EXECUTING 31% slide 434 Flashcards

slide 434

1
Q

The Direct and Manage Project Work
process ensures both the planned
project work and________ are
executed.

Executing • Integration Mgmt • Direct & Manage Proj. Work

A

Approved change requests

Both planned project work and
approved change requests are
inputs to the Direct and Manage
Project Work process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The Manage project knowledge
processes focus on using existing
knowledge and __________ to
improve project outcomes.

Executing • Integration Mgmt • Manage Project Knowledge

A

Creating / recording

new project knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
The deliverables produced by the
Direct and Manage Project Work
process are evaluated to confirm
they meet quality standards
during which process?

Executing • Integration Mgmt • Direct & Manage Proj. Work

A

Control Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
The Direct and Manage Project Work
process is where the “rubber meets
the road” as the team executes
the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_defined in the
project plans.

Executing • Integration Mgmt • Direct & Manage Proj. Work

A

Planned project

activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the raw observations/
measurements produced as
an output of the Direct and
Manage Project Work process?

Executing • Integration Mgmt • Direct & Manage Proj. Work

A

Work performance data

Work performance data are passed
onto the processes in the Monitor
and Control Process Group for
analysis.

Through analysis, the data
are converted into work performance
information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When a change request is approved
in the Perform Integrated Change
Control process, it flows back to the
_______process as an input.

Executing • Integration Mgmt • Direct & Manage Proj. Work

A

Direct and Manage

Project Work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
Which output document should the
project team use to record problems,
gaps, inconsistencies, and conflicts
that occur during the Direct and
Manage Project Work process?

Executing • Integration Mgmt • Direct & Manage Proj. Work

A

Issue log

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which type of knowledge is easily
codified using words, images, and
numbers?

Executing • Integration Mgmt • Manage Project Knowledge

A

Explicit

knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does tacit knowledge differ
from explicit knowledge?

Executing • Integration Mgmt • Manage Project Knowledge

A

Tacit knowledge is personal
and difficult to express
(beliefs, insights, experience,
“know-how”).

In comparison,
explicit knowledge is easily
codified into words, images,
and numbers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Throughout the entire project,
both best practices and problems
must be codified and recorded on
the ______ .

Executing • Integration Mgmt • Manage Project Knowledge

A

Lessons learned

register

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Upon project closure, what must
the project team do with the
lessons learned register?

Executing • Integration Mgmt • Manage Project Knowledge

A
At project closure, the lessons
learned register is finalized
(through interviews with the
team and stakeholders) and then
transferred to the lessons learned
repository so that future projects
can leverage the knowledge.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The _________ process translates the quality
management plan into executable activities that integrate quality policies into the project.

Executing • Quality Management • Manage Quality

A

Manage Quality

process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does quality assurance
measure?

Executing • Quality Management • Manage Quality

A

Quality assurance measures
the effectiveness of a project’s
processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

_______, produced as an output of the Manage Quality
process, are used to evaluate the achievement of quality objectives.

Executing • Quality Management • Manage Quality

A

Test and evaluation

documents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which data representation technique used
in the Manage Quality process breaks down
the causes of a problem and organizes them
into discrete branches, allowing root cause
identification?
A) Flow chart
B) Cause-and-effect diagram
C) Affinity diagram
D) Scatter diagram

Executing • Quality Management • Manage Quality

A

Cause-and-effect diagram

The cause-and-effect diagram
is also known as the fishbone or
Ishikawa diagram.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The scatter diagram graphically
shows the relationship between
two variables.
True or False:

Executing • Quality Management • Manage Quality

A
True
The scatter diagram is a tool and
technique used in the Manage
Quality process that graphically
shows the relationship between
two variables.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
What is the term used to
describe a set of structured
observation techniques used to
determine if project activities
comply with policies, processes,
and procedures?

Executing • Quality Management • Manage Quality

A

Quality audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the key objective of the
three resource management
processes in the Executing
Process Group?

Executing • Resource Management • Acquire Resources

A
The key objective of the
resource management
processes is to obtain, develop,
and manage a team, resources,
and procurements to complete
all project work.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Explain what the resource
calendar does.

Executing • Resource Management • Acquire Resources

A

The resource calendar defines
the exact time frames when
each project resource is
available to the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Does a weak-matrix or strong-matrix
organizational structure offer project
managers less access/control of
resources?

Executing • Resource Management • Acquire Resources

A
Weak-matrix
A weak-matrix organizational
structure is closer to a
projectized structure. Therefore,
the project manager has less
authority to control resources.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which management plan instructs the way in which external resources are obtained?

