MRCP Infectious disease Flashcards

1
Q

Measles hallmarks

A

Podrome:
koplik spots (buccal white)
fever
conjunctivitis
cough

Followed by:
Rash behind ear or face spreading down

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2
Q

Features of primary syphillis

A

chancre - painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact -

local non-tender lymphadenopathy

often not seen in women (the lesion may be on the cervix)

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3
Q

Features of secondary syphillis

Secondary syphilis mneumonic: TWO
Trunk rash, warts, oral ulcers

A

systemic symptoms: fevers, lymphadenopathy

symmetrical rash on trunk, palms and soles

buccal ‘snail track’ ulcers (30%)

rash may become condylomata lata (painless, warty lesions on the genitalia )

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4
Q

Features of tertiary syphillis

A

gummas (granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones)

ascending aortic aneurysms

general paralysis of the insane

tabes dorsalis

Argyll-Robertson pupil

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5
Q

TB sputum MCS

A

Zeihl neelson stain for AFB

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6
Q

Why is primaquine and chloroquine given in plasmodium VIVAX and OVALE

A

Primaquine
- clears hypnozites

Chloroquine
- treating symptomatic erythrocytic stage of malaria (anaemia and swining fever)

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7
Q

Organism causing IE in IVDU

A

Staph aureus

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8
Q

IVDU and new TR

A

endocarditis

TR- PSM + giant CV waves in JVP

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9
Q

Antibiotics that cause c.diff

A

CLINDAMYCIN
CIPROFLOXACIN
CARBAPENEM
Cephalosporins
CO-AMOX

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10
Q

Chancre

A

painless ulcer on site of sex

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11
Q

When should ART be started and prophylaxis for PCP

A

ART as soon as possible

PCP prophylaxis when CD4 <200

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12
Q

Strongyloides hallmark

A

nematode
rash on buttock
eosinophilia
abdo pain
diarrhoea
urticaria

Mx: ivermectin or albendazole

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13
Q

Actinomyosis hallmarks

A

fungal infection (anaerobic)
endogenous flora
from tooth extraction
lumpy jaw
sulfur granules

prolonged amoxicillin

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14
Q

Nocardiasis hallmarks

difficult to differentiate from actinomyoces spp

A

Gram-positive filamentous rod
paraffin bait to culture
- uses as carbon source for growth
painless swelling —> ulceration
Mx: cotrimoxazole

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15
Q

oocytes on ZN Stain

A

Cryptosporidium HIV related diarrhoea

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16
Q

Dengue fever hallmarks

A

Flavivirus
Mosquito transmission

generalised maculopapular rash
low plt and wcc
fever

viral infection that can progress to viral haemorrhagic fever

BREAK BONE FEVER

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17
Q

Warning signs of dengue and management

A

abdominal pain
hepatomegaly
persistent vomiting
clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion)

Mx: supportive

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18
Q

What is loeffler syndrome

A

Strongyloide larvae migrate to the lungs a pneumonitis

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19
Q

when is co-trimoxazole used

A

PCP in HIV

Cyclospora cayetanensis
(traveller diarrhoea)

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20
Q

How long would HIV becomes AIDS if left untreated

A

10 years

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21
Q

What is the tirad of HUS and what is the diagnostic method

A

E.coli 0157 SHIGA TOXIN

  1. AKI
  2. MAHA (coombs+shistocyte fragment RBC)
  3. Thrombocytopenia

Stool MCS for e.coli

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22
Q

Diagnosis and management of MAC

A

blood cultures

mx:
Mycobacterium
Azithromycin
Clarithromycin

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23
Q

dendritic corneal ulcer

A

HSV keratitis

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24
Q

Which RBC receptor does malaria vivax bind to?

