ASRT Test 6 Flashcards

1
Q

_____ is an automated software feature to notify the CT technologist that a CT exam will have a CTDIvol or DLP greater than the suggested predetermined limits.

A

Dose alert.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

The process of boiling off electrons from a heated filament at the cathode during x-ray production is called:

A

Thermionic emission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In modern CT scanners, where is the high-frequency generator located?

A

Inside the gantry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

All of the following contraindicate administration of a B-blocker during a cardiac CT study, EXCEPT:
A. Tachycardia.
B. Severe atrioventricular block.
C. Active bronchospam.
D. Hypotension.

A

A. Tachycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A noncontrast CT scan is used for optimal evaluation of:
A. Lung mass.
B. Pulmonary embolism.
C. Lymphadenopathy.
D. Emphysema.

A

D. Emphysema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All of the following statements are true when performing venipuncture to administer IV contrast, EXCEPT:
A. a new needle is used each time a site is punctured during a venipuncture attempt.
B. Used needles should be recapped & placed in the sharps container.
C. the needle is inserted with the bevel side up.
D. the venipuncture site is cleaned by starting in the center & working outwards.

A

Answer: B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The ability of a CT system to distinguish between objects of similar density is defined as their:

A

Contrast resolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

To decrease the viscosity of IV contrast media:

A

Warm the contrast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

To reduce radiation exposure to the lens of the eye during an axial CT head scan, the gantry should be angled & placed parallel with the:

A

Supraobital meatal line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of x-ray interaction with matter results in a scattered x-ray with less energy?

A

Compton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

On a MDCT system, all of the following can be adjusted through retrospective reconstruction using raw data, EXCEPT:
A. SFOV.
B. Section width.
C. Image centering.
D. Algorithm or kernel.

A

A. SFOV.

The SFOV is the region within the CT gantry that raw data is acquired from to create initial CT images. Retrospective reconstructions are UNABLE to change this acquisition setting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What vessels branches that arise from the celiac artery?

A
  1. common hepatic artery.
  2. splenic artery.
  3. left gastric artery.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What body plane is used for CT image formation & divides the body into superior and inferior portions?

A

Axial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

To valuate the spleen during homogenous enhancement, the scan delay should be set to:
A. 15 to 20 seconds.
B. 25 to 35 seconds.
C. 60 to 70 seconds.
D. 5 to 20 minutes.

A

C. 60 to 70 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of scan moves the table to a specific location & keeps it stationary while the x-ray tube rotates around the pt?

A

Axial mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Iterative reconstruction (IR) techniques:
A. automatically sets DFOV.
B. enhances image quality & allows lower radiation dose.
C. ensure correct WW and WL settings.
D. decrease reconstruction time.

A

B. enhances image quality & allows lower radiation dose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For a CT of the abdomen:
A. the pt holds their breath on inspiration during acquisition.
B. use a DFOV between 18 and 25 cm.
C. a slice thickness of 10 mm is reconstructed.
D. the pt is positioned supine with both arms at their sides.

A

A. the pt holds their breath on inspiration during acquisiton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the primary purpose of pre-patient beam collimation?

A

Controlling the amount of radiation exposure to the pt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In SSCT system, a long interscan delay can result in:

A

Misregistration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Rectal contrast is commonly used to evaluate:

A

Staging of colon cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The _________ is used to compute a CT system’s spatial resolution.

A

Modulation transfer function (MTF).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The radiology information system (RIS) is used to:

A

Track patients.

Other functions include: pt scheduling, billing, and storing reports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A _________ acquisition is composed of numerous axial scans acquired at a single anatomic level over a present length of time.

A

Cine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What WL and WW settings are used to evaluate lung parenchyma?

A

WL -450 and WW 1400.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

While performing skin prep for a CT biopsy procedure, how many times can the same sponge pass over the pt’s skin in the area being scrubbed?

A

ONCE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

__________ is a malignant tumor most often found in long bones such as the femur.
A. Chondroblastoma.
B. Osteoid osteoma.
C. Enchondroma.
D. Osteosarcoma.

