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Anatomy and Physiology > Monday Week 3 > Flashcards

Monday Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are generator potentials

A

These are graded potentials of the special senses

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2
Q

How is the receptor for olfaction different than other special sense receptors?

A

The olfactory receptors are a specialized neuron, whereas the other special sense receptors aren’t neurons.

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3
Q

How long does the olfactory receptor neuron fire?

A

Until the stimulus is removed.

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4
Q

Describe the pathway of olfaction from receptor to cerebrum

A

Chemicals in the air bind to olfactory receptor cells, which are part of the olfactory epithelium in the superior nasal concha. The axons penetrate the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone. The first synapse occurs in the olfactory bulb. Axons then travel along the olfactory tract to the olfactory cortex then the hypothalamus and portions of the limbic system.

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5
Q

Describe the two layers of the olfactory organ

A

Superficial is the OLFACTORY EPITHELIA: this contains the olfactory receptor cells and basal cells (stem cells). Basal cells mature to replace the old olfactory receptor cells.

Deep is the LAMINA PROPRIA: this is areolar tissue, which of course, is vascularized and innervated. Also in this layer are Bowman’s glands, whose secretions absorb water and form mucous.

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6
Q

What is the mechanism of olfactory reception leading to an action potential?

A

These are G-protein coupled receptors. When an operant binds, it activates the G protein, which activates adenylate cyclase. Adenylate cyclase converts ATP to cAMP. cAMP opens sodium channels in the plasma membrane, causing depolarization. If the depolarization is sufficient, an action potential is triggered.

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7
Q

Olfactory receptors are dispersed on the mucous membrane for even _____1____, but bundled by kind for ____2_____ routing to the CNS.

A
  1. Sampling

2. central

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8
Q

Where are taste receptors located?

A

Tongue and adjacent pharynx, and larynx.

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9
Q

What are lingual papillae?

A

These are epithelial projections for taste reception. There are four types, three of which contain taste buds.

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10
Q

What are the 4 lingual papillae?
Which contain the taste buds?
Describe each.

A

vallate, foliate, fungiform, and filiform

All but the filiform, which are used more for friction.

Vallate: These are the big ones, pencil eraser shaped and contain about 100 taste buds.

Foliate: Found on posterior margins

Fungiform: Small, button shaped, and contain about 5 taste buds each.

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11
Q

What structure of the tongue prevents over ingestion of water?

A

Water receptors, which are stimulated by drinking water.

They signal to the hypothalamus, which controls antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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12
Q

A taste bud is made up of what?

A

Many gustatory cells, which have hair like projections (microvilli) which extend out into the taste pore. Waiting to replace them are basal cells, which mature into transitional cells, and then gustatory cells. They turn over every 10 days.

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13
Q

Which tastes are humans most sensitive to?

A

Bitter (100,000x) and sour (1000x) than sweet or salty. This prevents ingestion of poison or ingestion of too much acid.

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14
Q

Which molecules are tasted as sweet? What is the mechanism of their reception?

A

sugars, aldehydes and ketones

These are g-protein coupled receptors which use a second messenger system to stimulate release of neurotransmitters.

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15
Q

Which molecules are tasted as sour? What is the mechanism of their reception?

A

protons

These cause depolarization directly through ion leak channels

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16
Q

Which molecules are tasted as umami? What is the mechanism of their reception?

A

amino acids

These are g-protein coupled receptors which use a second messenger system to stimulate release of neurotransmitters.

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17
Q

Describe the gustatory pathway to the cerebrum

A

After receptors respond to stimulation, cranial nerves 7, 9, and 10 carry the information to the solitary nucleus of the MO, where they synapse. The postsynaptic neurons cross over and enter the medial lemniscus of the MO, then travel up to the thalamus, where they synapse again. The information is then relayed to the gustatory cortex of the insula.

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18
Q

Describe the receptor cells of the internal ear

A

Hair cells: Their free surfaces are covered with processes which are mechanoreceptors. When fluid pushes them in one direction, it stimulates them, but pushing them in the other direction inhibits them.

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19
Q

What are the two kinds of equilibrium?

A

Static or dynamic

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20
Q

Describe the ossicles

A

The MALLEUS attaches at three points to the interior surface of the tympanic membrane.
The INCUS, the middle ossicle, attaches the malleus to the stapes.
The STAPES’s base is bound to the edges of the oval window like a plunger.

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21
Q

What are the two parts of the membraneous labrynth?

A

the vestibular complex, made up of the semicircular ducts, and the utricle and saccule (for equilibrium)

and the cochlear duct (for hearing)

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22
Q

What do the semicircular canals sense?

Where are the receptors located?

A

Rotation.

ampulla, which is an expanded region containing the cupula.

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23
Q

What is a cupula?

A

A flexible, elastic, gelatinous structure that extends the width of the ampulla. The hair cells are embedded here.

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24
Q

What fluid fills the semicircular canals?

A

endolymph

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25
Q

which movements are sensed by which canals?

A

anterior for yes
lateral for no
posterior for tilting side to side

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26
Q

What is the purpose of the utricle and saccule?

