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CT Cross Training > Mosby Simulated Examination Two > Flashcards

Mosby Simulated Examination Two Flashcards

1
Q

As related to the cardiac cycle, the term _________ refers to the relaxation of heart muscle.

A

Diastole.

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2
Q

Which of the following may be considered one of the high-osmolar contrast media (HOCM)? (Pick one or more answers).
1. Iothalamate meglumine.
2. Diatrizoate sodium.
3. Iohexol.

A

1 and 2 only.

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3
Q

Which of the following medications may be administered to a pt who is having a severe anaphylactoid reaction to iodinated contrast material? (Pick one or more answers).
1. Epinephrine.
2. Atropine.
3. Diphenhydramine.

A

1 and 3 only.

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4
Q

What is the medication atropine used for?

A

Should be used only to combat bradycardia during a vagal reaction to contrast material.

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5
Q

The escape of contrast material from a needle or blood vessel into the subcutaneous tissues is called:

A

Extravasation.

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6
Q

Thorough explanation of the CT procedure & proper communication with the pt are vital in ensuring that: (Pick one or more answers).
1. Breathing instructions are properly followed.
2. Motion artifact does not occur.
3. Pt anxiety is kept at a minimum.

A
    1. and 3.
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7
Q

Risk factors for contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN) include: (Pick one or more answers).
1. Pheochromocytoma.
2. Allergy to shellfish.
3. Dehydration.

A

3 only.

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8
Q

Risk factors for Contrast-Induced Nephrotoxicity (CIN).

A
  • Preexisting renal function compromise.
  • Dehydration.
  • Diabetes.
  • Myeloma.
  • Advanced age.
  • Cardiovascular disease.
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9
Q

Normal range for oxygen (O2) saturation is:

A

95%-100%.

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10
Q

Which of the following laboratory measurements can be used to evaluate the renal function of a pt? (Pick one or more answers)
1. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
2. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
3. Creatinine.

A

1 and 3 only.

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11
Q

Which of the following would be best suited for IV injection of contrast material with a power injector?
A. Butterfly needle.
B. Central venous line.
C. 23-gauage spinal needle.
D. Angiocatheter.

A

D. Angiocatheter.

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12
Q

Before the IV injection of iodinated contrast material, pts should be questioned regarding their: (Pick one or more answers).
1. Renal function.
2. Allergic history.
3. Cardiac history.

A

1, 2, and 3.

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13
Q

A(n) _________ infection is one that a pt acquires during a stay in a health care institution.

A

Nosocomial.

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14
Q

Which of the following sets of values would be considered normal levels for creatine and BUN, respectively?
A. 3.1 mg/dL; 1.2 mg/dL.
B. 1.2 mg/dL; 14 mg/dL.
C. 0.7 mg/dL; 39 mg/dL.
D. 5.2 mg/dL; 12 mg/DL.

A

B. 1.2 mg/dL; 14 mg/dL.

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15
Q

Which of the following sizes of butterfly needles allows for the most rapid administration of IV contrast media?
A. 19 gauge.
B. 21 gauge.
C. 23 gauge.
D. 25 gauge.

A

A. 19-gauge.

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16
Q

The choice between ionic and nonionic contrast media should be based on: (Pick one or more answers).
1. The allergic history of the pt.
2. The cost of the contrast media.
3. The age & physical condition of the patient.

A

1 and 3 only.

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17
Q

Which of the following is an example of a mild reaction to iodinated IV contrast media?
A. Dyspnea.
B. Shock.
C. Pulmonary edema.
D. Vomiting.

A

Vomiting.

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18
Q

During which of the following CT procedures is the pt required to give informed consent?
A. noncontrast CT of the chest.
B. renal stone survey.
C. 3-D reconstruction of the hip.
D. Abdomen scan after IV contrast agent administration.

A

D. abdomen scan after iv contrast agent administration.

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19
Q

The international normalized ratio (INR) is calculated to standardize which of the following laboratory values?
A. prothrombin time (PT).
B. partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
C. blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
D. glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

A

A. Prothrombin time (PT).

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20
Q

Which of the following infection control techniques is required at the site of an IV injection of iodinated contrast media?
A. contact isolation.
B. surgical asepsis.
C. medical asepsis.
D. enteric precautions.

