MRCP Endo Flashcards

1
Q

Which sex hormone is responsible for ovulation induction?

A

Luteinising hormone

Can be seen by rise in progesterone level

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2
Q

What is Kallmann syndrome?

A

Isolated GnRH deficiency (Xlinked)
Associated anosmia and hypogonadism

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3
Q

What is hypokalaemic periodic paralysis?

A

channelopathy caused by skeletal muscle ion channel mutations, mainly affecting calcium or sodium channels.

praoxysmal weakess due to hypokalaemia

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4
Q

When do you see raised gonadotrophins (FSH/LH)?

A

primary ovarian failure

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5
Q

What is non-functioning adenoma?

A

Does not produce hormones, just large enough to compress nearby structures

Headache,
bitemporal hemianopia,
pituitary insufficiency

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6
Q

What blood test differentiates between exogenous and endogenous insulin causing hypoglycaemia?

A

Exogenous- low c-peptide
Endogenous- high c-peptide

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7
Q

When do you see low FSH and LH

A

Hypothalamic anemorrhoea

anorexia/stress/excessive exercise

shut down for survival

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8
Q

How should you dose adjust thyroxine?

A

Guided by TSH levels

Adjust every 4-8 weeks.

(TSH lag behind T4)

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9
Q

What is the mode of imaging to determine the volume of thyroid gland?

A

Ultrasound

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10
Q

When is glucose tolerance test used?

A

Diabetes
Acromegaly

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11
Q

What is the causes of secondary hypoparathyroidism?

A

Damage to parathyroid glands during thyroid surgery

DiGeorge

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12
Q

What are the 4 stages of Hypertensive retinopathy

A

I = Tortuous (one word)
II = AV nipping (two words)
III = cotton wool spots (three words)
IV = papilloedema is the worst (four words lol)

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13
Q

What is branch retinal vein occlusion?

A

segmental haemorrhage

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14
Q

What is the mechanism of action of levonogestrel in emergency contraception?

A

Delay ovulation

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15
Q

Outline management of thyroid storm

A

Life threatening thyrotoxicosis with systemic failure.

beta blocker (IV propanolol)
antithyroid drug (propylthiouracil)
inorganic iodide
steroid (dexamethasone to block T4->T3)
cooling
volume resus
respiratory support in ITU

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16
Q

What is the biochemical finding in PCOS?

A

Low SHBG hence free testosterone

Rise in LH : FSH (3 : 1 ratio)

Rise in testosterone and DHEA

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17
Q

What is DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Microdeletion on Chr 22

Thymic hypoplasia,
cardiac defect (ToF)
LD
hypoparathyroidism-> hypocalcaemia

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18
Q

What cardiac complication is hypothyroidism associated with?

A

Pericardial effusion

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19
Q

What is the order of puberty in girls

A

Boobs
Pubes
Grow
Flow

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20
Q

What is the order of puberty in boys

A

Grapes
Drapes
Grow
Flow

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21
Q

What is likely to occur with oestrogen only pill?

A

breakthrough bleed

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22
Q

What drugs cause SIADH?

SIADH Cannot Void

A

SSRI
Indomethacin
Antidepressant TCA
Diuretic thiazide
Haloperidol

Carbamazepine
Cyclophosphamide

Vincristine

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23
Q

What cranial cancer can cause craniopharygioma

A

Diabetes insipidus

inferior quadratanopia

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24
Q

Other than cough, what side effect is ACEi associate with?

A

Angioedema

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25
Q

Which 3 compounds contribute to ketosis in DKA? (ABA)

A

Acetone (pear drop)
Beta-hydroxybutyrate -> can linger after 36 hr
Acetoacetic acid

Acetone and acetoacetic acid fall after 36hr

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26
Q

What is charcot arthropathy?

A

Diabetic neuropathic arthropathy- trauma to foot -> exaggerated local inflammatory response -> osteoarthropathy

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27
Q

Outline conservative management for diabetic retinopathy

A
  1. optimise glycaemic control slowly
  2. optimise BP and lipids
  3. Annual eye exam
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28
Q

What is Albright’s hereditary osteodystrophy?

A

Autosomal dominant, G protein defect-> PTH resistance -> pseudohypoparathyroisim

short stature
brachydactyly
soft tissue calcification
hypocalcaemia
high PTH

All bright people are fake

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29
Q

What is the most common side effect of oestrogen treatment (HRT)

A

Breast tenderness
Bloating
Nausea

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30
Q

Drop in which hormone is causes shedding of endometrium?

