MONITORING and CONTROL 25% slide 560 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not an objective of the
Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A) Track, review, and regulate project progress
and performance
B) Identify areas in which changes to the plans
are required and initiate change requests
where needed
C) Objectively evaluate and formally accept
project deliverables
D) Deliver project deliverables, once completed,
to the customer

M/C • Integration Management • General

A

D) Deliver project deliverables,
once completed, to the customer
While the project team does ensure that
all deliverables meet the quality standards
(Control Quality) and are approved by the
customer (Validate Scope), no deliverable
is officially transferred to the customer
until the end of the project in the Close
Project or Phase process.

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2
Q
Which of the following is not produced
during the Monitoring and Controlling
Process Group?
A) Work performance data
B) Work performance information
C) Work performance reports
D) Schedule and cost forecasts

M/C • Integration Management • General

A

A) Work performance
data

Work performance data are produced
during the Executing Process Group by
the Direct and Manage Project Work
process. The data are a valuable input
to the processes in the Monitoring and
Controlling Process Group.
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3
Q
The Monitor and Control Project
Work process provides insights into
the health of a project by tracking,
reviewing, and reporting on actual
vs. expected progress.
True or False:

M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work

A
True
The focus of the Monitor and
Control Project Work process is
to maintain a clear understanding
of how the project is progressing
against the project baselines and
project plans.
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4
Q

Which document, produced as a key
output of the Monitor and Control
Project Work process, summarizes
project performance and forecasts?

M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work

A

Work performance reports

Work performance reports
summarize work performance
information concisely and are
critical to keep stakeholders aware
of the project’s progress and to
generate decisions or action.
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5
Q

_______are submitted to correct current and potential
project performance issues.

M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work

A

Change requests

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6
Q

How are work performance data translated into work performance information?

M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work

A
Data analysis
It is through data analysis that
the raw work performance data
are translated directly into work
performance information. This is
one of the primary activities that
occurs in the M/C Process Group.
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7
Q

What is the desired impact of the work performance reports generated as an output of the Monitor and
Control Project Work process?

M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work

A

To maintain stakeholder awareness

and generate decisions or action

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8
Q
Which of the following is not a type
of action that would initiate a change
request?
A) Corrective actions
B) Preventative actions
C) Defect repairs
D) Progress updates

M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work

A
D) Progress updates
The three main drivers for change
requests to improve performance are
corrective actions, preventative actions,
and defect repairs. Progress updates
alone are not drivers for change requests,
but they may convey information that
drives the need for a change request.
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9
Q

Work performance information
provides insights into the
effectiveness in meeting project _______.

M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work

A
Objectives
Work performance information
indicates how the project is
performing in scope, schedule,
budget, quality, etc. These results
are compared against the project plan
to determine the degree of variance
from the plan and if preventative/
corrective actions are required.
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10
Q

Which three types of documents
provide the baseline standards
and additional performance data
needed to assess project progress?

M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work

A

Project plans, project documents, and agreements

The project plans provide the expected plans and baselines by which progress is
evaluated.

The documents can provide progress reports, forecasts, logs, and
standards.

The agreements define what contractors must deliver.

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11
Q

Which type of analysis identifies the difference between planned performance and actual performance?

M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work

A

Variance analysis

Variance analysis is a key tool
and technique used during the Monitor and Control Project Work process to determine the condition of the project.

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12
Q

What is the difference between root cause analysis and alternatives analysis?

M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work

A

Root cause analysis identifies the main reasons
for an issue or variance between planned and actual performance.

Alternatives analysis is used to evaluate and select
the best corrective or preventative action
to improve project performance.

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13
Q

Any change request that potentially impacts a project baseline must be evaluated using the formal
process.

M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control

A

Perform Integrated Change Control

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14
Q

In which process are the approved change requests implemented?

M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control

A

Direct and Manage Project Work

All approved change requests
flow back to the Direct and
Manage Project Work process as
inputs to be implemented.

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15
Q

Describe the method by which change requests are recorded and submitted.

M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control

A
Change requests must be
recorded in written form
and entered into the change
management system in order to
be eligible for evaluation.
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16
Q

Data analysis is used by the ________ to evaluate the impact of each change request.

