MQF: Weapons Employment Flashcards

1
Q

In the event of a jammed gun: If in the opinion of the AG there is no probability of inadvertent firing; dry fires and aerial refueling are authorized.

A

False

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2
Q

Use 30mm Gun Stoppage Under Hot Barrel Conditions (Hot Gun) emergency procedures when there is a “ Hot barrel” condition and a gun stoppage occurs.

A

False

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3
Q

During Hot Gun and Gun Stoppage emergency procedures, if unable to to rotate the gun using the manual drive handle,_______ and use it to rotate the bolt and carrier assembly to_______.

A

Disengage drive shaft handle; Sear position

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4
Q

If the manual drive shaft handle is used to rotate the gun, the feeder and receiver must be retimed.

A

True

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5
Q

During Hot Gun emergency procedures, if unable to clear 30mm gun malfunction ______ crew members working near the gun should move out of the immediate vicinity of the gun.

A

within 90 seconds

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6
Q

When accomplishing Feeder Jam malfunction procedures, steps must be accomplished in order of gun damage will occur.

A

False

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7
Q

Failure to stow the gun above _____ may result in damage to aircraft or injury to personnel.

A

-19 degrees elevation

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8
Q

The 30mm gun may be fired unrestricted until reaching the _______ on the GWS laptop temperature indicator. If the GWS laptop temperature indicator is inoperative the 30mm gun may be fired unrestricted to ______

A

Barrel damage limit; 500 rounds

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9
Q

Failure to comply with the GWS laptop temperature indicator or the rate of firing schedule may result in_______.

A

Catastrophic barrel damage of the 30mm gun

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10
Q

Danger close fire must be declared in line 5, when applicable, by stating _______and passing the initials of the _________ on scene.

A

“Cleared Danger Close” ; ground commander

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11
Q

The Standing Danger close distance for the AGM-176 (Griffin) Contact is ______ meters; and Danger Close distance for AGM-176 Airburst is _______ meters.

A

120, 145

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12
Q

The Standing Danger close distance for the GBU-39 (250lbs SDB) Contact is ______ meters; and Danger Close distance for GBU-39 Airburst is _______ meters.

A

200; 265

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13
Q

The Standing danger close distance for 30mm is ______ meters, 90 meters prone and _________ meters prone protected.

A

100, 70

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14
Q

Brevity: Sensor at the stated position or sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor).

A

Contact

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15
Q

Brevity: Release/ Launch or specified weapon.

A

(weapon) away

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16
Q

Friendly air-to-surface (A/S) missile launch.

A

Rifle

17
Q

Brevity: Sighting of a target, non-friendly, aircraft, or enemy position.

A

Tally

18
Q

Brevity: Sighting of a friendly aircraft or ground position.

A

Visual

19
Q

Brevity: Mark/ Marking target by IR pointer (A/S, S/S)

A

Sparkle

20
Q

Brevity: Oscillate an IR pointer around an aircraft to help identify the friendly ground position.

A

Rope

21
Q

Gunships will not operate lower than ________ when working with helicopters firing 30mm, .50 cal, or 2.75” rockets (Based on a ______ danger area and a minimm of 1000 ft altitude separation form the highest known trajectory). Helicopters using 7.62mm only have a 3,000 ft AGL danger area.

A

6,000ft AGL; 5,000ft AGL

22
Q

All guns will be ______ prior to departing any live-fire impact area for another. The lead gunner will report all guns ______ directly to the aircraft commander on main interphone.

A

Safe and clear; safe and clear

23
Q

A Hot Gun is a gun that contains a round that cannot be removed in flight and, in the opinion of the lead gun there is a probability of inadvertent firing.

A

True

24
Q

A Jammed gun is a gun the at contains a round that cannot be removed in fight and the lead gun determines there is no probability of inadvertent firing.

A

True

25
Q

Brevity: Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.

A

Snake