A

B. Surgical asepsis.

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21
Q

Which of the following is a common site for the IV injection of iodinated contrast? (Pick one or more answers).
1. cephalic vein.
2. antecubital vein.
3. basilic vein.

A

1, 2, and 3.

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22
Q

An intrathecal injection before a CT examination of the lumbar spine administers iodinated contrast material directly into the:

A

Subarachnoid space.

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23
Q

The range of serum iodine concentration for adequate tissue opacification during contrast-enhanced CT examination is:

A

2-8 mg/mL.

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24
Q

Components of the aseptic technique utilized for the IV administration of contrast agents include: (Pick one or more answers).
1. Thorough hand washing b/t pts.
2. Wearing of disposable gloves.
3. Establishment of a sterile field around the site.

A

1 and 2 only.

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25
Q

During data acquisition, a CT system may continuously adjust the mA relative to the measured image noise for a method of dose reduction referred to as:

A

Automatic tube current modulation (ATCM).

26
Q

The amount of x-ray energy absorbed in a quantity of air is termed:

A

Kerma
(Think air kerma!)

27
Q

Which of the following technical changes would serve to decrease pt radiation dose during a CT examination?
A. increase in matrix size.
B. change from soft tissue to bone algorithm.
C. decrease of tube rotation from 360 to 180 degrees.
D. decrease in DFOV.

A

C.

(This is known as “half scan”).

28
Q

In an effort to reduce pt radiation dose, the technical factors of the applied CT protocol should be optimized of the basis of:
A. Age.
B. Sex.
C. Size or weight.
D. Physical condition.

A

C. Size or Weight.

29
Q

Which of the following is considered the calculation of the multiple scan average dose (MSAD) for an axial (step-and-shoot) CT examination?
A. Bed index.
B. Gantry rotation time.
C. mA setting.
D. Pitch.

A

A. Bed index.

  • MSAD accounts for the effects of imaging spacing, or bed index, on pt radiation dose during axial scanning.
30
Q

During CT examinations, the pts body should be shielded above and below because of:

A

The rotational nature of the x-ray tube.

31
Q

CTDIw is a weighted index that approximates radiation dose on the basis of the variations that occur across the field of view because of: (Pick 1 or more answers)
1. beam hardening.
2. detector configuration.
3. pitch.

A

1 only.

32
Q

The embryo or fetus is most sensitive to ionizing radiation during which portion of gestation?

A

First trimester.

33
Q

To uniformly expose the entire detector array in a MDCT system, the primary beam must be expanded beyond the physical extent of the array in a process known as:
A. interpolation.
B. Overbeaming.
C. Photon flux.
D. Back-projection.

A

B - Overbeaming.

34
Q

Automatic tube current modulation (ATCM) is employed by a MDCT system for the purpose of:

A

Reducing patient radiation dose.

35
Q

In an effort to avoid excessive radiation exposure to the pt, a CT system may be equipped with a(n) __________ system that automatically notifies the technologist about improper technical factors before data acquisition.

A

Dose alert.

36
Q

The distance between the x-ray source (CT tube) and the center of gravity may be referred to as the:
A. focus-to-detector distance.
B. focus-to-isocenter distance.
C. source-to-object distance.
D. source-to-image receptor distance.

A

B. Focus-to-isoscenter distance.

37
Q

The interaction between radiation and matter that results in the complete attenuation of an x-ray photon due to ionization of a target atom’s inner shell electron is termed:

A

Photoelectric effect.

38
Q

The inherent filtration of the x-ray tube used in a CT system typically amounts to an equivalent thickness of:
A. 0.5 mm Al.
B. 3.0 mm Al.
C. 10.0 mm Al.
D. 15.0 mm Al.

A

B. 3.0 mm Al.

39
Q

Adaptive collimation may be utilized to reduce the unnecessary radiation exposure at the start & end of a helical acquisition that may be referred to as:
A. overbeaming.
B. interpolation.
C. overranging.
D. binning.

A

C. Overranging.

40
Q

Which of the following pitch settings would result in the largest radiation dose to the patient?
A. 1.0
B. 1.2
C. 1.7
D. 2.0

A

A. 1.0.

41
Q

Optimization of CT techniques & procedures for the purpose of radiation dose reduction for patients and personnel should include (Pick 1 or more answers).
1. restricting the acquired acquisition volume to the area of clinical interest.
2. controlling access to the CT imaging room to essential personnel only.
3. adjusting technical parameters (mA, kVp, ect) to the size of the pt.