A

Duffy

note: people with lack of this receptor are resistant to vivax infection

note: people with sickle, thalassaemia and G6PD are resistant to malaria

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25
Q

First line treatment for toxoplasmosis

A

pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine and folic acid

note: pyrimethamine is folate antagonist

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26
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vancomycin

A

prevents formation synthesis of polymers for bacterial cell wall

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27
Q

What is the mechanism of action of gentamicin

A

binds irreversibly to ribosome subunit preventing protein synthesis

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28
Q

Mechanism of action of metronidazole

A

causes oxidative damage to bacterial DNA

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29
Q

M

Mechanism of action of macrolide and clindamycin

A

inhibitrs ribosomal translocation

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30
Q

What is the adverse reaction of vancomycin

A

red man syndrome

flushing of face neck torso

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31
Q

What cancers are HPV 16 and 18 associated with

A

cervical
anal

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32
Q

Which antibiotic should be added on top of ceftriaxone for listeria meningitis?

A

Amoxicillin/ampicillin

over 60 or immunosuppressed

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33
Q

Which virus causes viral meningitis (school teacher)

A

enterovirus species

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34
Q

What is the most effective way in reducing risk of HIV in newborn child

A

post natal zidovudine to the baby

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35
Q

Anopheles mosquito

A

malaria

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36
Q

Aedes mosquito

A

dengue
yellow fever
zika

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37
Q

Orienta tsutsugamushi causes

A

scrub typhus

causes eschar on bite site
fever, headache, joint pain
lymphadenopathy localised

tick (Chigger) bite. campers in australia

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38
Q

Key travel related infection

A

Haemorrhagic fever
Rickettsial
Lyme
HIV
Typhoid
Dengue

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39
Q

Main sub saharan african infections

A

plasmodium falciparum
HIV
rickettsia
ebola

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40
Q

Main south asian infection

A

falciparum, vivax and ovale
dengue
typhoid (salmonella)
HIV

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41
Q

Tetanus hallmarks

A

acute neurological
- muscle spasm
- autonomic dysfunction

Due to neurotoxin from c.tetani bacteria

urgent anti-tetanus immunoglobulin !!!

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42
Q

Typhoid fever hallmarks

A

fever
bradycardia
rose spots (macularpapular rash on chest and abdo)
GI bleed from ulcered peyer’s patch in ileum
abdo pain
—-> hepatosplenomegaly

Mx: IV ceftriaxone

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43
Q

Diptheria management

A

ANTITOXIN

+ + macrolide/benpen

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44
Q

Side effect of tenofovir

A

kidney disease

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45
Q

COPD/immunocomprosed vaccination

A

yearly influenza
pneumococcal 5 yearly

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46
Q

Brucellosis hallmark

Bruisedddd Bruce

A

Zoonosis: Brucella spp

farm animal/unpasteurised milk

FARMERS!!!

Presentation:
ache and pain
fever
weight loss
depression
hepatosplenomegaly
LYMPHADENOPATHY

Mx:
- doxy and rifampicin for 6 weeks
- and aminoglycoside for 2 weeks

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47
Q

Management of brucella

A

doxycycline
rifampicin
gent/cotrimox

triple therapy for 6 weeks

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48
Q

Malaria prophylaxis drug

A

doxycycline
malarone
primaquine

Note: give malarone in epileptic as others reduces seizure threshold

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49
Q

Investigation of choice to confirm new HIV

A

ELISA for HIV antibody and p24 antigen test

note: PCR is for viral load in monitroing

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50
Q

Abx of choice for ?meningitis in over 60 years and penicillin allergy

A

chloramphenicol
with co-trimoxazole

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51
Q

What does increasing PR interval suggest in infective endocarditis

A

uncontrolled infection
need urgent surgery

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52
Q

Incubation periods for common organisms

A

1-6 hrs: Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus
12-48 hrs: Salmonella, Escherichia coli
48-72 hrs: Shigella, Campylobacter
> 7 days: Giardiasis, Amoebiasis

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53
Q

Catch scratch disease

A

Baronella henselae

cat scratch or bite

lymphadenopathy
self limiting

tame hensel cat

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54
Q

Chlamydia serotypes

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2 and L3
- proctocolitis

‘Normal’ Chlamydia resulting in urethritis and pelvic inflammatory disease is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars D through K.

