MRCP Endo Flashcards

1
Q

Which sex hormone is responsible for ovulation induction?

A

Luteinising hormone

Can be seen by rise in progesterone level

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2
Q

What is Kallmann syndrome?

A

Isolated GnRH deficiency (Xlinked)
Associated anosmia and hypogonadism

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3
Q

What is hypokalaemic periodic paralysis?

A

channelopathy caused by skeletal muscle ion channel mutations, mainly affecting calcium or sodium channels.

praoxysmal weakess due to hypokalaemia

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4
Q

When do you see raised gonadotrophins (FSH/LH)?

A

primary ovarian failure

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5
Q

What is non-functioning adenoma?

A

Does not produce hormones, just large enough to compress nearby structures

Headache,
bitemporal hemianopia,
pituitary insufficiency

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6
Q

What blood test differentiates between exogenous and endogenous insulin causing hypoglycaemia?

A

Exogenous- low c-peptide
Endogenous- high c-peptide

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7
Q

When do you see low FSH and LH

A

Hypothalamic anemorrhoea

anorexia/stress/excessive exercise

shut down for survival

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8
Q

How should you dose adjust thyroxine?

A

Guided by TSH levels

Adjust every 4-8 weeks.

(TSH lag behind T4)

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9
Q

What is the mode of imaging to determine the volume of thyroid gland?

A

Ultrasound

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10
Q

When is glucose tolerance test used?

A

Diabetes
Acromegaly

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11
Q

What is the causes of secondary hypoparathyroidism?

A

Damage to parathyroid glands during thyroid surgery

DiGeorge

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12
Q

What are the 4 stages of Hypertensive retinopathy

A

I = Tortuous (one word)
II = AV nipping (two words)
III = cotton wool spots (three words)
IV = papilloedema is the worst (four words lol)

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13
Q

What is branch retinal vein occlusion?

A

segmental haemorrhage

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14
Q

What is the mechanism of action of levonogestrel in emergency contraception?

A

Delay ovulation

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15
Q

Outline management of thyroid storm

A

Life threatening thyrotoxicosis with systemic failure.

beta blocker (IV propanolol)
antithyroid drug (propylthiouracil)
inorganic iodide
steroid (dexamethasone to block T4->T3)
cooling
volume resus
respiratory support in ITU

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16
Q

What is the biochemical finding in PCOS?

A

Low SHBG hence free testosterone

Rise in LH : FSH (3 : 1 ratio)

Rise in testosterone and DHEA

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17
Q

What is DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Microdeletion on Chr 22

Thymic hypoplasia,
cardiac defect (ToF)
LD
hypoparathyroidism-> hypocalcaemia

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18
Q

What cardiac complication is hypothyroidism associated with?

A

Pericardial effusion

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19
Q

What is the order of puberty in girls

A

Boobs
Pubes
Grow
Flow

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20
Q

What is the order of puberty in boys

A

Grapes
Drapes
Grow
Flow

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21
Q

What is likely to occur with oestrogen only pill?

A

breakthrough bleed

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22
Q

What drugs cause SIADH?

SIADH Cannot Void

A

SSRI
Indomethacin
Antidepressant TCA
Diuretic thiazide
Haloperidol

Carbamazepine
Cyclophosphamide

Vincristine

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23
Q

What cranial cancer can cause craniopharygioma

A

Diabetes insipidus

inferior quadratanopia

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24
Q

Other than cough, what side effect is ACEi associate with?