Executing • Resource Management • Acquire Resources

A

Procurement management plan

The resource management plan
instructs the way in which internal
resources are obtained and

the procurement management
plan instructs on how to obtain
external resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

___________ decision tools allow the project team to
evaluate resource options and select the optimal mix to meet the project’s needs.

Executing • Resource Management • Acquire Resources

A

Multicriteria

Multicriteria decision tools are a key
tool and technique of the Acquire
Resources process.

Criteria areweighted to reflect their relative
importance.

Selection criteria may include resource availability, cost,
experience, or location.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
What resource staffing technique
provides flexibility in building
a project team as it allows the
use of team members spread in
different geographic locations?

Executing • Resource Management • Acquire Resources

A

Virtual team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In order, name the five states of the
Tuckman ladder, which is used to
evaluate team development.

Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team

A

Forming, storming,
norming,
performing,
adjourning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The ________process is
focused on transforming the team
resources acquired into a high-performing
collaborative team.

Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team

A

Develop Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which key output produced by the Develop Team process allows the current status of team development to be addressed and tracked?

Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team

A

Team performance assessments

27
Q

The team’s overall performance
can be improved through which
four actions?

Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team

A

Training, coaching,
mentoring, change
requests

28
Q

The __________ defines in
clear terms the team’s values and
operating guidelines.

Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team

A

Team charter
The team charter is an input to
the 9.4 Develop Team process.

29
Q
Which tool and technique is
often used during the Develop
Team process to strategically
open communication and build
teamwork?

Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team

A
Colocation of team
members
Colocation is the act of assigning
team members to work in the
same location.
30
Q

In which stage of the Tuckman
ladder does the team begin to work
together and to trust each other?

Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team

31
Q

When the team members meet,
learn about their roles, and act
independently at what stage of the
Tuckman ladder are they?

Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team

32
Q

In what stage does a team start
working well together as a unit
and navigating issues smoothly
and effectively?

Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team

A

Performing

33
Q
During what process does the
project manager actively lead
the team, helping them evaluate
performance, navigate conflicts,
and make adjustments to
deliver outputs?

Executing • Resource Management • Manage Team

A

Manage Team

process

34
Q

_________ is the ability to identify, assess, and manage
the emotions of oneself, others, and groups.

Executing • Resource Management • Manage Team

A

Emotional intelligence

35
Q

Name the five conflict resolution
techniques defined in the Manage
Team process.

Executing • Resource Management • Manage Team

A
  • Withdraw/avoid,
  • smooth/accommodate,
  • compromise/reconcile,
  • force/direct,
  • collaborate/problem solve
36
Q

In which conflict resolution
technique does the project manager
retreat from the conflict?

Executing • Resource Management • Manage Team

A

Withdraw/avoid
This technique may cause an
issue to worsen if the issue is
not rectified.

37
Q

By leveraging which conflict
resolution technique would you push
your viewpoint through power, often
creating a win-lose situation?

Executing • Resource Management • Manage Team

A

Force/direct

38
Q
Name the conflict resolution
technique aimed at creating a
win-win situation where both
parties’ viewpoints are shared
and incorporated?

Executing • Resource Management • Manage Team

A

Collaborate/

problem solve

39
Q

What is the potential downside of
using the smooth/accommodate
conflict resolution technique?

Executing • Resource Management • Manage Team

A

Risk of the issue not
being adequately
addressed

Smooth/accommodate involves
emphasizing agreement while
ignoring/conceding differences in
hopes of maintaining harmony.

40
Q

Define the objective of the Manage
Communication process.

Executing • Communications Mgmt. • Manage Communications

A
To effectively collect, store,
and communicate project
information to specific
stakeholders to satisfy
needs and foster appropriate
engagement
41
Q

The Manage Communications
process is conducted only once.
True or False:

Executing • Communications Mgmt. • Manage Communications

A
False
Manage Communications is
an iterative process that is
constantly collecting, evaluating,
storing, and distributing
information from updates, issues,
and changes of other processes.
42
Q

Which term is used to define the
formatted information that is
transmitted to stakeholders by the
Manage Communications process?

Executing • Communications Mgmt. • Manage Communications

A

Project

communications

43
Q

What is the difference between
project reports and work
performance reports?

Executing • Communications Mgmt. • Manage Communications

A

Project reports are ad hoc
reports created in 10.2 Manage
Communications.

Work performance reports are the
official project status reports
produced as an output of 4.5
Monitor and Control Project Work.

44
Q

The ___________ is the software by which project information is distributed.