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55
Q

Epidemic typhus

A

Rickettsia prowazekii
measle like eruption
rural poor hygiene

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56
Q

Salmonella typhi organism type

A

gram -ve rod

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57
Q

What is the way to contract strongyloides

A

soil indwelling

walking barefooted is risk

vague abdo pain, eosinophilia, malabsorption

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58
Q
A
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59
Q

What defines treatment failure of MDRTB?

A

positive cultures after 4 months of therapy

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60
Q

Salmonella vs Shigella food

A

Salmonella- meat/egg/poultry

Shigella-faeco-oral i.e street fruit etc

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61
Q

Botulism

A

eating contaminated food (e.g. tinned) or intravenous drug use

neurotoxin (exotoxin) often affects bulbar muscles and autonomic nervous system

triad: blurred vision, dysphagia, muscle weakness

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62
Q

Neisseria meningitidis grams stain

A

gram -ve cocci

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63
Q

Listeria meningitis gram stain

A

gram +ve rod

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64
Q

strep pneumonia meningitis gram stain

A

gram -ve cocci

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65
Q

EBV hallmarks

A

glandular fever/mononucleois

fever, pharyngitis, tender LN

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66
Q

Parvovirus B19 hallmark

A

slapped cheek
children

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67
Q

Mumps hallmarks

A

epididymo-orchitis
meningism

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68
Q

Rubella hallmarks

A

maculopapular rash from face to whole body
lymphadenopathy: suboccipital and postauricular

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69
Q

Life cycle of malaria

A

hypnozoites- dormant liver stage of vivax and ovale -> relapse
priaquine and chloroquine given for vivax and ovale to eradiate hypnozoite and prevent relapse

note: falciparum treatment: fansidar (pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine) or tetracycline given after quinine therapy

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70
Q

Pre or Post Splenectomy immunisation

4-6 weeks or 2 weeks

A

pneumococcal vaccine
haemophilus ingluenzae B
Meningococcus

risk of encapsulated sepsis

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71
Q

Management of cryptospordium in HIV patients and non HIV patients

A

HIV: start ART

Non HIV: supportive

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72
Q

Which live vaccine should be avoided in HIV patients

A

BCG - risk of TB

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73
Q

Chronic diarrhoea, weight loss, arthralgia, hyperpigmentation of skin

A

Whipple’s

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74
Q

Side effect of NNRTI

A

wide spread rash
hepatitis
night night (vivid dreams)

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75
Q

Side effect of NRTI

A

lipoatrophy

B RAMP

Bone marrow supp
Rash
Acidosis
Megaloblastic anaemia (zdv)
Peripheral neuropathy
Pancreatitits

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76
Q

Which statin is preferred in hyperlipidaemia in HIV patients

A

pravastatin (not CYP450 dependent)

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77
Q

What is the test for contact tracing for TB exposure

A

mantoux

screen for latent TB

78
Q

When is IGRA test used

A

if mantoux test is +ve
for active TB

79
Q

What are the symptoms of seroconversion of HIV

point at which the body produces antibodies to HIV

A

fever
malaise
lymphadenopathy
generalised rash

80
Q

Eikenella corrodens gram stain

A

gram -ve rod

81
Q

What is the cause of multiorgan complication of diptheria

A

bacterial exotoxin

82
Q

Dermatophyte that produces microconidia (spores)

A

Trichophyton spp

athlete’s foot

83
Q

Vector for african trypanosomiasis

A

tsetse fly

84
Q

Hallmark leishmania (visceral and cutaneous)

A

sandflies
days to months incubation
- erythematous nodule bite site
- golden crust forms

Cutaneous
- skin biopsy
- treat with sodium stilbogluconate

Visceral (kala-azar)
- bone marrow/lymph node/splenic biopsy
- treat with amphotericin B, sodium stilbogluconate