A

to sense gravity and linear acceleration

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27
Q

What are the receptors for the otolithic membrane? How do they get stimulated?

A

macula. They are covered in otoliths, which shift with gravitational pull and acceleration.

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28
Q

Describe the path of equilibrium sensation to the CNS

A

Hair cells monitor body position and motion. Sensory neurons in adjacent vestibular ganglia carry the info along the vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII. The vestibular nuclei in the MO integrate sensory info from BOTH ears and relay that info to the cerebral cortex, cerebellum, and motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord.

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29
Q

What is the purpose of the vestibular nuclei?

A

Integrating info about equilibrium arriving from both ears and sending it to the appropriate parts of the brain and then sending commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord.

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30
Q

Greater amplitude corresponds to what quality of sound?

A

Greater amplitude = louder sound

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31
Q

Give the sequence of events involved in hearing

A

See the figure on page 555.

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32
Q

Follow the path of sound wave to the CNS

A

Look on page 557

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33
Q

What is accommodation?

A

The lens changing its shape depending on the distance of the light source

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34
Q
  1. What do the lenses of the eye do for close objects? 2.distant objects?
A
  1. ciliary muscles contract to make lens more rounded

2. ciliary muscles relaxed and more flattened lens

35
Q

What kind of lens would someone with myopia need?

A

diverging lens

36
Q

What kind of lens would someone with hyperopia need?

A

converging lens

37
Q

What is the difference between rods and cones?

A

Rods don’t discriminate among colors of light, but help us to see in dim light. Cones give us color vision and sharper, clearer images, but require more light.

38
Q

What do rods and cones synapse with?

A

neurons called bipolar cells

39
Q

describe the cellular layers on the retina (Go deep to superficial)

A

Deepest are the pigmented cells. Next are the rods and cones, then the bipolar neurons, which synapse superficially with the ganglion cells (also neurons). Horizontally arranged are the horizontal cells and the amacrine cells. These facilitate or inhibit communication between photoreceptors and ganglion cells.

40
Q
  1. Which cells are most prevalent near the fovea?

2. which are most prevalent at the periphery?

A
  1. cones

2. rods

41
Q

What are the two important components of the rhodopsin molecule?

A

Opsin, which is bound to retinal.

42
Q

How do rods and cones differ in terms of opsin?

A

All rods contain the same type of opsin, whereas cones have three types of opsin which are each sensitive to a different range of light wavelengths.

43
Q

What is the resting potential of a photoreceptor?

A

-40mV

44
Q

Unstimulated (in darkness), what is the state of the chemically gated ion channels?

A

They stay open, in the presence of cGMP. This means that the photoreceptor is continuously releasing neurotransmitters across synapses to bipolar cells.

45
Q

What is the normal configuration of the bound retinal molecule? What changes the configuration

A

11-cis form. A photon changes it into the 11-trans form.

46
Q

What does the 11-trans form of opsin do?

A

It activates transducin, a g-protein, which activates phosphodiesterase. Phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP, which deactivates the sodium channels. This causes hyperpolarization, which decreases inhibitory neurotransmitter to the bipolar neurons.

47
Q

What causes photobleaching?

A

This is when rhodopsin can’t respond to additional photons until the retinal can go back to its original conformation, a process that requires an ATP.

48
Q

Homeostasis requires coordination. What are 4 methods cells use to communicate?

A

DIRECT COMMUNICATIONS: through gap junctions
PARACRINE COMMUNICATION: using paracrine factors for nearby communication through extracellular fluid
ENDOCRINE COMMUNICTION: Hormones released into bloodstream
SYNAPTIC COMMUNICATION: Neurotransmitter released to appropriate receptor

49
Q

What are the three main chemical categories that hormones can be?

A

AMINO ACID DERIVATIVES: thyroid hormones, catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine), melatonin
PEPTIDE HORMONES and GLYCOPROTEINS: ADH, oxytocin, insulin, GH, PRL (peptides) or TSH, LH, FSH (glycoproteins)
LIPID DERIVATIVES: Eicosanoids (leukatrienes, prostaglandins), steroid hormones (Androgens, progesterone, estrogen, calcitriol)

50
Q

What are the primary endocrine organs?

A

hypothalamus, pituitary gland, thyroid gland, adrenal glands, pancreas, pineal gland, parathyroid glands

51
Q

What are the secondary endocrine organs?

A

heart, thymus, digestive tract, kidneys, gonads

52
Q

Hormones bind receptors where?

A

In the plasma membrane, cytoplasm, or nucleus

53
Q

Where are the receptors for catecholamines and eicosanoids?

A

on the plasma membrane

54
Q

Where are the receptors for steroid hormones?

A

These diffuse through the plasma membrane and bind receptors in either the cytoplasm or nucleus.

55
Q

Where do thyroid hormones bind?

A

Receptors on mitochondria (make more ATP) or in the nucleus (to activate genes or alter enzyme function)

56
Q

How does the hypothalamus regulate other endocrine organs?

A

Directly or indirectly.
Directly: Neurons in the hypothalamus make ADH and OXT and release them from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
Indirectly: Hypothalamus also secretes regulatory hormones “RH” releasing hormones, or “IH” inhibiting hormones into the anterior pituitary gland.

Also, controls the adrenal medulla.

57
Q

What hormones does the anterior pituitary gland secrete?

A

TSH, ACTH, FSH and LH, GH, PRL, and MSH

58
Q

What is ACTH?

A

adrenocoticotropic hormone, which stimulates the release of steroid hormones by the adrenal cortex. To affect glucose metabolism.

59
Q

What is MSH?

A

Melanocyte stimulating hormone, Stimulates the melanocytes to produce more melanin.

60
Q

What is ADH?

A

antidiuretic hormone. acts on the kidneys to retain water., also causes vasoconstriction to increase BP

61
Q

Give the basic schematic for negative feedback at the levels of the pituitary gland and hypothalamus.

A

The hypothalamus manufactures RH’s, which enter the hypophyseal portal system to the anterior pit lobe, stimulating the release of the first hormone (SH), which targets another endocrine gland to release the hormone #2. The #2 hormone can inhibit its own production at two locales. Either at the ant pit, to inhibit manufacture of the SH, or at the hypothalamus to inhibit manufacture of the RH.

62
Q

What is the feedback loop for GH?

A

Hypothalamus makes GHRH which causes the ant pit to make GH, which acts directly on tissues, but also GH acts on the liver, to make Somatomedins. Somatomedins can act on tissues to stimulate growth, but it can also act as the regulatory molecule in two ways. First it can inhibit the manufacture of GHRH at the hypothalamus, and to stimulate the release of GHIF (GH-inhibiting factor).

63
Q

What is the feedback loop for PRL?

A

The hypothalamus makes PRF to cause the ant pit to release PRL, which acts on the mammaries. PRL can inhibit its own manufacture by inhibiting PRF’s production at the hypothalamus. It can also stimulate the hypothalamus to make and release PIH (prolactin inhibiting hormone).

64
Q

Describe how thyroid hormone is made.

A

Iodide gets actively pumped into the follicle cell, then lose an electron and becomes iodine. Tyrosine gets modified and associates with I, to become T3 or T4, which is stored in the follicle inside the protein thyroglobulin. When needed in the bloodstream, the epithelial cell of the follicle takes up the thyroglobulin by endocytosis, and fuses it with a lysosome, releasing T3 and T4. But T3 and T4 need to be bound to TBG for release into the bloodstream.

65
Q

What are the effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissues?

A

Increased rates of O2 consumption and energy consumption. Increased everything.

66
Q

What does PTH do?

A

It increases reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys (by making the kidney make calcitriol), increases osteoclastic activity at the bone, and (again using calcitriol) causes increased calcium absorption by intestinal tract.

67
Q

Which endocrine organ makes calcitonin, and what does it do?

A

Has the opposite effects as PTH, made by the thyroid gland.

68
Q

What are the three parts of the adrenal gland?

A

the capsule, cortex and medulla

69
Q

What are the zones of the adrenal cortex, and what does each produce? (superficial to deep)

A

Zona glomerulosa: Mineralocoticoids (aldosterone)
Zona fasciculata: glucocorticoids (cortisol, corticosterone)
Zona reticularis: androgens

70
Q

Be able to explain how normal blood pressure is maintained at the endocrine level.

A

See page 726

71
Q

What physiological condition in the body stimulates the release of cortisol?

A

Stress and low blood glucose

72
Q

What are the effects of cortisol in the body?

A

increased gluconeogenesis, decreases immune function, increases breakdown of fats, carbs, proteins. Decreases bone formation

73
Q

What is the precursor for estrogen?

A

DHEA and cholesterol

74
Q

what is the precursor for testosterone?

A

andro is the nickname

75
Q

Is the pancreas primarily an endocrine organ?

A

No, 99% exocrine

76
Q

Which cells in the islets make glucagon? insulin?

A

glucagon=alpha cells, insulin=beta cells

77
Q

What does melatonin do in the body?

A
  1. protects against free radicals
  2. decreases reproductive functions
  3. aids in establishment of circadian rhythms
78
Q

Give an example of 2 synergistic hormones

A

thyroid hormone with growth hormone

79
Q

what does natiuretic hormone do?

A

it is stimulated by stretch receptors in the heart. It causes suppression of thirst, vasodilation, Na and water loss at kidneys

80
Q

What are the effects of GH on kids? on adults?

A

kids: Supports muscle and skeletal development
Adults: GH helps to maintain normal BG

81
Q

What are the three phases of stress response?

A
  1. alarm phase (sympathetic response)
  2. resistance phase (longer term metabolic adjustments)
  3. exhaustion phase (dying)
82
Q

Three reasons for hypo secretion of hormones

A
  1. not enough of the factor in diet
  2. direct damage to endocrine tissue
  3. CONGENITAL ISSUE: Gland too small
    Enzymes abnormal
    Receptors to hormone insensitive
    Gland cells lack receptors
83
Q
  1. what is underproduction of glucocorticoids?

2. Overproduction?

A
  1. addison’s disease

2. Cushings disease

Anatomy and Physiology (11 decks)

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