Executing • Communications Mgmt. • Manage Communications

A

Project management
information system
(PMIS)

45
Q

What are the key objectives of the
Implement Risk Responses process?

Executing • Risk Management • Implement Risk Responses

A
To minimize a project’s
risk exposure and
maximize opportunities by
implementing agreed-upon
risk response plans.
46
Q

What is the name of the individual
responsible for ensuring the risk
response plans for a specific risk
are fully implemented?

Executing • Risk Management • Implement Risk Responses

A

Risk owner

47
Q

Which input document supplies
the specific details of when each
risk response plan is to be used and
how it is to be implemented?

Executing • Risk Management • Implement Risk Responses

A

Risk register

48
Q
Name the interpersonal and team
skills that are used as a tool and
technique to ensure that risk
responses are fully implemented
during the Implement Risk
Responses process.

Executing • Risk Management • Implement Risk Responses

A

Influencing skills

49
Q

During which process is the final
agreement and contract with a
seller completed?

Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements

A

Conduct

Procurements

50
Q
What type of meeting is used to
provide prospective contractors
the opportunity to gain a deeper
understanding of the procurement
statement of work?

Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements

A

Bidder

conference

51
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a
bidder conference?
A) Defined meeting to provide detailed
information
B) Allows all sellers the opportunity to ask
questions
C) Each seller can only hear the responses to
their question
D) Non-disclosure agreements (NDAs) are often
required

Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements

A
C) Each seller can only hear the
responses to their question
It is critical that no seller be provided
preferential treatment in the bidder
conference. By its nature the conference
is open, and all sellers are provided the
exact same information and can hear the
responses to all questions.
52
Q

What is the term for a
potential list of sellers within a
competitive range?

Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements

A

Select sellers

53
Q
The person authorized to sign legal
agreements is often a purchasing or
legal representative, not the project
manager.
True or False:

Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements

A
True
Due to the specialized nature of
procurements and the liability
involved, it is often not the project
manager who is authorized to sign
legal agreements.
54
Q
What factors does the team use
to evaluate and select the seller
that best meets the need of the
project and within which process
are those factors created?

Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements

A

Source selection
criteria; created in the
Plan Procurements
process

55
Q

The __________ provides
the seller with the information
required to develop and submit
seller proposals.

Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements

A

Procurement

documentation

56
Q

What tool and technique is often
used to extend the seller pool
outside of the preferred sellers?

Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements

A
Advertising
Common forums for advertising
procurements are trade
publications and company
websites.
57
Q
Which of the following documents are
not provided to potential contractors?
A) Source selection criteria
B) Request for proposal
C) Procurement statement of work

Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements

A
A) Source selection
criteria
The source selection criteria
provide the internal logic by which
contractors will be selected. This
must not be distributed to the
bidding contractors.
58
Q
During which process are the
activities defined in the Plan
Stakeholder Engagement
process implemented to increase
stakeholder support and
minimize resistance?

Executing • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Manage Stakeholder Engagement

A

Manage Stakeholder

Engagement

59
Q

Active engagement with
stakeholders requires _________
and _______ skills.

Executing • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Manage Stakeholder Engagement

A

Communication and

negotiation skills

60
Q

A stakeholder’s ability to
influence a project is greatest
late in a project.
True or False:

Executing • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Manage Stakeholder Engagement

A
False
Stakeholders have the greatest
ability to influence a project
early in the project. As the
project progresses and work is
completed, there is less that can
be influenced.
61
Q

What three types of outputs are
created as a result of the Manage
Stakeholder Engagement process?

Executing • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Manage Stakeholder Engagement

A
  • Change requests,
  • project management plan updates,
  • project document updates
Change requests and updates to
project plans and documents are
often generated as engagement
approaches are executed, evaluated,
and improved.
62
Q
The Manage Stakeholder
Engagement and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
processes work in concert;
each focuses effort on aligning
stakeholders and assisting in better
decision making.

Executing • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Manage Stakeholder Engagement

A

Manage
Communications

The stakeholder engagement and
communications knowledge areas are
linked. These two work together to
achieve a similar goal of ensuring constant
and appropriate flow of information to and
from stakeholders.

63
Q
Which document is most likely used
to record problems and concerns with
project communications efforts?
A) Issue log
B) Assumption log
C) Stakeholder register
D) Communications management plan

Executing • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Manage Stakeholder Engagement

A

A) Issue log

Problems and concerns with stakeholder
communications would be recorded on the
issue log. The issue log is both an input
and output of the Manage Stakeholder
Engagement process. This document is
constantly updated through the project.