Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CT Cross Training > Mosby Simulated Examination Three > Flashcards

Mosby Simulated Examination Three Flashcards

1
Q

A pt’s blood pressure is measured as 140/70. The number 140 represents:

A

the pressure within the arterial vessels during contraction of the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The use of water as an oral contrast material for CT of the abdomen and/or pelvis has several potential advantages, including (Pick 1 or more)
1. Increased palatability & improved pt comfort.
2. Better demonstration of enhancing bowel wall.
3. No interference with 3-D applications.

A

1, 2, and 3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A(n) __________ contrast material may be described as one that does not dissociate into charged particles.
A. Neutral.
B. Non-ionic.
C. Osmolar.
D. Ionic.

A

B. Non-ionic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Proper immobilization during a CT procedure may involve the use of:
1. soft-hook-and-loop (e.g. Velctro) immobilization straps.
2. adhesive medical tape.
3. good patient communication.

A

1 and 3 only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The normal range of GFR for men is:

A

70 +/- 14 mL/min/m^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Risk factors for contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN) include:
1. diabetes.
2. advanced age.
3. hematuria.

A

1 and 2 only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The reduction in number of infectious organisms without a complete elimination is termed:
A. medical asepsis.
B. sterilization.
C. surgical asepsis.
D. immunization.

A

A. medical asepsis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is the preferred range for pt heart rate for optimal cardiac CT studies?
A. 65-75 bpm.
B. 75-85 bpm.
C. 85-95 bpm.
D. > 100 bpm.

A

A. 65-75 bpm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Urticaria is which of the following?
A. severe nausea with associated vomiting.
B. UTI.
C. Hives.
D. Bronchospasm.

A

C. Hives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following type(s) of oral contrast material could cause peritonitis if leakage from the digestive tract occurs from perforation?
A. Iopamidol (Gastrografin).
B. Barium sulfate.
C. Diatrizoate (Hypaque).
D. Effervescent granules.

A

B. Barium Sulfate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of an automatic power injector over the manual bolus method of IV contrast administration?
A. uniform contrast enhancement throughout the examination.
B. consistent contrast agent administration for all pts.
C. decreased risk of contrast-induced neprhotoxicity (CIN).
D. shorter injection time.

A

C. Decreased risk of contrast-induced neprhotoxicity (CIN).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is/are SEVERE reaction(s) to iodinated IV contrast?
1. Anaphylaxis.
2. Urticaria.
3. Vomiting.

A

1 only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following lab values is the MOST dependable measure of renal function?
A. BUN.
B. Creatine.
C. PT.
D. PTT.

A

B. Creatine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following angiocatheter sizes may be safely used for the automated power injection of iodinated contrast agent at flow rates higher than 3 mL/sec?
1. 18-gauge.
2. 20-gauage.
3. 22-gauage.

A

1 and 2 only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following portions of the electrocardiogram (ECG) corresponds to the period of atrial systole?
A. P wave.
B. QRS complex.
C. Alpha wave.
D. T wave. E

A

A. P wave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe the IV injection of medication or contrast agent in one complete dose over a short time?
A. Infusion.
B. Bolus.
C. IV drip.
D. Infus-A-port.

A

B. Bolus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Used in determining the biologic effect of iodinated contrast media, the term __________ refers to the number of ions formed when a substance dissociates in a solution.

A

Osmolality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The injection rate of an automatic injector is set at 1.5 mL/sec. What is the injection time for a contrast agent volume of 150 mL?
A. 60 seconds.
B. 90 seconds.
C. 100 seconds.
D. 120 seconds.

A

100 seconds (150 divided 1.5 = 100).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following must be included when one is obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure?
1. explanation of the examination techniques.
2. the possible risks & benefits of the examination.
3. alternatives to the procedure involved.

A

1, 2, and 3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following may be considered a low-osmolar contrast medium?
1. Iothalamate meglumine.
2. Diatrizoate sodium.
3. Iohexol.

A

3 only.

examples of LOCM are:
Iohexol (Omnipaque)
Iopamidol (Isovue).
Ioversol (Optiray).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

After the intrathecal injection of iodinated contrast agent for a post-myelography CT study of the lumbar spine, the pt should be instructed to:
A. take a cleansing enema.
B. Resume normal activity.
C. Rest for 8-24 hours with the head slightly elevated.
D. Rest for 8-24 hours in the Trendelenburg position.

A

C.

22
Q

Which of the following pharmaceuticals may be administered before a cardiac CT procedure in an effort to improve visualization of the coronary vessels? (Pick 1 or more)
1. B-blocker.
2. Nitroglycerin.
3. Metformin.

A

1 and 2 only.

23
Q

During CT examination of the chest & abdomen the highly radiosensitive breast tissue can be protected with minimal image artifact with the use of specialized shielding composed of:
A. Barium.
B. Aluminum.
C. Lead.
D. Bismuth.

A

D. Bismuth.

24
Q

As part of a comprehensive approach to minimize CT radiation exposure to the pediatric pt, the technologist should: (Pick 1 or more)
1. precisely limit the acquisition to the indicated anatomical area.
2. refuse to perform unnecessary CT examinations.
3. reduce the technical parameters (e.g., mA, kVp) based upon the body habitus.

A

1 and 3 only.

25
Q

AN x-ray photon may lose some of its energy in an interaction with an outer-shell electron of a target atom within the pt in the interaction known as:

A

Compton scatter.