A

Progesterone as corpus luteum dies

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31
Q

Post partum thyroiditis is more likely in patients with which antibody?

A

anti-TPO ab pre pregnancy

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32
Q

What is Sturge Weber syndrome

A

Vascular disorder in brain and eye abnormal

  1. Epilepsy
  2. Birth mark: Port wine naevus on face

a/w phaeochromocytoma

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33
Q

What medication is beneficial for HF, CKD, and T2DM?

A

ACEi (even if normotensive)

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34
Q

Which male sex hormone is associated with pubic hair growth?

A

Dihydrotestosterone

DHT

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35
Q

What is VIPoma?

A

Vasoactive intestinal peptide -> chronic diarrhoea and hypokalaemia and normal anion gap

aka pancreatic cholera syndrome

Neuroendocrine tumour

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36
Q

Outline management for hyperthyroidism?

A

Medical:
Carbimazole (monitor FBC and LFT)
- risk of agranulocytosis

Beta blockers for palpitations

Pregnant women:
Propylthiouracil in early pregnancy
- switch to carbimazole in later preg due to hepatotoxicity maternal

Surgical:
Radioactive iodine treatment- if high uptake

Subtotal/total thryoidectomy (failed meds/radioiodine)
- pregnant women if medical fail
- risk of hypothyroidism hypoparathyroidism, vocal cord paralysis

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37
Q

Which gene is associated with T1DM?

A

HLA-DR3

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38
Q

What does high 17-hydroxyprogesterone indicate?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Presents with:
primary amenorrhoea
hyperandrogenism
cliteromegaly

Manage:
1. glucocorticoid replacement to reduce ACTH and minimise adrenal androgen
2. fludrocortisone if deficient
3. flutamide (anti-androgen)

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39
Q

What are the 3 types of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

21- hydroxylase: 1 at back only so: no HTN, only virilisation

11-hydroxylase: 1 in both front and back- so both HTN and virilisation

17 hydroxylase - only 1 in front- so only HTN,no virilisation

Mnemonic : 1 in front- HTN. 1 at back- virilisation

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40
Q

Which cytokine causes hypercalcaemia in myeloma?

A

Osteoclast (clear) activating cytokine

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41
Q

What 3 features are associated with neurofibromatosis type 1?

A

cafe au lait spots
axillary freckling
cutaneous neurofibromas

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42
Q

What is von Hippel Lindau syndrome

A

Predispose to cancer:
phaeochromocytoma
haemagioblastoma (bleed)
renal cell carcinoma
pancreatic tumour

autosomal dominant- abdormal VHL gene on Chr 3

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43
Q

What causes lid retraction and lag in thyrotoxicosis?

A

sympathetic overactivity

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44
Q

What are the features seen in Grave’s only?

A

exopthalmos
pretibial myxoedema
thyroid acropathy

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45
Q

Which hormones are anterior pituitary responsible for?

A

GH
Prolactin
TSH
ACTH
FSH/LH

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46
Q

Which hormones are posterior pituitary responsible for?

A

Vasopressin
Oxytocin
ADH

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47
Q

What is carney complex?

A

Autosomal dominant mutation inactivating protein kinase A on Chr 17.

Present with predispose to cancer:
spotting skin pigmentation
myxoma
endocrine tumour
melanotic schwannoma

48
Q

What is the most common pituitary tumour?

A

Prolactinomas

49
Q

What is the management of DKA

A

First: IVF to reduce acidosis
FRII

50
Q

What risks are associated with HRT?

A

Breast cancer
Heart disease
VTE
Stroke
Endometrial cancer

51
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of lipid synthesis and how lipoprotein lipase deficiency/apoC2 deficiency cause hyperlipoproteinaemia

A
  1. dietary triglyceride in cholesterol packed in GI cell into chylomicrons
  2. secreted into GI lymph into circulation
  3. chylomicron bind to lipoprotein lipase
  4. apolipoprotein C2 in chylomicrons activate lipoprotein lipase to liberate free fatty acid which enter fat/muscle cells
  5. therefore inactive lipoprotein lipase/apo C2 would cause accumulation of chylomicron
52
Q

Which hormones are elevated in anorexia?

A

Cortisol
Cholesterol

53
Q

What does beta hcg do to thyroid function in normal pregnancy?

A

First trimester- can see suppression of TSH due to beta hCG.

54
Q

What is the sick day rule for addisons?