M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control

A

Change control board (CCB)

All change requests submitted must be evaluated by a CCB. This
board evaluates the total impact of the proposed change and renders a decision.

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17
Q

Name the three options that the change control board has when evaluating a change request.

M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control

A

Approve, defer, or reject

Every change request must be
approved, deferred, or rejected
by the change control board
(CCB).

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18
Q

What are the three most common
decision-making techniques used by a
change control board to render a final
decision on a change request?

M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control

A
  • Voting,
  • autocratic decision making, and
  • multicriteria decision making
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19
Q

Change requests can only be implemented after they are transformed into _____.

M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control

A
Approved change
requests
Change requests can only be
implemented after they are
transformed into approved
change requests
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20
Q
Which portion of the project
management plan must be updated if a
change request is submitted, approved,
and results in additional costs?
A) WBS dictionary
B) Cost baseline
C) Schedule baseline
D) Communication plan

M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control

A
B) Cost baseline
The approved change request
authorizes the increase of
additional costs for the project.
The cost baseline must be
adjusted to reflect the increase.
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21
Q
If a potential problem is identified
in a project, but the team does not
believe it justifies the creation of
a change request at the present
time, where should the information
be recorded?

M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control

A
Issue log
The issue log is used to record and
track issues of all magnitudes in the
project. While the issue identified
may not currently require a change
request, it is prudent to record it
on the issue log so that it may be
tracked going forward.
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22
Q

_______ is the process of obtaining the customer’s formal acceptance of completed project
deliverables.

M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope

A
Validate Scope
The purpose of the Validate
Scope process is to obtain the
customer’s formal acceptance
of the completed project
deliverables.
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23
Q

The verified deliverable that are produced as outputs by the _____________ process are the main inputs leveraged by the Validate Scope process.

M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope

A
Control Quality
The verified deliverables
produced by the Control Quality
process are what are evaluated
for formal customer acceptance
in the Validate Scope process.
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24
Q

What is the difference between the
Control Quality and Validate Scope
processes?

M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope

A

Control Quality confirms that
quality standards are met.

Validate Scope confirms
the customer accepts the
deliverables.

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25
Q

______________ is the formal document signifying that the customer has accepted a deliverable
as complete and satisfactory.

M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope

A

Accepted deliverable

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26
Q

What must occur for a verified deliverable to become an accepted deliverable?

M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope

A

the customer must
confirm that the acceptance
criteria have been met.

A formal signature confirming
acceptance must be obtained
from the customer.

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27
Q
Which document produced in
the Planning Process Group links
the project requirements to the
deliverables that satisfy them?
M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope
A
Requirements
traceability matrix
The requirements traceability
matrix produced in the Collect
Requirements process visually
displays the deliverables that
must be satisfied.
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28
Q

Which two techniques are used to
evaluate that verified deliverables
meet acceptance criteria?
M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope

A

Inspection and
decision making

Inspection includes measuring,
examining, and validating each
deliverable.

Decision making, often
including voting, is the method by
which a conclusion is reached.

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29
Q
The accepted deliverables produced
by the Validate Scope process are
forwarded to which process as an
input?
M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope
A

Close Project or Phase

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30
Q

Define the primary purpose of the
Control Scope process.

M/C • Scope Management • Control Scope

A
The Control Scope process
is focused on monitoring the
status and managing changes
to the scope baseline to prevent
scope creep.
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31
Q
Which key output of the Control
Scope process summarizes the
actual scope performance against
the scope baseline?
M/C • Scope Management • Control Scope
A

Work performance information

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32
Q

__________ and project documents provide the facts required to identify significant variances between the scope performance and the performance baseline.
M/C • Scope Management • Control Scope

A

Work performance data

Work performance data provide
the raw materials that are
analyzed within the Control
Scope process to produce the
work performance information.
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33
Q
Which analysis technique used
during the Control Scope process
determines if project performance
is improving or deteriorating by
examining historical results?
M/C • Scope Management • Control Scope
A

Trend analysis

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34
Q

How does variance analysis work
and what type of actions could
it facilitate?

