST

target INR 2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Management of SVT

A

DC cardiovert if haemodynamically compromised

Non-pharm
- vagal manoeuvre

Pharm
- IV adenosine (CI in asthma)/verapamil

Prevention of episodes:
- betablocker/flecainide
- ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If stroke with AF, what is the long term management?

A

Anticoagulation (not clopidogrel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the common causes of pericarditis?

A

Coxackie
TB
Uraemia
MI
- days fibrous
- months dressler (autoimmune)
Radiotherapy
Hypothyroidism
Connective tissue (SLE/RA)
Cancer
Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which coronary artery occlusion is associated with complete heart block?

A

proximal right coronary (supplies AVN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which coronary artery occlusion is associated with first degree AV block and wenckebach type 1?

A

Distal right coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What causes loud first heart sound?

A

Opening snap in mitral stenosis (mobile valve)

atriventricular valve lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is soft first heart sound indicative of?

A

immobile mitral stenosis
hypodynamic state
mitral regurgitation
long PR interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is splitting S1 indicative of?

A

RBBB
LBBB
VT
Ebstein’s anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is variable S1 indicative of?

A

AF
CHB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is loud S2 indicative of?

A

HTN
Tachycardia
ASD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is soft/absent S2 indicative of?

A

severe AS (due to calcified immobile valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is fixed splitting S2 indicative of?

A

ASD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the causes of wide split S2?

A

RBBB
deep inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is revered split S2 indicative of?

A

LBBB
AS
HOCM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the first and second line management for stable angina?

A

Initial: GTN spray
First: beta blocker or CCB (nondihydro)
Second: Nicorandil/ISMN/Ranolazine/ivabradine (if monotherapy BB/CCB fail)

if a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used
if used in combination with a beta-blocker then use a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (e.g. amlodipine, modified-release nifedipine)

51
Q

What is the advantage of continuous loop recorder?

A

Picking up arrythmia without pattern or triggers (will catch it during symptoms)

52
Q

What does IRREGULAR cannon a waves on JVP indicate?

A

CHB

Note:
atria contracting on closed tricuspid valve.

53
Q

What changes in JVP waveform in Tricuspid regurgitation?

A

**Giant v wave **
- as c and v combine to produce

**Loss of x wave **
(due to loss of downward movement of tricuspid valve annulus during ventricular systole)

Prominent y descent
- tricuspid opens early on ventricular filling

54
Q

What condition causes absent a wave in jvp?

A

AF due to uncoordinated atrial contraction

55
Q

Caused of large A waves on JVP

A

large if atrial pressure
tricuspid stenosis
pulmonary stenosis
pulmonary hypertension

56
Q

What suggests cardiogenic syncope?

A

sudden LOC without prodrome or during exercise

57
Q

What is the first and second commonest cardiovascular abnormality in adult Marfan’s?

A
  1. Aortic root dilatation
  2. mitral valve prolapse

(fibrillen gene defect in tunica media hence weakened from pressure)

58
Q

What is wolff chaikoff effect?

A

transient inhibition of thyroid hormone production due to high iodine levels.

59
Q

Why should you perform a thyroid radionuclide isotope scan prior to cardiac catheterisation?

A

iodine contrast may worsen hyperthyroidism in toxic multinodular goitre but improve in Grave’s due to Wolff chaikoff.

60
Q

What is acrocyanosis a sign of and complication of what?

A

cholesterol embolism (blue big toe)
Complication of MI- angio/surgical valvular procedure.

61
Q

What part of conduction system does vagal manoeuvres help?

A

AVN but not distal conducting system`

Slows AVN

62
Q

What part of conduction system does atropine worsen?

A

Block in His-Purkinje system

63
Q

What is trifasicular block?

A

bifascivular block with 1st degree HB

64
Q

What is bifascicular block?

A

RBBB+ left anterior (LAD)/posterior fascicular block (RAD)

65
Q

What is the management for asymptomatic pericardial effusion?

A

reassure and monitor if no haemodynamic compromise (even if large effusion)

66
Q

Which medications are associated with improved mortality from cardiovascular disease?

A

ACEi
BB
Spironolactone
nitrate and hydralazine

67
Q

When do you see jerky bisferiens pulse?