A

double glucocorticoid dose

55
Q

What is glucagonoma?

A

pancreatic alpha cell tumour
impaired glucose tolerance as increases sugar levels.

skin rash- necrotic migratory erythema
normocytic anaemia

56
Q

Why does cushing’s present with hypokalaemia?

A

Because glucocorticoid can act on mineralocorticoid receptor

57
Q

What is IV pentagastrin test?

A

Inject pentagastrin -> measure calcitonin

Medullary thyroid carcinoma (HIGH)

58
Q

What is c-peptide

A

by product of proinsulin -> c-peptide and active insulin

59
Q

Outline management of secondary hyperparathyroidism:

A

Phosphate binders (1-alpha calcidol)
Vit D and calcium

60
Q

Pancreatic cells and hormones:

A

Alpha: glucagon
Beta: insulin
Delta: somatostatin

61
Q

What is thyrotoxicosis factitia?

A

Exogenous excess intake of thyroid hormone

decreased uptake on scitigraphy
raised T4

62
Q

How do you treat papillary and follicular thyroid cancer?

A

Total thyroidectomr
Then radioiodine to kill residual
Thyroxine replacement

63
Q

Which part of the nephron does ADH act on?

A

Cortical and medullary collecting tubules (increased aquaporin 2 expression)

64
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tamoxifen?

A

Tamoxifen is a Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) which acts as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist.

breast: antagonist
uterus: agonist (risk of cancer)

65
Q

When is radioiodine treatment not recommended for Graves?

A

Thyroid eye disease may worsen

66
Q

Outline DVLA law for diabetics on insulin

A

ensure no severe hypos in last 1 year

must have hypoglycaemic awareness

can drive as long as stable BM control

67
Q

How does hypothalamic anemorrhoea occur?

A

weight loss -> increase ghrelin -> inhibit HPA axis -> slow GnRH pulse -> therefore low LH/FSH -> low oestrogen -> osteoporosis

68
Q

At what TSH level should you replace thyroxine?

A

> 10 mU/l or if very symptomatic with +ve antibodies

69
Q

Which gliptin is associated with heart failure?

A

Saxagliptin

70
Q

Symptoms of klinefelter syndrome (XXY)?

A

tall
gynacomastia
small testicular vol (<12 ml)
infertility.

Need chromosomal analysis (karyotype)

71
Q

What does high ALP and mixed lytic and sclerotic lesion indicate?

A

Paget’s disease

72
Q

What is the mainstay treatment for Paget’s?

A

Bisphosphonates

73
Q

Which thyroid condition can cause raised prolactin?

A

Hypothyroidism

74
Q

What is the consequence of non functioning pituitary adenoma

A

HYPOPITUITARISM

Bitemporal hemianopia

75
Q

How does hyperemesis cause transient hyperthyroidism?

A

High hCG levels stimulate TSH receptors

76
Q

Which condition is HLA B47 associated with

77
Q

What is McCune Albright syndrome?

A

Somatic mutation in GNAS gene

Cafe au lait skin pigment
Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia (bone)
Autonomous endocrine hyperfunction

78
Q

What is central pontine myelinolysis?

A

Rapid Na correction complication.

Demyelinating pons.

Quadriplegia sparing eyes.
unable to speak/swallow

79
Q

What is miller fisher syndrome?

A

MFS is variant of GBS.

Miller Fisher: Remember from Miller beer
- Drinking too much beer causes “low IQ” hence GQ1b and causes the other symptoms of being drunk (ataxia, areflexia, ophthalmoplegia)

  • descending paralysis (eye downwards)
  • anti- GQ1b ab
  • opthalmoplegia, areflexia, ataxia
80
Q

What condition is 45X and delayed puberty?

A

Turner syndrome

(any child with short stature/LD/delayed puberty)

81
Q

What is a male Turner?

82
Q

What would you counsel pregnant women with thyroid autoantibodies?

A

High risk of miscarrigage and preterm

83
Q

What endocrine condition should you consider in hyperlipidaemia?

A

Hypothyroidism

Inhibit LDL mediated catabolism and lipoprotein lipase activity decreases.

84
Q

Differentiate between classical CAH and non classical CAH

A

Classical: severe
salt wasting and ambiguous genitalia
Low cortisol and aldosterone

Non classical: milder
hyperandrogenism

high 17-OH progesterone and testosterone

Both due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency

85
Q

What is the treatment for diabetic gastroparesis?

A

First: domperidone

86
Q

What sign is specific of Grave’s?

A

Pre-tibial myxoedema

Accumulation of glycosaminoglycans

87
Q

How would you replace fluids in DKA?

A

0.9% saline 1L over 1hr
0.9% saline+kcl over 2hr
0.9% saline+kcl over 4hr
0.9% saline+kcl over 6hr

88
Q

What is the insulin dose for FRII for DKA?

A

0.1 U/Kg/hr

89
Q

What is pseudohyperparathyroidism?

A

rare genetic disorder that prevents the body from responding to parathyroid hormone (PTH), causing high phosphate low calcium

albright

90
Q

What does severe hypopituitarism cause?

A

Hypothyroid
Low cortisol
Hyponatraemia

91
Q

What is saline suppression test?

A

Used to confirm equivocal Renin:aldosterone ratio for Conn’s

92
Q

What is the target BM and HbA1c for women planning pregnancy?

A

premeal/bedtime/overnight: 3.3-5.4

peak postprandial: 5.4-7.1

HbA1c < 6%

93
Q

Outline complete androgen insensitivity (XY karyotype)?

A

partial or complete inability to respond to androgens (lack dihydrotestosterone receptor)

  • impaired masculinisation
  • develop normal breast
  • lack of pubic hair
  • infertile
  • bilateral inguinal hernia infantile
  • serum testosterone level high
94
Q

What is Exenatide and when is it contraindicated?

A

GLP1 agonist

(renal impairment)

95
Q

How does GLP1 agonist work?

A

increases insulin release with glucose load

delay gastric emptying

96
Q

What are the causes of hypokalaemia?

A

LESS K

Lasix (diuretics)
Enteric loss
Steroid
Shift in from insulin/salbutamol

Kidney disease

97
Q

What are the causes of hyperkalaemia

A

K BANK
(k supplement, beta blocker, ace/arb/aki, nsaid, k sparing)

98
Q

What does ketonuria indicate?

A

Insulinopaenia as in T1DM

99
Q

Management of diabetic foot ulcer

A

Non removable casting

wound debridement
infection management
revascularisation procedures

100
Q

What should lithium be switched to in pregnancy?

A

Lamotrigine

101
Q

Which hormone is responsible for cessation of growth and long bone fusion?

102
Q

Why does feminisation occur in obesity or alcoholism?

A

increased aromatase activity

cholesterol->testosterone->oestradiol by aromatase

103
Q

Management for profound hypothyroidism (myxoedema coma)

A

T3 infusion/NG 5 microgram every 8 hrs

convert to T4 when conscious

104
Q

How does glucagon reverse hypoglycaemia

A

Activate adenylate cyclase

breaks down glycogen to free glucose

105
Q

What metabolic abnormality does cushing’s disease cause?

A

Hypochloraemic
metabolic alkalosis

106
Q

When is radioisotope scan helpful?

A

Thyrotoxicosis/cold nodules ?neoplasm

Not in euthyroid patients

107
Q

How is thyroid lymphoma treated?

A

Chemotherapy (R-CHOP)
Radiotherapy (external beam)

Rituximab

Not surgically treated.

108
Q

What is the most specific feature on bone biopsy that suggests Paget’s disease?

A

Multinucleated osteoclasts

109
Q

What causes lipohypertrophy?

A

Repeated insulin injection into same site

110
Q

Outline treatment for Kallmans

A

Not planning pregnancy:
- testosterone patches/injection/implant

Planning pregnancy:
- pulsed subcut therapy with GnRH analogue to stimulate spermatogenesis

111
Q

What is the order of most common post op complication for subtotal thyroidectomy?

A
  1. Hypothyroidism
  2. Recurrent hyperthyroidism
  3. Transient hypoparathyroidism
  4. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
112
Q

What causes raised DHEA?

A

PCOS
Non classical CAH (11Bhydroxylase)

113
Q

Adrenal hormone and location

A

G - SALT
F- SUGAR
R- SEX

114
Q

What is familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia

A

Autosomal dominant
mutated CASR gene
lack of calcium sensor -> raise PTH->high calcium

No treatment.

115
Q

What is Gordon syndrome?

A

pseudohypoaldosteronism

mimic addisons
- hyperkalaemia
- metabolic acidosis

fail to respond to aldosterone therefore high aldosterone.

116
Q

What is turner’s syndrome and management?

A

X deletion (45X)

Treatment:
Growth: GH
Puberty and prevent osteoporosis: oestrogen
followed but progesterone 2 years later