M/C • Scope Management • Control Scope

A

Variance analysis compares the
baseline to the actual results.

If the variance exceeds a threshold, then
corrective or preventative action may
be developed.

If the actions impact
the baseline, then a change request
will be generated.

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35
Q

The Control Scope process is conducted throughout the life of the project.
True or False:

M/C • Scope Management • Control Scope

A
True
After the scope baseline is defined,
the Control Scope process must be
conducted throughout the entire
project. This process is essential
as it helps to monitor the success
of the project and the prevention of
scope creep.
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36
Q
Schedule-related work
performance information, such
as SV and SPI, are fed back (as
inputs) into which process?
M/C • Schedule Management • Control Schedule
A

Monitor and Control Project Work

The Monitor and Control Project
Work process tracks, summarizes,
and reports on the overall project
performance.

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37
Q

The ________ visually displays
the amount of work completed and
uncompleted over time.
M/C • Schedule Management • Control Schedule

A

Iteration burndown chart

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38
Q

Define the primary purpose of
the Control Schedule process.
M/C • Schedule Management • Control Schedule

A
The Control Schedule process
involves monitoring and
maintaining an accurate
schedule baseline throughout
the completion of the project.
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39
Q
Which of the following is not a method
to bring a project schedule back into
alignment with the plan?
A) Resource compression
B) Resource optimization
C) Leads and lags
D) Schedule compression

M/C • Schedule Management • Control Schedule

A

A) Resource compression

Resource compression is not
an actual technique. The three
common methods are resource
optimization, lead and lag analysis,
and schedule compression.
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40
Q

How do schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance (SPI) differ when analyzing a project’s
schedule performance?

M/C • Schedule Management • Control Schedule

A

Schedule variance defines the
amount a project is ahead/behind
the schedule baseline.

Schedule performance defines
how efficiently the team is
completing the work.

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41
Q

By which standard is the actual schedule performance evaluated during the Control Schedule process?

M/C • Schedule Management • Control Schedule

A
Schedule baseline
The schedule baseline is the
standard by which schedule
progress is evaluated during the
Control Schedule process.
42
Q
The Control Costs process centers on
understanding both the total amount
spent and the of the
money spent to complete project
activities.
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs
A
Effectiveness
Analysis conducted during the
Control Cost process determines
the effectiveness of the money
spent on a project by analyzing the
total amount spent and the value
generated from the spend.
43
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ integrates scope,
schedule, and cost to answer the
question, “Has the plan been effective
in delivering the desired results?”
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs
A
Earned value
management (EVM)
EVM integrates the cost,
schedule, and scope performance
and evaluates it against the
baseline.
44
Q

Which variable defines the total budget amount allocated for the project?

M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs

A

Budget at completion (BAC)

45
Q
Planned value (PV) defines the value
of work that \_\_\_\_\_\_\_  done.

M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs

A
Should be
Planned value (PV) defines the
value of the work that should be
done. This creates the standard
by which progress will be
measured.
46
Q
Earned value (EV) defines the value
of work that \_\_\_\_\_  done.
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs
A
Is
Earned value (EV) defines the
value of the work that is done.
This is often used to calculate the
project’s completion percentage.
47
Q
Schedule variance (SV)
determines the amount a project
is ahead/behind the schedule
baseline. What does a negative
schedule baseline indicate?
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs
A
Project is behind
schedule
A negative SV indicates that a
project is behind schedule, while
projects with positive SVs are
ahead of schedule.
48
Q

At the completion of a project,
what will the SV value be?
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs

A
Zero
The schedule variance will
always be zero at the end of the
project because all of the work
planned is completed.
49
Q
Your project team has been more
efficient than originally projected
in completing the project work.
What would you expect the SPI
value to be?
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs
A
Above 1
SPI values above 1 indicate that
more work has been completed
than planned at the period of
time (indicating that the team
has been more efficient than
expected).
50
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ variable
determines if the project is ahead
or behind the budget defined in
the cost baseline.
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs
A
Cost variance (CV)
The cost variance (CV)
determines the amount of budget
deficit or surplus at a given time.
51
Q

State the only difference between
the CV and CPI equations.
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs

A
A division symbol
The equations for CV and CPI are
nearly identical in structure. The
only difference is that there is a
division symbol in the CPI equation:
CV = EV - AC
CPI = EV / AC
52
Q
Which EVM variable calculates
the expected total cost of the
project at the completion of all
project work?
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs
A
Estimate at
completion (EAC)
EAC determines the expected
total cost at the completion of all
project work.
53
Q
The estimate to complete (ETC)
calculates the expected cost to finish
all the remaining project work.
True or False:
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs
A
True
Estimate at complete (ETC)
calculates the expected cost
to finish all the remaining
project work.
ETC = EAC - AC
54
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_  variable
determines the CPI that must
be achieved with the remaining
resources to meet a specific
management goal.
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs
A
To-complete
performance index (TCPI)
TCPI evaluates the current
performance and determines the
CPI rate that must be maintained
to hit a defined management goal.
Two equations exist to calculate the
TCPI to meet the management goals
of BAC or EAC.
55
Q

Is a TCPI above or below 1 more
difficult to meet?
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs

A
Above 1
TCPI values above 1 are more
difficult to meet because the team
must perform at a level more
efficient than originally planed in
the project cost baseline.
56
Q

Which type of analysis evaluates
the amount of management and
contingency reserves still remaining?
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs

A
Reserve analysis
Reserve analysis is used
during the Control Costs
process to track the amount
of reserves remaining.
57
Q

What is the purpose of the Control
Quality process?
M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality

A

ensure project outputs are

complete, correct, and satisfactory to customers

by monitoring and recording quality results.

58
Q
Control quality determines if the
project outputs do what they were
intended to do.
True or False:
M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality
A
True
The Control Quality process
determines if the project outputs
(deliverables) do what they were
intended to do.
59
Q
The Control Quality process is
generally performed before the
Validate Scope process, although
the two processes could be
performed in \_\_\_\_\_  .
M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality
60
Q

What is the primary output of the
Control Quality process?
M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality

A

Verified deliverable
Verified deliverables confirm that
the project deliverables do what
they were intended to do.

61
Q
Which data gathering technique uses
a smaller sample to measure quality
and infer the total quality of a larger
population?
M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality
A

Statistical

sampling

62
Q
Name the simple, yet powerful, data
gathering technique used to gather
attribute data while performing
inspections (ie: defects).
M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality
A

Check sheets

63
Q

When a quality issue is identified,
which type of data analysis
technique is often leveraged to
investigate the cause?

M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality

A
Root cause analysis
Root cause analysis aims to
identify the core problem
driving an issue so that it can be
eliminated
64
Q
The team has used a chart to
determine whether or not a
process is stable. Which chart
have they leveraged?
M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality
A

Control chart

65
Q

Which quality tool is used to help
identify the possible root cause
driving a defect?
M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality

A
Cause-and-effect
diagram
Also known as a fishbone or
Ishikawa diagram, the cause-andeffect
diagram helps to identify
the root cause of a defect.
66
Q

What is the goal of the Control
Resources process?
M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources

A
Right resources, right
place, right time
The goal of the Control Resources
process is to ensure that the right
resources are available at the
right place and time and in the
right quantity.
67
Q

The Control Resources process is
focused on coordinating both physical
and team resources.

True or False:
M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources

A
False
The Control Resources process is
focused only on the coordination
of physical resources, not team
resources.
68
Q

The act of monitoring and analyzing the
actual vs. planned resource allocation,
during the Control Resources process,
produces __________ that can
highlight gaps in resources availability.
M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources

A

Work performance

information

69
Q
Throughout a project, the team
recognizes two examples of
extremely effective resource
utilization. Where should this
information be recorded?
M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources
A

Lesson learned

register

70
Q
Name two critical “soft skills” that
are often used to obtain additional
resources and solve problems during
the Control Resources process.
M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources
A

Negotiation and influence

71
Q

Which project document shows
when resources are available to
the project?
M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources

A

Resources

calendar

72
Q
What type of data analysis is used
during the Control Resources process
to better understand the economic
impacts of a decision?
M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources
A

Cost-benefit

analysis

73
Q

Define the purpose of the Monitor
Communications process.
M/C • Comm. Management • Monitor Communications

A

evaluation of actual communications

and initiates changes to improve results when needed.