A

HOCM - collapsing pulse followed by secondary rise

68
Q

What is the difference between critical stenosis vs complete occlusion of coronary arteries?

A

critical stenosis T wave inv
complete occlusion ST elev

69
Q

What is QRISK?

A

risk of developing cardiovascular disease in 10 years (up to age 82)

if >10% start statin

70
Q

When is RBBB seen

A

can be physiological
Pathological in ASD/PE

71
Q

When is LBBB seen

A

ALWAYS PATHOLOGICAL

72
Q

What is the commonest cause of cardiac arrest outside the hospital?

73
Q

What social drug history is important in chest pain ACS?

A

Cocaine abuse as cause cause vasocontriction/atheroma rupture/dissection

BB contraindicated in cocaine use

74
Q

Patient with myaesthenia gravis, HF and new AF which rate control is preferred?

A

DIGOXIN

bisoprolol worsen muscle weakness
diltiazem may worsen cardiac failure

75
Q

Outline management of shockable cardiac arrest
pulseless VT/VF

A

Chest compressions
30:2 compression to ventilation

Shock asap
- BACK TO BACK X3 shock if VF seen on monitor

Single shock given -> then resume 2min of CPR (back to chest)
unsynchronized defibrillation at 120 - 200 J as soon as identified.

Adrenaline 1mg once CPR restarted after third shock
Repeat adrenaline every 3-5min

Amiodarone 300mg once CPR restarted after third shock
Repeat 150mg if still in VT/VF after five shocks

76
Q

What arrhythmia shows shortened PR and inferior Q waves, but no wide QRS/delta wave?

A

Lown Ganong Levine (LGL)

accessory pathway connecting atria to bundle of His (by passing AVN)

77
Q

Ouline the management for vasospastic angina?

A

CCB first line
ISMN alternative or combination

78
Q

Which murmurs become louder in pregnancy?

A

stenosis and ASD murmurs are louder
Due to increased blood volume and cardiac output

79
Q

Which murmur becomes quieter in pregnancy?

A

Aortic regurgitation
(regurgitations)

80
Q

What is the defibrillator joules for cardiac arrest- pulseless VT/VF

A

Biphasic 150-200 J unsynchronised
Monophasic 360 J

81
Q

What does new RBBB , with raised JVP?

A

PE causing right heart strain.

82
Q

Treatment for Ventricular arrhythmias unresponsive to amiodarone

A

lidocaine
CI in HF

CI in HF

83
Q

What are normal physiological changes in pregnancy?

A

drop in diastolic BP by 10mmHg in 2nd trimester

increase in cardiac output by 50%

tachycardia

pulmonary systolic murmur from high flow

physiologic S3

84
Q

Which valve is most anterior of the human heart?

A

Pulmonary > mitral >aortic

left sided valves are more posterior

85
Q

What coronary artery is occluded in right ventricular MI?

A

right coronary artery hence causing inferior wall MI

86
Q

What is the difference between WPW type A and WPW type B?

A

Type A:
- short PR, delta wave, wide QRS
- normal QT
- Tall R wave in V1

Type B:
- As above
- Deep S wave in V1

RABS (A=R wave, B=S wave)

87
Q

Which thrombolytic agent is associated with minimum risk of haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Streptokinase (IV infusion over 1hr)

88
Q

Which phase of pregnancy are pregnant women at greatest risk of DVT?

A

First 6 weeks after delivery.

89
Q

Which papillary muscle is most likely to rupture, and what are their blood supplies?

A

Posteromedial > anterolateral

posteriomedial is supplied by right coronary artery only

anterolateral supplied by LAD and left Cx

90
Q

What is the investigation of choice for irregular palpitations (pAF)?

A

72hr holter

91
Q

Which valvular lesion is ankylosing spondylitis associated with?

A

Aortic regurgitation

Aortitis -> aortic root dilatation -> AR

92
Q

What are the signs of aortic regurgitation?

A

Collapsing pulse
Wide pulse pressure
Corrigan’s - neck pulsation
De Musset- head nodding
Quincke - nail bed pulsation
Duroziez - diastolic murmur proximal to femoral artery compresison
Early diastolic murmur left sternal edge (exp)

Severity: presence of collapsing pulse, wide PP, pulmonary oedema.