A

D. Osteosarcoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The radiation dose measurement for x-ray energy absorbed in a unit of mass is:

A

Absorbed dose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A ROI measurement yields a CT number of -100. This could indicate which of the following tissues?
A. Fat.
B. Blood.
C. CSF.
D. Muscle.

A

B. Blood (HU = 100!!).

28
Q

Which of the following vessels is one of the three branches that arise from the celiac artery?
A. IVC.
B. Superior mesenteric artery.
C. Portal vein.
D. Common hepatic artery.

A

D. Common hepatic artery.

  1. Left gastric artery.
  2. Splenic artery.
29
Q

Which of the following best represents a typical soft-tissue window setting?
A. WW 100, WL 30.
B. WW 350, WL 50.
C. WW 1500, WL -600.
D. WW 1800, WL 400.

A

B WW 350, WL 50.

30
Q

All of the following factors affect pixel dimension and voxel volume, EXCEPT:
A. DFOV.
B. Section width.
C. Matrix size.
D. WW and WL settings.

A

D. WW and WL settings.

31
Q

When measuring blood pressure, the last pulsation or level at which the pulse disappears is the:

A

Diastolic pressure.

32
Q

The standardized process for storing patient exposure data for each CT exam is the:
A. DICOM.
B. PACS.
C. Radiation Dose Structure Report (RDSR).
D. CT Dose Index (CTDI).

A

C. RDSR.

33
Q

The CT number for each pixel is calculated by comparing the scanned tissue’s attenuation value to that of:

A

Water.

34
Q

What scan parameters are set for a prone acquisition high-resolution (HRCT) of the chest?
A. 1 to 2 mm intervals, standard algorithm.
B. 1 to 2 mm intervals, bone algorithm.
C. 10 to 20 mm intervals, standard algorithm.
D. 10 to 20 mm intervals, bone algorithm.

A

Answer: D.

35
Q

Abnormal accumulation in the pleural cavity is called:

A

Pleural effusion.

36
Q

What is the purpose of the detector array in a CT image?

A

To measure the amount of x-ray photons transmitted through the patient.

37
Q

The most common type of complication after a CT-guided biopsy of the lung is:
A. Pleural effusion.
B. Pulmonary embolus.
C. Pneumothorax.
D. Pneumonia.

A

C. Pneumothorax.

38
Q

For a CT of the orbits on a patient with metal dental work, the technologist should:

A

Angle the gantry slightly to avoid streaking.

39
Q

During a CT cardiac study, sublingual nitroglycerin may be administered to:

A

Dilate coronary vessels.

40
Q

Normal adult creatine lab values are in the range of:

A

0.6-1.5 mg/Dl.

41
Q

For a MPR created from an axial image of a scapula, the oblique sagittal MPR should be parallel to the:
A. Clavicle.
B. Coracoid process.
C. Body of the scapula.
D. Surface of the glenoid fossa.

A

D. Surface of the glenoid fossa.

42
Q

Which of the following CT exams would result in the lowest radiation dose to the patient?
A. Cine brain perfusion scan.
B. Lateral chest localizer scan.
C. CTA of the carotids.
D. Helical CT abdomen with contrast.

A

B. Lateral chest localizer scan.

43
Q

After an intrathecal injection of contrast media, the patient should:

A

have their upper body elevated to a 35- to 45-degree angle.

44
Q

What lab values is useful in evaluating suspected hepatitis, cirrhosis, or liver malignancy?

A

Alkaline phosphate (ALP).

45
Q

The power capacity or output of a CT machine is measured in:

A

Kilowatts (kW).

46
Q

The _________ dose measurement is most useful for helical scans because it incorporates estimated radiation dose along the x-, y- and z-axes.

A

CTDIvol.

47
Q

_____ interactions are responsible for the polyenergetic, or heterogeneous, nature of the x-ray beam.

A

Bremsstrahlung.