A

Angioedema

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25
Which 3 compounds contribute to ketosis in DKA? (ABA)
Acetone (pear drop) Beta-hydroxybutyrate -> can linger after 36 hr Acetoacetic acid Acetone and acetoacetic acid fall after 36hr
26
What is charcot arthropathy?
Diabetic neuropathic arthropathy- trauma to foot -> exaggerated local inflammatory response -> osteoarthropathy
27
Outline conservative management for diabetic retinopathy
1. optimise glycaemic control slowly 2. optimise BP and lipids 3. Annual eye exam
28
What is Albright's hereditary osteodystrophy?
Autosomal dominant, G protein defect-> PTH resistance -> **pseudohypoparathyroisim** short stature brachydactyly soft tissue calcification hypocalcaemia high PTH | All bright people are fake
29
What is the most common side effect of oestrogen treatment (HRT)
**Breast tenderness** Bloating Nausea
30
Drop in which hormone is causes shedding of endometrium?
Progesterone as corpus luteum dies
31
Post partum thyroiditis is more likely in patients with which antibody?
anti-TPO ab pre pregnancy
32
What is Sturge Weber syndrome
Vascular disorder in brain and eye abnormal 1. Epilepsy 2. Birth mark: Port wine naevus on face a/w **phaeochromocytoma**
33
What medication is beneficial for HF, CKD, and T2DM?
ACEi (even if normotensive)
34
Which male sex hormone is associated with pubic hair growth?
Dihydrotestosterone | DHT
35
What is VIPoma?
Vasoactive intestinal peptide -> chronic diarrhoea and hypokalaemia and normal anion gap aka pancreatic cholera syndrome Neuroendocrine tumour
36
Outline management for hyperthyroidism?
**Medical**: Carbimazole (monitor FBC and LFT) - risk of agranulocytosis Beta blockers for palpitations **Pregnant** women: Propylthiouracil in early pregnancy - switch to carbimazole in later preg due to hepatotoxicity maternal **Surgical**: Radioactive iodine treatment- if high uptake Subtotal/total thryoidectomy (failed meds/radioiodine) - pregnant women if medical fail - risk of hypothyroidism hypoparathyroidism, vocal cord paralysis
37
Which gene is associated with T1DM?
HLA-DR3
38
What does high 17-hydroxyprogesterone indicate?
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia Presents with: primary amenorrhoea hyperandrogenism cliteromegaly Manage: 1. glucocorticoid replacement to reduce ACTH and minimise adrenal androgen 2. fludrocortisone if deficient 3. flutamide (anti-androgen)
39
What are the 3 types of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
21- hydroxylase: 1 at back only so: no HTN, only virilisation 11-hydroxylase: 1 in both front and back- so both HTN and virilisation 17 hydroxylase - only 1 in front- so only HTN,no virilisation | Mnemonic : 1 in front- HTN. 1 at back- virilisation
40
Which cytokine causes hypercalcaemia in myeloma?
Osteoclast (clear) activating cytokine
41
What 3 features are associated with neurofibromatosis type 1?
cafe au lait spots axillary freckling cutaneous neurofibromas
42
What is von Hippel Lindau syndrome
Predispose to cancer: phaeochromocytoma haemagioblastoma (bleed) renal cell carcinoma pancreatic tumour | autosomal dominant- abdormal VHL gene on Chr 3
43
What causes lid retraction and lag in thyrotoxicosis?
sympathetic overactivity
44
What are the features seen in Grave's only?
exopthalmos pretibial myxoedema thyroid acropathy
45
Which hormones are anterior pituitary responsible for?
GH Prolactin TSH ACTH FSH/LH
46
Which hormones are posterior pituitary responsible for?
Vasopressin Oxytocin ADH
47
What is carney complex?
Autosomal dominant mutation inactivating protein kinase A on Chr 17. Present with predispose to cancer: spotting skin pigmentation myxoma endocrine tumour melanotic schwannoma
48
What is the most common pituitary tumour?
Prolactinomas
49
What is the management of DKA
First: IVF to reduce acidosis FRII
50
What risks are associated with HRT?
Breast cancer Heart disease VTE Stroke Endometrial cancer
51
Describe the pathogenesis of lipid synthesis and how lipoprotein lipase deficiency/apoC2 deficiency cause hyperlipoproteinaemia