85
Q

Side effect of protease inhibitors

A

HIL
hyperlipidaemia/hyperglycaemia
gI intolerance
lypodystrophy

especially ritonavir

note: rifampicin decreases PI concentration

86
Q

Side effect of integrase inhibitor

A

nausea
diarrhoea
headache

Hypercholesterolaemia

87
Q

Encapsulated bacteria

A

NHS

neisseria
haemophilus
strep

88
Q

penile ulcers

A

Painful
- Chancroid (thailand sex worker) - gram neg rod
- HSV (multiple ulcer + tender LN + recurrence) - no growth on gram stain

Painless
- syphillis (single ulcer)
- LGV (regional LN)
- granuloma inguinale (donovanosis) - painless spreading friable ulcer

89
Q

Treatment for acute epididymo-orchitis

A

> 35 and not STI (enteric cause)
- olfloxacin first line

<35 and STI cause
- ceftriaxone

90
Q

Legionella hallmarks

A

hyponatraemia
deranged LFT
diarrhoea

91
Q

Malaria prophylaxis in epileptic

A

give malarone

92
Q

ALA (amoebic liver abscess) treatment

due to entamoeba histolytica

A

metronidazole or tinidazole

93
Q

Hantavirus endemic in…

A

south korea
scandinavia

hanta hangook

94
Q

HIV - FBC abnormalities

A

Normocytic anaemia
Thrombocytopenia
Macrocytosis with ART

95
Q

Prophylaxis for meningococcus contact

A

cipro first line

alternative: azithromycin

96
Q

Management for gonorrhoea

A

IM ceftriaxone single dose
alternative:
- PO cefixime and azithromycin

97
Q

Management for chlamydia

A

doxycycline

alternative:
azithromycin or erythromycin

Note: doxy and olfloxacin CI in pregnancy

98
Q

HIV oesophageal candidiasis management

A

PO fluconazole 14 days

99
Q

How does early viral meningitis differ from late presentation

A

early may be polymorphic
late is lymphocytic

100
Q

Listeria meningitits

A

Lymphocytic

101
Q

Partially treated bacterial meningitis…

A

present with lymphocytic meningitis

102
Q

What is low CSF glucose

A

<60% of serum

103
Q

Treatment of TB meningitis

A

RIPE + streptomycin

like MDRTB

NOTE: ZN stain may be -ve in CSF due to small amount

104
Q

Parvovirus 19 in adults seen in…

A

sickle cell anaemia

symmetrical polyarthritis
aplastic crisis

105
Q

Treatment for dengue

A

supportive

106
Q

How does hep B serology differ between recovered hep B vs hep B carrier

A

hep B carrier still has surface ANTIGEN

Both has hep B core IgG

107
Q

Management of EBV

A

supportive

avoid contact sport in first month due to risk of splenic rupture

108
Q

Treatment of toxoplasmosis

A

if pregnant/newborn/immunocompro

pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine

108
Q

CMV transmission by..

A

direct bodily fluid
transfusion
transplant
immunocompromised

109
Q

Adult bacterial meningitis caused by…

A

neisseria
strep pneumonia

110
Q

Meningococcal meningitis caused by..

A

neisseria meningitides

111
Q

how should deranged LFT in anti TB treatment be managed

A

stop RIPE

once LFT normalised re-introduce in order of IRP

112
Q

What does strep pyogenes cause

A

cellulitis
nec fasc

113
Q

Chronic hep B management with decomp CLD

114
Q

Leprosy hallmark

A

Mycobacterium leprae
granulomatous of peripheral nerve
Sensory loss–> burns
skin biopsy: multiple acide alcohol fast bascilli
Mx: rifampicin, dapsone, clofazimine