74
Q
What are four ways in which
the team achieves the goal of
ensuring each stakeholder’s
communication needs are met?
M/C • Comm. Management • Monitor Communications
A

1) Monitoring the actual
communications delivered by
the Manage Communications
process

2) Evaluating the effectiveness of
communications

3) Understanding changes in
stakeholder needs

4) Triggering changes to the
communications plan

75
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ matrix
provides the desired stakeholder
engagement level that the
communications management
plan was designed to achieve.
M/C • Comm. Management • Monitor Communications
A

Stakeholder

engagement matrix

76
Q
During which process was the
stakeholder engagement matrix,
which defines the current vs. desired
engagement levels, created?
M/C • Comm. Management • Monitor Communications
A

Plan Stakeholder
Engagement (13.2)
process

77
Q
Which project document should
be updated to record engagement
and communications issues
uncovered during the Monitor
Communications process?
M/C • Comm. Management • Monitor Communications
78
Q

If a change request was submitted and
approved to modify the approach, frequency,
or method of communicating information,
which document or plan would be least likely
to be updated?
A) Communications management plan
B) Stakeholder engagement plan
C) Requirements traceability matrix
D) Lessons learned register
M/C • Comm. Management • Monitor Communications

A

C) Requirements
traceability matrix

Updates to the methods of
communication would most likely
be recorded in the communications
management plan, stakeholder
engagement plan, and lessons
learned register.
79
Q

How does the Monitor Risk process
differ from the Implement Risk
Responses process?
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk

A

The Monitor Risks process evaluates the
effectiveness of risk responses
initiated during the Implement Risk Responses process.

80
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ communicates
whether or not the contingency
reserve remaining is sufficient to
meet the risk remaining.
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk
A

Burndown chart

81
Q
The risk-related \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
generated as the key output of the
Monitor Risks process is fed back (as
an input) into the Monitor and Control
Project Work process. This process
tracks, summarizes, and reports on
overall project performance.
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk
A

Work performance

information

82
Q
Which of the following is not one of the key
objectives of the Monitor Risk process?
A) Monitor the implementation of risk
response plans
B) Track identified risks
C) Identify and analyze new risks
D) Assign individuals to implement new
corrective actions to eliminate new
risks identified
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk
A
D) Assign individuals
to implement new
corrective actions to
eliminate new risks
identified
83
Q
Name the technique commonly
used to determine if the risk
management processes are
followed and effective.
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk
84
Q

Which two types of data analysis are used during
the Monitor Risk process to compare the scheduled
vs. actual technical accomplishments and to
evaluate the impact of risk on contingency reserves?

A) Qualitative risk analysis and quantitative risk
analysis
B) Technical performance analysis and contingency
analysis
C) Technical performance analysis and reserve
analysis
D) Risk categorization and quantitative risk analysis
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk

A

C) Technical performance analysis
and reserve analysis

Technical performance analysis compares
technical accomplishments during project
execution with what was scheduled.

Reserve analysis is used to determine if
the remaining reserve is adequate.

85
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the term that describes
the approaches and contingencies
that project managers build into their
project’s risk processes.
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk
A

Project resilience

86
Q

What type of reserve has been
established to account for
knowable-unknowns?
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk

A

Contingency

reserves

87
Q
The Control Procurements process focuses
on all of the following, except:
A) Establishing contracts with buyers
B) Ensuring that both parties meet
contractual obligations
C) Confirming that the appropriate
buyer parties approve deliverables
D) Resolving all conflicts in a positive
manner
M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements
A
A) Establishing
contracts with buyers
The Control Procurements process
evaluates contract progress and
results and manages the procurement
relationship to improve the likelihood of
project success. The establishment of
contracts is accomplished in the Conduct
Procurements process.
88
Q
Changes to procurements require
adherence to the company’s
internal change request process.
True or False:
M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements
A

False
Changes to procurements must
adhere to the change control
terms defined in the contract

89
Q
The Controlling Procurements
process generates \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 
and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that must
be documented in project
documents/plans.
M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements
A

Work performance
information and
change requests

90
Q

Describe the process required to
close a procurement.
M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements

A

To close the procurement, formal
written notice that the contract
has been completed must be
obtained.