1. dietary triglyceride in cholesterol packed in GI cell into chylomicrons 2. secreted into GI lymph into circulation 3. chylomicron bind to lipoprotein lipase 4. apolipoprotein C2 in chylomicrons activate lipoprotein lipase to liberate free fatty acid which enter fat/muscle cells 5. therefore inactive lipoprotein lipase/apo C2 would cause accumulation of chylomicron
52
Which hormones are elevated in anorexia?
Cortisol Cholesterol
53
What does beta hcg do to thyroid function in normal pregnancy?
First trimester- can see suppression of TSH due to beta hCG.
54
What is the sick day rule for addisons?
double glucocorticoid dose
55
What is glucagonoma?
pancreatic alpha cell tumour impaired glucose tolerance as increases sugar levels. skin rash- necrotic migratory erythema normocytic anaemia
56
Why does cushing's present with hypokalaemia?
Because glucocorticoid can act on mineralocorticoid receptor
57
What is IV pentagastrin test?
Inject pentagastrin -> measure calcitonin Medullary thyroid carcinoma (HIGH)
58
What is c-peptide
by product of proinsulin -> c-peptide and active insulin
59
Outline management of secondary hyperparathyroidism:
Phosphate binders (1-alpha calcidol) Vit D and calcium
60
Pancreatic cells and hormones:
Alpha: glucagon Beta: insulin Delta: somatostatin
61
What is thyrotoxicosis factitia?
Exogenous excess intake of thyroid hormone decreased uptake on scitigraphy raised T4
62
How do you treat papillary and follicular thyroid cancer?
Total thyroidectomr Then radioiodine to kill residual Thyroxine replacement
63
Which part of the nephron does ADH act on?
Cortical and medullary **collecting** tubules (increased aquaporin 2 expression)
64
What is the mechanism of action of tamoxifen?
Tamoxifen is a Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) which acts as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. breast: antagonist uterus: agonist (risk of cancer)
65
When is radioiodine treatment not recommended for Graves?
Thyroid eye disease may worsen
66
Outline DVLA law for diabetics on insulin
ensure no severe hypos in last 1 year must have hypoglycaemic awareness can drive as long as stable BM control
67
How does hypothalamic anemorrhoea occur?
weight loss -> increase ghrelin -> inhibit HPA axis -> slow GnRH pulse -> therefore low LH/FSH -> low oestrogen -> osteoporosis
68
At what TSH level should you replace thyroxine?
>10 mU/l or if very symptomatic with +ve antibodies
69
Which gliptin is associated with heart failure?
Saxagliptin
70
Symptoms of klinefelter syndrome (XXY)?
tall gynacomastia **small testicular** vol (<12 ml) infertility. Need chromosomal analysis (karyotype)
71
What does high ALP and mixed lytic and sclerotic lesion indicate?
Paget's disease
72
What is the mainstay treatment for Paget's?
Bisphosphonates
73
Which thyroid condition can cause raised prolactin?
Hypothyroidism
74
What is the consequence of non functioning pituitary adenoma
HYPOPITUITARISM Bitemporal hemianopia
75
How does hyperemesis cause transient hyperthyroidism?
High hCG levels stimulate TSH receptors
76
Which condition is HLA B47 associated with
CAH
77
What is McCune Albright syndrome?
Somatic mutation in GNAS gene Cafe au lait skin pigment Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia (bone) Autonomous endocrine hyperfunction
78
What is central pontine myelinolysis?
Rapid Na correction complication. Demyelinating pons. Quadriplegia sparing eyes. unable to speak/swallow
79
What is miller fisher syndrome?
MFS is variant of GBS. Miller Fisher: Remember from Miller beer - Drinking too much beer causes “low IQ” hence GQ1b and causes the other symptoms of being drunk (ataxia, areflexia, ophthalmoplegia) - descending paralysis (eye downwards) - anti- GQ1b ab - opthalmoplegia, areflexia, ataxia
80
What condition is 45X and delayed puberty?
Turner syndrome (any child with short stature/LD/delayed puberty)
81
What is a male Turner?
Noonan
82
What would you counsel pregnant women with thyroid autoantibodies?
High risk of miscarrigage and preterm
83
What endocrine condition should you consider in hyperlipidaemia?
**Hypothyroidism** Inhibit LDL mediated catabolism and lipoprotein lipase activity decreases.
84