115
Q

How is Toxoplasma contracted

A

cat faeces

116
Q

How is cryptococcus contracted

A

bird faeces

117
Q

Cryptococcal meningitis management…

A

amphotericin B with fluconazole

118
Q

Brucella gram stain

A

-ve coccobacilli

119
Q

Cholera hallmarks

A

sudden onset
profuse diarrhoea
rice water stool
shell fish/contaminated water

120
Q

Most common cause of treatment failure in HIV

A

pooor compliance

121
Q

In needle stick injury with patient infected with hep C…

A

monthly hep C PCR surveillance

if positive then treat with inteferon

122
Q

pneumocytis jirovecii pneumonia hallmarks

A

IVDU/HIV
lymphopenia
high LDH
desat on exertion
ELEVATED 1,3 BDG (from cell wall)
CXR- bilateral interstitial shadowing

123
Q

Hep C hallmarks

A

HIV and alcohol associated

Ix:
- hep C antibody
- HCV PCR
- Genotype 1->4
- US if fibrosis seen
- fibroscan/biopsy

treatment:
- protease inhibitors (e.g. daclatasvir + sofosbuvir or sofosbuvir + simeprevir) with or without ribavirin are used

used to be IFN/peg IFN

124
Q

What is a complication of PCP

A

pneumothorax

126
Q

immunised hep B vs previous infection

A

vaccination: hep B surface antibody present but no core antibody

127
Q

What should be checked prior to primaquine treatment

A

screen for G6PD

risk of haemolysis with primaquine

128
Q

Malaria treatment

A

Severe falviparum/nonfalciparum
- IV artesunate

Non severe disease:
- oral ACT or chloroquine

129
Q

Percentage of untreated syphillis going onto tertiary syphillis

130
Q

Treatment of syphillis

A

STAT IM benzathine penicillin for primary

131
Q

Management of tropical sprue

A

tetracycline

(target bacterial overgrowth)

132
Q

Management for ESBL- ECOLI

133
Q

Teicoplanin affective against…

134
Q

Investigation of choice for tertiary neurosyphillis

A

TPPA (may be positive in yaws too)
VDRL test (non treponeme specific test)
- marker of disease activity

LP and syphillis serology

135
Q

Isolation protocol for MDRTB

A

negative pressure isolation room
- limit droplet spread

136
Q

EBV and cancer associations

A

nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Gastric cancer

136
Q

Menongococcal meningitis community SOS treatment

137
Q

When should steroid be given in meningitis

A

pneumococcal meningitis

138
Q

Shigella mode of transmission

A

person to person
bloody diarrhoea in nursery

139
Q

How long does TB bacteria take to double in numbers

140
Q

Tapeworm management

A

proglottids in faeces
Mx: niclosamide

141
Q

Ricketssial infection hallmarks

A
  1. Rocky mountain spotted fever
    - rickettsia rickettsii
    - USA
  2. mediterranean spotted fever
    - Rickettsi corni
  3. scrub typhus
    - Orienta tsutsugamushi
  4. african tick bite fever
    - rickettsia africae from africa

Sx: rash, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, eschar —> regional lymphadenopathy due to draining eschar
Mx: doxycycline

Mx: doxycycline

142
Q

Needle stick injury with HIV +ve patient

A

1 month of 3 ART

143
Q

What should be monitored whilst on IV quinine for severe falciparum

A

BM

(insulin release causing hypoglycaemia)

143
Q

Management of hep A

A

supportive
self limiting

144
Q

Lyme disease investigation

A

no need if classical target lesion and evidence of tick bite

If unsure—> ELISA

145
Q

P.vivax prevalent countries

A

sub saharan
central america
india

146
Q

p.ovale prevalent country

A

sub saharan africa

147
Q

Severe loiasis management

A

note: severe case —> albendazole (as DEC may trigger encephalitis)