The process is formally
defined in the contract terms and is

usually completed by the authorized
procurement administrator.

91
Q

When conflicts/issues occur in the
fulfillment of a contract, what is the
most optimal method of action?
M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements

A

Negotiations
Negotiations are the
optimal method of resolving
contractual issues.

92
Q

If negotiations are unable to rectify
contractual issues, what method
should be leveraged?
M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements

A
Alternative dispute
resolution (ADR)
Negotiations are the optimal
method to handle conflict. If issues
cannot be resolved, the project
manager must follow the ADR
defined in the contract.
93
Q

What are the key outputs of the
Control Procurement process?
M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements

A
Closed procurements, work
performance information, change
requests, document updates
The goal of the Control Procurements
process is to continually evaluate the
progress of the procurements and make
proper adjustments so that the contract
can be completed on time and budget. The
closed procurements signify the successful
completion of the contract.
94
Q
What two methods are used to
monitor that the deliverables
produced meet the requirements
defined in the contract?
M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements
A

Inspections and audits
In the most simple terms, you
inspect things and you audit
processes.

95
Q
As a project evolves, it is often
necessary to modify the methods
used to engage stakeholders.
True or False:
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
A
True
The primary goal of the Monitor
Stakeholder Engagement process is
to maintain or increase the efficiency
and effectiveness of stakeholder
engagement activities. To accomplish
this, it is often necessary to adjust
the strategies by which each
stakeholder is engaged.
96
Q
The Monitor Stakeholder
Engagement process aims to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ engagement activities as the
project evolves.
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
A
Adapt; improve
As with the Monitor Communications
process, the Monitor Stakeholder
Engagement process constantly gauges
results and quickly initiates changes to
improve the effectiveness of stakeholder
engagement.
97
Q

The team can improve the effectiveness of
stakeholder engagement activities by completing
all of the following, except:
A) Collecting work performance data generated by
the Direct and Manage Project Work process
B) Evaluating if the desired engagement levels are
obtained (actual vs. desired)
C) Removing stakeholders who resist project
progress
D) Generating changes to improve the
effectiveness of engagement activities
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

A

C) Removing stakeholders who
resist project progress
Stakeholders are only removed from the
stakeholder register if they are no longer
impacted by the project. It is not acceptable
to remove stakeholders who resist the project.
The primary goal of the Monitor Stakeholder
Engagement process is to adjust the strategies
used in order to improve the engagement of
stakeholders, especially those resistant

98
Q
On which data representation
document would it be easy to see
which stakeholder currently has
a gap between the actual and
desired engagement level?
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
A

Stakeholder engagement matrix

The stakeholder engagement matrix,
created in the Manage Stakeholder
Engagement process, maps the actual
vs. desired engagement level for each
stakeholder. This document must be
updated throughout the project to reflect
changes.
99
Q

_______ involves listening and then using your words to
clarify and confirm the message that was heard.
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

A

Active listening

100
Q
Which two interpersonal and team
skills must be leveraged when
cultivating strong stakeholder
engagement on international projects?
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
A
Cultural awareness and
political awareness
When developing strong stakeholder
engagement it is extremely important
to be aware of the cultural and
political environments of the different
stakeholders on your project.
101
Q
The completion of stakeholder
analysis has determined that the
planned engagement activities have
failed to deliver the desired level of
engagement for a key stakeholder.
What should the team do next?
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
A

Complete root cause and
then alternatives analysis

Root cause analysis helps define the
reasons for a lack of engagement and
alternatives analysis develops options
to eliminate the variances.

102
Q

__________ provide insights
necessary to understand each
stakeholder’s level of engagement.
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

A
Work performance data
Work performance data define the
project status of the type of engagement
delivered, which stakeholders are
supportive, and the levels of support.
Work performance data and project
documents are key inputs to the Monitor
Stakeholder Engagement process.