A

1, 2, and 3.

42
Q

When employoing bismuth shielding, which of the following techniques will reduce streaking artifact while still offering radiation dose savings to sensitive tissues?
A. placing a foamA spacer between the pt surface & the bismuth shield.
B. placing the bismuth shielding outside the scan Aquisition range.
C. placing the bismuth shielding after the acquisition of the localizer image.
D. Placing a foam spacer on top of the bismuth shield to intercept the incoming beam.

A

Answer: A.

43
Q

The space between the liver & right kidney that is a common location for abnormal collection of fluid (ascites) is known as:

A

Morison pouch (comman name for the hepatorenal recess).

44
Q

Abnormalities of the middle & inner ear may be best demonstrated with CT utilizing _____ sections.

A

1 to 2 mm.

45
Q

The Lisfranc joint is the articulation between the:

A

tarsals & metatarsals.

46
Q

The volume & density of calcium measured in the coronary arteries on MDCT examination are quantified with use of a value called the:
A. Euler constant.
B. Hounsfield number.
C. Agatson score.
D. Lamberrt-Beer value.

A

C. Agatson score.

47
Q

Which of the following is/are component(s) of the adnexal area of the uterus? (Pick1 or more)
1. ovaries.
2. fallopian tubes.
3. vagina.

A

1 and 2 only.

48
Q

Which of the following contrast media may be utilized during the CT evaluation of the GI tract? (Pick 1 or more)
1. diatrizoate meglumine (Gastrografin).
2. efffervescent agents.
3. iopamidol (Isovue).

A

1, 2, and 3.

49
Q

The liver has a dual blood supply and receives 75% of its blood from the:

A

Portal Vein.

50
Q

At what percentage of overlap should CT sections be reconstructed to improve the quality of MPR images?
A. 10%.
B. 25%.
C. 50%.
D. 100%.

A

C. 50%.

51
Q

A primary responsibility of CT in combined PET-CT is to: (Pick 1 or more)
1. provide precise anatomic location of tumor activity.
2. reduce pt dose.
3. provide attenuation correction info.

A

1 and 3 only.

52
Q

The degenerative pathologic process involving the forward slipping of an upper vertebral body over a lower vertebral body is called:

A

Spondylolisthesis.

53
Q

Accurate demonstration of _________ would most likely require the IV injection of iodinated contrast agent during a CT study of the chest.
A. Bronchiectasis.
B. Pneumonia.
C. Mediastinal lymphadenopathy.
D. Pulmonary nodule.

A

C. Mediastinal Lymphadenopathy.

54
Q

A focused, thin-section axial CT acquisition through just the region of the vocal cords should extend:

A

Just above the hyoid bone inferiorly through the cricoid cartilage.

55
Q

Which of the following contrast agent administration techniques should be used for general CT survey of the abdomen? (Pick 1 or more)
1. 400-600 mL oral contrast agent 45-90 minutes before the examination.
2. 250 mL oral contrast agent immediately before the examination.
3. 700-900 mL contrast agent administration as an enema immediately before the examination.

A

1 and 2 only.

56
Q

During CT perfusion studies, the quantity of blood (in mL) that moves through 100g of tissue each minute is termed:
A. mean transit time (MTT).
B. cerebral blood flow (CBF).
C. cerebral blood volume (CBV).
D. percentage washout value (PWV).

A

B. cerebral blood flow (CBF).

57
Q

The enhancement washout technique for CT characterization of adrenal masses includes: (Pick 1 or more).
1. thin-section precontrast acquisition through the adrenals.
2. arterial phase postcontrast acquisition through the adrenals.
3. 10-15 minute delayed postcontrast acquisition through the adrenals.

A

1 and 3 only.

58
Q

Bowel obstruction due to loss of normal contractile motion in an area of intestines is termed:
A. dyspepsia.
B. Intussusception.
C. Ileus.
D. Adhesion.

A

C. Ileus.

59
Q

The third ventricle of the brain communicates with the fourth ventricle through the:
A. anterior comissure.
B. septum pellucidum.
C. cerebral aqueduct.
D. fornix.

A

C. cerebral aqueduct.C

60
Q

Complete CT examinations of the chest for investigation of bronchogenic carcinoma should include sections from the:

A

Top of the apices through the liver.

CT Cross Training (28 decks)

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