Differentiate between classical CAH and non classical CAH
Classical: severe salt wasting and ambiguous genitalia Low cortisol and aldosterone Non classical: milder hyperandrogenism high 17-OH progesterone and testosterone Both due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency
85
What is the treatment for diabetic gastroparesis?
First: domperidone
86
What sign is specific of Grave's?
Pre-tibial myxoedema Accumulation of glycosaminoglycans
87
How would you replace fluids in DKA?
0.9% saline 1L over 1hr 0.9% saline+kcl over 2hr 0.9% saline+kcl over 4hr 0.9% saline+kcl over 6hr
88
What is the insulin dose for FRII for DKA?
0.1 U/Kg/hr
89
What is pseudohyperparathyroidism?
rare genetic disorder that prevents the body from responding to parathyroid hormone (PTH), causing high phosphate low calcium | albright
90
What does severe hypopituitarism cause?
Hypothyroid Low cortisol Hyponatraemia
91
What is saline suppression test?
Used to confirm equivocal Renin:aldosterone ratio for Conn's
92
What is the target BM and HbA1c for women planning pregnancy?
premeal/bedtime/overnight: 3.3-5.4 peak postprandial: 5.4-7.1 HbA1c < 6%
93
Outline complete androgen insensitivity (XY karyotype)?
partial or complete inability to respond to androgens (lack dihydrotestosterone receptor) - impaired masculinisation - develop normal breast - lack of pubic hair - infertile - bilateral inguinal hernia infantile - serum testosterone level high
94
What is Exenatide and when is it contraindicated?
GLP1 agonist (renal impairment)
95
How does GLP1 agonist work?
increases insulin release with glucose load delay gastric emptying
96
What are the causes of hypokalaemia?
LESS K Lasix (diuretics) Enteric loss Steroid Shift in from insulin/salbutamol Kidney disease
97
What are the causes of hyperkalaemia
K BANK (k supplement, beta blocker, ace/arb/aki, nsaid, k sparing)
98
What does ketonuria indicate?
Insulinopaenia as in T1DM
99
Management of diabetic foot ulcer
Non removable casting wound debridement infection management revascularisation procedures
100
What should lithium be switched to in pregnancy?
Lamotrigine
101
Which hormone is responsible for cessation of growth and long bone fusion?
Oestrogen
102
Why does feminisation occur in obesity or alcoholism?
increased aromatase activity cholesterol->testosterone->oestradiol by aromatase
103
Management for profound hypothyroidism (myxoedema coma)
T3 infusion/NG 5 microgram every 8 hrs convert to T4 when conscious
104
How does glucagon reverse hypoglycaemia
Activate adenylate cyclase breaks down glycogen to free glucose
105
What metabolic abnormality does cushing's disease cause?
Hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
106
When is radioisotope scan helpful?
Thyrotoxicosis/cold nodules ?neoplasm Not in euthyroid patients
107
How is thyroid lymphoma treated?
Chemotherapy (R-CHOP) Radiotherapy (external beam) Rituximab Not surgically treated.
108
What is the most specific feature on bone biopsy that suggests Paget's disease?
Multinucleated osteoclasts
109
What causes lipohypertrophy?
Repeated insulin injection into same site
110
Outline treatment for Kallmans
Not planning pregnancy: - testosterone patches/injection/implant Planning pregnancy: - pulsed subcut therapy with GnRH analogue to stimulate spermatogenesis
111
What is the order of most common post op complication for subtotal thyroidectomy?
1. Hypothyroidism 2. Recurrent hyperthyroidism 3. Transient hypoparathyroidism 4. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
112
What causes raised DHEA?
PCOS Non classical CAH (11Bhydroxylase)
113
Adrenal hormone and location
G - SALT F- SUGAR R- SEX
114
What is familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia
Autosomal dominant mutated CASR gene lack of calcium sensor -> raise PTH->high calcium No treatment.
115
What is Gordon syndrome?
pseudohypoaldosteronism mimic addisons - hyperkalaemia - metabolic acidosis fail to respond to aldosterone therefore high aldosterone.
116
What is turner's syndrome and management?
X deletion (45X) Treatment: Growth: GH Puberty and prevent osteoporosis: oestrogen followed but progesterone 2 years later