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CT Cross Training > CT RADTECHBOOTCAMP Flashcards > Flashcards

CT RADTECHBOOTCAMP Flashcards

1
Q

What effect does increasing the tube current (mA) have on image noise in CT imaging?

A

Increased mA results in decreased image noise.

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2
Q

What is the purpose of recording dose length product (DLP) in CT dose measurements?

A

DLP corresponds to the overall pt dose from the scan.

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3
Q

Which of the following pt conditions may require a modification of the standard CT protocol when imaging the abdomen and pelvis for nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea?
A. Pt with a pacemaker.
B. Geriatric pt.
C. PT with renal failure.
D. Bariatric pt.

A

C. PT with renal failure.

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4
Q

Which of the following data acquisition methods generates multiple data sets with different x-ray energy spectrums from a single scan?
A. Axial/sequential.
B. Helical.
C. Shuttle/continous/cine.
D. Dual-energy/dual-source.

A

D. Dual-energy/dual-source.

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5
Q

Inadequate water absorption & unstable electrolyte balance may be related to pathological processes in which of the following organs?
A. Stomach.
B. Small intestines.
C. Large intestines.
D. Esophagus.

A

C. Large intestines.

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6
Q

What is the role of the high-voltage generator in a CT unit?

A

Provides the electrical power required for x-ray production.

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7
Q

Which of the following infection control measures is essential for a CT technologist when performing procedures involving contrast media?
A. Wearing a face mask.
B. Using sterile gloves.
C. Disinfecting the CT scanner.
D. Hand hygiene.

A

D. Hand hygiene.

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8
Q

What exposure factors influence the quantity of photons in the primary x-ray beam in CT imaging?

A
  • Milliamperage (mA).
  • Kilovoltage peak (kVp).
  • Filtration (mm AL).
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9
Q

What is the most common sign of bladder carcinoma observed in CT imaging of the pelvis?

A

Bladder wall thickening.

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10
Q

A pt taking metformin is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. What instructions should be provided to the pt?

A

Stop metformin 48 hours before and after the scan.

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11
Q

When performing a CT scan of the soft tissue neck on a bariatric pt, which window presentation would be most effective in defining fat from other tissues?
A. WW 80; WL 30.
B. WW 400; WL 40.
C. WW 2500; WL 600.
D. WW 1500; WL -600.

A

B. WW 400; WL 40.

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12
Q

What reconstruction protocol should be used to maximize spatial resolution of the lung parenchyma during CT imaging of the chest?

A

1.25 mm slice thickness in an edge-enhancing algorithm

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13
Q

What pathological condition would most likely cause a change in the shape & size of the bladder in a CT scan?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia.

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14
Q

Which liver tumor becomes iso-intense or hyper-intense relative to the surrounding liver tissue during delayed imaging in CT?

A

Liver hemangioma.

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15
Q

What is the purpose of a histogram analysis in CT?

A

Measures the distribution of CT numbers within a region of interest (ROI).

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16
Q

Detectors contribute to image formation in a CT imaging system by converting:

A

Remnant beam into an analog electrical signal.

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17
Q

What is the most significant protocol consideration to demonstrate congenital ureteral malformations in CT imaging?

A

use of IV iodinated contrast.

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18
Q

Which of the following adverse reactions to iodinated contrast media is characterized by a sudden headache, nausea, vomiting, and neck stiffness?
A. Allergic reaction.
B. Cardiac arrest.
C. Contrast-induced nephropathy.
D. Contrast-induced encephalopathy.

A

D. Contrast-induced encephalopathy.

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19
Q

What two things are acceptable for a pts right arm for a CT of the right shoulder?

A
  • At the side.
  • Supinated.
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20
Q

A pt presents with symptoms of aortic dissection. Which type of CT procedure would be most appropriate to diagnose this condition?

A

CT angiogram.

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21
Q

Which of the following DFOV options correspond to the highest spatial resolution in a CT image?
A. 15 cm.
B. 25 cm.
C. 40 cm.
D. 50 cm.

A

A. 15 cm.

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22
Q

Why is the estimated eGFR an important value to consider before a CT scan with contrast?

A

eGFR provides information about kidney function.

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23
Q

What is the primary advantage of CT venography (CTV) over ultrasound for evaluating venous anatomy & physiology in the neck region?

A

CT venography provides higher spatial resolution.

24
Q

Which of the following tissues are associated with the highest proportion of x-ray beam attenuation in CT imaging?
A. Fat.
B. Muscle.
C. Bone.
D. Lung.

A

C. Bone.

25
Q

Which of the following pt history details would be most relevant for a pt about to undergo a CT scan of the abdomen?
A. previous medications.
B. previous surgeries.
C. family history of diabetes.
D. family history of asthma.

A

B. previous surgeries.

26
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Most common primary cancer and presents as a single lesion showing MAXIMUM enhancement during the arterial phase of contrast enhancement.

(Other liver tumors show max enhancement during other contrast phases).

27
Q

What is the purpose of applying Velcro straps around a pt on a CT scanning table?

A

Prevent the patient from falling off the table.

28
Q

The primary difference between prospective reconstruction & retrospective reconstruction in CT is the:

A

Time at which the image is created.

Prospective = DURING the initial data acquisition.
Retrospective = AFTER the data acquisition.

29
Q

Which of the following is the best solution for reducing motion artifacts in CT scans?
A. Increasing tube current.
B. Using breath hold techniques.
C. Decreasing the scan field.
D. Adjusting the pts position.

A

B. using breath hold techniques.

30
Q

The relationship between x-ray photon frequency and wavelength is:

A

Inversely proportional.