48
Q

Which of the following abdominal organs is retroperitoneal?
A. Sigmoid colon.
B. Jejunum.
C. Pancreas.
D. Liver.

A

C. Pancreas.

(Others are Intraperitoneal organs!).

49
Q

When performing a helical scan, the MSAD is determined by the:
A. Imaging spacing.
B. Scan length.
C. DFOV.
D. Pitch.

A

D. Pitch.

50
Q

For a CT scan of the abdomen & pelvis with oral contrast, the suspension should be:
A. 1-3% barium sulfate.
B. 10-15% barium sulfate.
C. 30-35% barium sulfate.
D. 50-75% barium sulfate.

A

A. 1-3% barium sulfate.

51
Q

_____ is a benign tumor that can develop in the long bones of the body, and is sometimes seen during CT extremity procedures.
A. Osteosarcoma.
B. Osteoid osteoma.
C. Multiple Myeloma.
D. Chondrosarcoma.

A

B. Osteoid osteoma.

52
Q

Radiation dose distribution is more uniform for CT procedures than diagnostic radiography because:
A. x-ray exposure is delivered in a 360-degree tube arc.
B. Higher kVp is isued.
C. Post-patient collimation is used.
D. Less beam filtration is used.

A

Answer: A.

53
Q

For a patient with diagnosed or suspected lung cancer, a CT chest scan should extend through the:

A

Adrenal Glands (cancer can spread down to them!).

54
Q

What dose measurement takes into account the length of a CT scans range?

A

DLP.

55
Q

What phase of liver enhancement is optimal for the evaluation of fatty infiltration of the liver?

A

Noncontrast or unenhanced.

56
Q

CT images that are acquired with EQUAL section thickness & interval are called:

A

Contiguous images.

57
Q

All else being equal, which of the following parameters would generate a MPR with the highest quality?
A. Axial scan with 10 mm section width.
B. Axial scan with a 15-degree gantry angle.
C. Helical scan with 50% overlap.
D. Helical scan with noncontiguous image.

A

C. Helical scan with 50% overlap.

58
Q

Where is the apical pulse found?

A

Over the apex of the heart.All

59
Q

of the following are methods for preventing contrast-media-induced nephropathy (CIN) EXCEPT:
A. minimizing the volume of contrast media used.
B. ensuring sufficient patient hydration.
C. Allowing a minimum of 48 hours between procedures requiring IV contrast.
D. using a high-osmolar contrast media (HOCM).

A

Answer: D.

60
Q

How long should a CT scan of the spine be delayed after the patient has a myelogram with intrathecal contrast?

A

1 to 3 hours.

61
Q

What type of contrast has osmolality equal to that of blood?

A

Iso-osmolar contrast media (ICOM).

62
Q

Why should a noncontrast CT head scan be performed before administering tissue plasminogen activator (t-pA) for a stroke?
A. to determine level of blood flow.
B. To rule out neoplasm.
C. To evaluate for arteriovenous malformation.
D. To differentiate ischemic stroke from hemorrhagic stroke.

A

D. To differentiate ischemic stroke from hemorrhagic stroke.

63
Q

To prevent improper registration caused by irregular patient breathing during a CT of the chest:

A

The scan is completed during a single breath-hold.

64
Q

Why is a split bolus technique preferred for a CT urogram?
A. to speed up the exam.
B. to visualize two contrast phases in one, reducing radiation dose.
C. to visualize renal calculi in the ureters.
D. to visualize the excretory phase.

A

B - to visualize two contrast phases in one, reducing radiation dose.

65
Q

After performing a CTA, how long of a delay is required before scanning the lower extremities to evaluate for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A

180 seconds.

66
Q

CT linearity calibrations should be performed:
A. daily.
B. weekly.
C. monthly.
D. annually.

A

A. Daily.

67
Q

What type of reconstruction algorithm is best for displaying bony anatomy?
A. smoothing algorithm.
B. high spatial frequency algorithm.
C. standard algorithm.
D. soft tissue algorithm.

A

B. high frequency algorithm.