93
Q

Which medication should be avoided in HOCM and AS?

A

ACEI and GTN- reduced afterload and worsen outflow

94
Q

What are the absolute contraindications for carotid sinus massage?

A

MI
TIA/CVA in last 3 months
carotid artery occlusion (bruit)
previous VT/VF

95
Q

What is haemodynamic compromise in PE?

A

Systolic <90 mmHg
>40 mmHg drop for >15 min

96
Q

Why is coronary angio done before valve replacement?

A

to assess the need for concomitant CABG.

97
Q

Compare signs and symptoms of AS and HOCM

A

HOCM pulse is jerky

Valsalva increases HOCM murmur, but decreases in AS

Sudden death in HOCM during or after exercise.

98
Q

What is mid systolic click syndrome?

A

mitral valve prolapse and recurrent non cardiac chest pain.

XS stress on papillary muscle-> ischemia and CP -> but no coronary disease

Standing/valsalva manoeuvre -> ventricular volume gets smaller -> click and murmur occur earlier in systole

99
Q

Describe ECG waveform with heart sounds

A

R wave: first heart sound

P wave: pathological S4

S wave: between S1 and S2

T wave: between S2 and pathological (except young and athletes) S3

U wave: follow T wave (Showing repolarisation of purkinje)

100
Q

Which medication has prognostic benefit for HF?

A

Betablocker and ACEi

101
Q

Which procedure needs abx prophylaxis for IE in high risk patients?

A

Permanent pacemaker insertion

102
Q

Which patients are deemed high risk of endocarditis requiring prophylactic abx?

A

acquired valvular heart disease
valve replacement
structural congenital heart disease including surgically corrected
previous IE
HOCM

103
Q

Which procedure does no longer need abx prophylaxis for IE?

A

dental procedure

104
Q

What is the treatment for multifocal atrial tachycardia?

A

CCB (Verapamil or diltiazem)

suppress atrial rate hence reduce conduction through AVN.

105
Q

How should ACEi and ARB be uptitrated?

A

Intervals of 2 weeks or more
Reduce dose if creatinine increases >30% or eGFR reduced >25% or K+ > 6

106
Q

What are the ECHO findings of myocarditis?

A

dilated hypokinetic chambers
segmental wall motion abnormalities

107
Q

What is the BP difference in both arms associated with?

A
  1. Coarctation of aorta if proximal to left subclavian artery (lower limb BP lower)
  2. Aortic dissection
  3. Peripheral vascular disease (>15mmHg diff)
  4. Subclavian steal syndrome (dizzy painter)
108
Q

What happens if a patient fails a Bruce protocol

A

Refer for CT angio

109
Q

How does statin work?

A

inhibit 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase in liver

110
Q

What cholesterol level and above would primary prevention with statin be of benefit?

A

> 4 mmol/L

111
Q

Hypertension target:

A

<80 - 140/90

> 80 - 150/90

T2DM or HF - 135/85

112
Q

What is the mechanism of action for clopidogrel?

A

Irreversible blocking of ADP receptor

113
Q

What is the mechanism of action for ticagrelor?

A

Reversible blocking of ADP receptor (P2Y12)

114
Q

What is the mechanism of action of LMWH (clexane/dalteparin)

A

Potentiates anti-thrombin 3

115
Q

Which cyanotic heart disease require prostaglandin to keep the PDA open?

A

Tricuspid atresia

116
Q

What does Q wave indicate on ECG?

A

Full thickness scarring

117
Q

What is the mechanism of action of digoxin?

A

inhibit cardiac Na/K ATPase

118
Q

What is the INR range for mechanical aortic valve?

119
Q

Which congenital conditions are associated with coarctation of aorta?

A

Turner’s
Williams

120
Q

What is J point depression and what does it signify?

A

Physiological response to high HR

121
Q

Which medication should not be taken with sildenafil?

A

Nicorandil due to fatal drop in BP

122
Q

What is sildenafil used in? (phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitor

A

Erectile dysfunction
Pulmonary Hypertension

123
Q

Describe COX 1 and COX 2 with examples

A

COX 1 - naproxen (increased risk of bleed)
Mixed - ibuprofen
COX 2 - Celecoxib (increased risk of thrombus)

124
Q

Which clotting factors are vitamin K dependent