31
Q

What is the key advantage of using multiplanar reformation (MPR) in CT?

A

MPR can produce images in any plane.

32
Q

Which of the following pathologies is most likely to be associated with hydronephrosis?
A. Renal calculus (stones).
B. Polycystic kidney disease (PKD).
C. Renal cell carcinoma (RCC).
D. Wilms tumor.
E. Renal laceration.

A

A. Renal calculus (stones).

33
Q

In CT, a cine loop is used to do which of the following?
A. Measure the geometric distance.
B. Adjust the contrast of the image.
C. Control the brightness of the image.
D. Display a series of images in rapid succesion.

A

D. Display a series of images in rapid succession.

34
Q

Which 3 of the following anatomic structures are considered part of the mediastinum?
- lungs.
- superior vena cava.
- larynx.
- trachea.
- aorta.

A
  • superior vena cava.
  • trachea.
  • aorta.
35
Q

A pt with an in-dwelling urinary catheter is scheduled for an abdominal CT scan. What should the technologist do with the catheter bag during the procedure?

A

Position the bag below the level of the pts bladder.

36
Q

How does pitch affect pt radiation exposure during CT scanning?

A

Increasing pitch reduces pt radiation exposure.

37
Q

In which of the following scenarios would a cone beam artifact be most severe?
A. scanning a region with an abrupt change in tissue density.
B. using a wide detector array scanner for volumetric CT imaging.
C. Performing a scan on a pt with metallic implant.
D. scanning a pt who is not able to remain still during the procedure.

A

B.

38
Q

Uniformity in CT image refers to the consistency of:

A

CT numbers for the same material throughout the image.

39
Q

The primary concern associated with administering iodinated contrast to a pregnant pt is that iodinated contrast is known to:

A

Cross the placenta into the embryo/fetus.

40
Q

A CT scan of the head with IV contrast is requested to evaluate a pt for intracranial hemorrhage. What should the technologist do before proceeding with the scan?
A. request an updated creatine & GFR for the pt.
B. Request a updated PT, PTT and INR for the pt.
C. Request that the scan be ordered without IV contrast.
D. Request that the scan should be ordered as an angiography study.

A

C. Request that the scan should be ordered without IV contrast.

41
Q

What pathology is observed in CT imaging as a single lesion within the liver showing maximum enhancement during the arterial phase of contrast enhancement?

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma.

42
Q

Failing to remove a pts metallic belt buckle before CT imaging of the pelvis may result in what adverse effect?

A

Increased pt dose at the level of the belt buckle.

43
Q

What method of contrast administration will enhance the differentiation of the pancreatic head from the duodenum?

A

800 mL of water administered orally 20 minutes prior to scanning.

44
Q

Which imaging plane is most commonly used for CT scanning of the pelvic region to visualize to demonstrate the full extend of the uterus?

A

Sagittal plane.

45
Q

What vascular structure is observed in CT imaging during the superficial structures of the face & scalp?

A

External jugular vein.

46
Q

In CT perfusion imaging of the brain, what is a key parameter that can be measured?
A. Means transit time (MTT).
B. Oxygen saturation.
C. Red cell distribution width.
D. BUN.

A

A. Means transit time (MTT).

47
Q

Which of the following tissue types is associated with the lowest degree of x-ray beam attenuation in CT?
A. Smooth muscle tissue.
B. White matter.
C. Adipose tissue.
D. Cortical bone.

A

C. Adipose tissue.

48
Q

What does “Absorbed dose” represent in CT dose measurement?

A

Concentration of radiation absorbed by the pt’s body.

49
Q

In which of the following scenarios would a cone beam artifact most be severe?
A. Scanning a region with an abrupt change in tissue density.
B. Using a wide detector array scanner for volumetric CT imaging.
C. Performing a scan on a patient with a metallic implant.
D. Scanning a patient who is not able to remain still during the procedure.

A

B - Using a wide detector array scanner for volumetric CT imaging.

50
Q

Reducing the acquisition slice thickness in CT imaging will result in which of the following?
A. Increased spatial resolution and decreased noise.
B. Increased spatial resolution and increased noise.
C. Decreased spatial resolution and increased noise.
D. Decreased spatial resolution and decreased noise.

A

B - Increased spatial resolution and increased noise.

51
Q

Reducing the acquisition slice thickness in CT imaging will result in which of the following?
A. Increased spatial resolution and decreased noise.
B. Increased spatial resolution and increased noise.
C. Decreased spatial resolution and increased noise.
D. Decreased spatial resolution and decreased noise.

A

B - Increased spatial resolution and increased noise.

52
Q

Which of the following describes the function of a reconstruction algorithm in CT imaging?
A. Control the movement of the x-ray tube & detectors.
B. Adjust the dose of radiation.
C. Convert the raw data into image data.
D. Reformat the image data into other image planes.

A

C. Convert the raw data into image data.

53
Q

In CT, a negative number indicates that the:

A

Tissue is LESS DENSE than water.

54
Q

Pre-patient collimation of the x-ray tube within a CT imaging system is needed for what?

A
  • reduce the x-ray beam width to only the active detector channels.
  • reduce the x-ray beam width to only the anatomy of interest.
55
Q

Which of the following CT detector configurations allows for reconstructed images with the highest spatial resolution?
A. 32 rows x 0.5 mm per row.
B. 16 rows x 1.0 mm per row.
C. 64 rows x 0.625 mm per row.
D. 16 rows x 1.25 mm per row.

A

A. 32 rows x 0.5 mm per row.

CT Cross Training (28 decks)

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