148
Q

When is mebendazole indicated

A

pinworm
whipworm
roundworm
hookworm

149
Q

Thick and thin blood film

A

Thick: parasite burden
Thin: identify parasite

150
Q

Hallmark of malarial fevers

A

swining intermittent

151
Q

TB isolation rule

A

Pulmonary TB
Smear positive most infective
Likely/confirmed MDRTB

152
Q

Cerebral malaria is associated with…

A

falciparum
blackwater fefver- haemolysis, dark urine

153
Q

Anti-malaria prophylaxis…

A

still presents with risk of malaria infection

154
Q

Ancylostoma braziliense hookwork hallmarks

A

barefoot beach visits or direct soil contact.
moving skin rash
itchy

155
Q

Abx of choice for MRSA cellulitis

A

Vancomycin

or

teicoplanin

156
Q

CMV encephalitis treatment

A

Ganciclovir

157
Q

Bacillus cereus

A

cereal (Rice based dishes)
D+V within 8 hrs of eating
resolve in 1-2 days

158
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Cold agglutinin
erythema multiforme
dry cough

159
Q

What is the most common side effect of ribavirin for chronic hep c

160
Q

Ascariasis hallmarks

A

Ascaris lumbricoides
eggs hatch in small intestine
larvae enter liver to heart and lungs–> back to digestive tract where they mature into adult worm

Sx: asthma like symptoms

161
Q

Myconic keratitis

A

Fungal infection of eye
associated with trauma

ulceration in cornea

Antifungals- amphotericin B, itraconazole, natamycin

162
Q

Cause of hairy leukoplakia in HIV

163
Q

Which malaria prophylaxis can cause acute psychosis

A

mefloquine

164
Q

Rabies hallmarks

A

dog and bat bite

Presentation:
encephalitis
hallucination and confusion
hydrophobia (DOES NOT WANT WATER)

Mx:
- if already immunised: for 2 further vaccine
- if not immunised: for immunoglobulin and full vaccination

165
Q

Campylobacter from…

A

contaminated CHICKEN

CC

166
Q

Which vaccine is not a live vaccine

167
Q

CMV hallmarks

A

presents similar to EBV
in severe- pneumonitis, colitis, retinitis

168
Q

Investigation for cryptococcal stain

A

india ink stain

169
Q

Treatment for adult chicken pox

A

present within 72 hrs of onset of rash:
- oral aciclovir
- if severe then IV

171
Q

Where should you swab for gonorrhoea

A

mucosal site of symptoms

172
Q

HIV entry to cell

A

binds to CD4 primary receptor via gp120
with help of co-receptor CCR5

173
Q

Pregnant mum exposed to chicken pox

A

Urgent IgG
If -ve give VZIG

174
Q

Tropical sprue hallmarks

A

chronic diarrhoea
malabsorption
travel to tropics
steatorrhoea

175
Q

Animal bite

176
Q

Hepatitis vaccines

177
Q

Severe cellulitis management in penicillin allergy

A

Clindamycin

178
Q

Cause of hyatid disease (pulmonary and liver cyst)

A

Echinococcus granulosus

179
Q

Yellow fever hallmarks

A

viral haemorrhagic fever (also dengue fever, Lassa fever, Ebola).
zoonotic infection: spread by Aedes mosquitos
incubation period = 2 - 14 days
- mild flu-like illness lasting less than one week
- if severe jaundice, haematemesis may occur

180
Q

Staph aureus gram stain

A

coagulase positive
gram positive coccus in clusters

181
Q

Hep A presentation

A

bout of intense diarrhoea that resolves

then jaundice, nausea anorexia

182
Q

Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome in HIV and TB

A

Active TB patients who are immunocompromised -> no symptoms
HIV started on ART -> boost immune -> exaggerated response
also associated with cryptococcus and kaposi

Mx: steroids

183
Q

What is klebsiella granulomatis associated with

A

granuloma inguinale

184
Q

Treatment for Rickettsia

A

Doxycycline

Pregnant: chloramphenicol

185
Q

Chance of contracting HIV from needle stick

A

1/300 chance

186
Q

How does clarithromycin affect INR

A

increases INR as alters warfarin

187
Q

Prosthetic joint replacement septic arthritis causes…

A

early infection- s.aureus
chronic delayed- s.epidermidis

188
Q

Hand foot and mouth disease

A

coxackie virus
type 16
self limiting
kindergarden teacher