26
Q

Which of the following may be used to calculate DLP of a CT acquisition? (Pick 1 or more)
1. DLP = slice width (cm) x pitch.
2. DLP = MSAD x slice width (cm) x # slices in scan volume.
3. DLP = CTDIvol x scan length (cm)

A

2 and 3 only.

27
Q

If all other technical factors remain constant, which of the following would serve to decrease pt radiation dose during a helical single-slice CT (SSCT) examination?
A. decreased SFOV.
B. decreased filtration.
C. Increased pitch.
D. Increased matrix size.

A

C. increased pitch.

28
Q

ECG-gated tube current modulation may effectively reduce pt radiation dose during which of the following procedures?
A. CT colonography.
B. Brain perfusion CT.
C. CT urogram.
D. Cardiac CT.

A

D. Cardiac CT.

29
Q

Which of the following radiation dose indices is a measure of the total radiation exposure for an entire series of CT images?
A. CTDI100.
B. DLP.
C. CTDIvol.
D. MSAD.

A

B. DLP.

30
Q

What measures the dose to each slice along a helically acquired volume?

A

CTDIvol.

31
Q

Effective dose is a relative radiation dose measurement term that accounts for the:
A. beam pitch.
B. tissue radiosensitivity.
C. detector pitch.
D. collimation.

A

B. Tissue radiosensitivity.

32
Q

The dose modulation capabilities of a CT scanner may include automatic control of: (Pick 1 or more).
1. tube current (milliamperage).
2. tube potential (applied kilovoltage).
3. focus-to-isocenter distance (cms).

A

1 and 2 only.

33
Q

What is Uriticaria?

A

Hives.

34
Q

Which lab value is most dependable measurement of renal function?
A. BUN.
B. Creatinine.
C. PT.
D. PTT.

A

B. Creatinine.

35
Q

Which is true regarding the relationship b/t MSAD and image spacing during axial (step & shoot) scanning?
A. MSAD decreases with overlapping scans.
B. MSAD increases with overlapping scans.
C. MSAD increases with noncontiguous scans.
D. MSAD equals the product of image spacing & pitch.

A

B. MSAD increases with overlapping scans.

36
Q

Dosimetry index used to approximate the radiation dose for CT sections acquired during a helical scan is called:
A. CTDIw.
B. Effective dose.
C. CTDIvol.
D. Equivalent dose.

A

C. CTDIvol.

37
Q

Which technique may be employed to reduce pt radiation dose during cardiac CT exams?

A

C. Prospective ECG gating.

38
Q

Compared to SSCT, pt radiation dose during MDCT may be higher because of: (Pick 1 or more)
1. use of cone beam radiation.
2. acquisitions at thinner section widths.
3. higher-powered x-ray tubes.

A

1 and 2 only.

39
Q

__________ benign, highly vascular mass commonly found in the liver.

A

Hemangioma.

40
Q

Which is the preferred contrast enhancement phase for CT of the spleen?
A. pre-contrast phase.
B. equilibrium phase.
C. arterial phase.
D. portal venous phase.

A

D. Portal venous phase.

41
Q

Which describes the appearance of an acute subdural hematoma on a CT brain?
A. radiolucent.
B. hyperdense.
C. hypodense.
D. isodense.

A

B. Hyperdense.

42
Q

Benign mass of the 8th cranial nerve known as vestibular schwannoma may also be referred to as:

A

Acoustic neuroma.

43
Q

The thick layered portion of the peritoneum that is responsible for attaching portions of the intestines to the bowel well is called the:

A

Mesentery.

44
Q

After initiation of bolus contrast, the nephrographic phase of renal contrast enhancement occurs at:

A

70-90 sec

45
Q

Which of the following dosages would be sufficient to opacify the rectosigmoid region?
A. 150-250 mL.
B. 300-500 mL.
C. 500-750 mL.
D. 900 - 1100 mL.

A

A. 150-250 mL.

46
Q

Late effects of radiation, such as genetic mutations, may occur with even small doses of radiation & are termed:
A. stochastic.
B. somatic.
C. non-stochastic.
D. chronic.

A

A. stochastic.

47
Q

Assuming no other technical changes are made, which of the following adjustments would result in DECREASED radiation dose to the pt for a given CT acquisition? (Pick 1 or more)
1. eliminate a clinically unnecessary contrast phase acquisition.
2. increase the tolerated noise level of scan.
3. increase kVp from 100 to 140.
4. increase pitch from 1.0 to 1.5.
5. decrease the scan length along the z-axis.

A

1, 2, 4 and 5.

48
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship b/t MSAD and image spacing during axial (step-and-shoot) scanning?
A. MSAD decreases with overlapping scans.
B. MSAD increases with overlapping scans.
C. MSAD increases with noncontiguous scans.
D. MSAD equals the product of image spacing & pitch.

A

B. MSAD increases with overlapping scans.

49
Q

The dosimetry index used to approximate the radiation dose for CT sections acquired during a helical scan is called the:

A

CTDIvol.

50
Q

Which of the following techniques may be employed to reduce pt radiation dose during a cardiac CT examination?
A. retrospective electrocardiogram (ECG) gating.
B. z-axis interploation.
C. prospective ECG gating.
D. multisegment reconstruction.

A

C. Prospective ECG gating.

51
Q
A

CT Cross Training (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions