Moelcular Medicine I Flashcards

1
Q

what the 2 phases of genetic analysis of a disease

A

find a correlation between amuattion an da diseae

detect or predicting a disease

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2
Q

when is DNA sequencing most useful

A

where the exact nature of the disase causing muation is known

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3
Q

limits to DNA sequencing

A

genes are large and complex, some of the mautions may not be connected to the disease at all

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4
Q

indirect methods advantage

A

require no knowledge about the exact nature of the muation as long as the genomic locus of the mutant allele is known

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5
Q

limits to indirect methods

A

good polymorphic markers are scarce. and you could not be looking in the right place

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6
Q

the complete human genome consists of how many basepairs

A

3 billion

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7
Q

WGS

A

looking at the whole genome

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8
Q

WES

A

only looks at the exons

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9
Q

SNP typing

A

looking just at SNPs which are the areas that are actually different between people

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10
Q

wha tis the narrowest approach to sequcning

A

just look at the SNPs that have been assocaited with a health risk

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11
Q

limiations to seuqncing

A
  • doesn’t show on which chromsome the muation is

- does not show if they have a deletion of a duplicatio nof a chromsomal region

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12
Q

copy number variation (CNV)

A

observation that chromsomal regions can be present in non-diploid states

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13
Q

most CNVs are what

A

benign polymorphisms

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14
Q

how do you do comparative genome hybridization

A

take sample of single stranded genomic DNA from pt and control. label with die, mybrize to metaphase chromosomes. CNV becomes evident by uneven labeling of template chromsome

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15
Q

FISH

A

allows ID of a chromosomal lobus on a metaphase chromosome by hybridation with a specific flouorescent probe

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16
Q

how do you do PCR

A
  1. denature template DNA
  2. annel primers
  3. polymerase synthesizes complmentary strand
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17
Q

how does PCR detect genetic polymorphisms

A

when using ASOs, only mutant alleles will be amplied

insertions or deletions become immediately obvious

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18
Q

how do you do real time PCR

A
  • the amoun tof amplified DNA is measured after each cycle
  • determine how many cycles of amplification are required
  • high number of templant molecules, fewer cycles will be required to reach the threshold
  • templant amount is quantified by the number of cycles required to reach threshold
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19
Q

what is reverse transcriptase PCR used for

A

retroviral load in blood samples (HIV)

expression of oncogenes, and tumor suppressor genes in cancer cells

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20
Q

ASOs

A

tool to detect single nucletotide polymorphisms and mutations

21
Q

what does ASP require

A

detailed knowledge about the nucletodie sequence of the gene under studyy

22
Q

because oligonucleotide primers are short they anneal only to gerions of ______

A

high sequence complmentarity

23
Q

mutant allele in aickle cell

A

AT exchange in codon 6 of beta globin gene

24
Q

DNA microarrays

A

thousands of oligonucletodie spots printed on an inch paper. use for genetic screening

25
the differences in individual drug responses result from what
genetic polymorphisms
26
goal of pharmacogeomics
find the polymorphisms taht affect drug responses in order to work out an indvidual drug treatment plan
27
what is malignant hyperthermia
rare, authosomal disoder that is the leading cause of deal during anesthesia
28
what happens when someone with malignant hyperthermia goes under anthestia
calcium gets released from muscle cells leading to life threatening episodes of uncontrolled muscel contraction
29
what causes malignant hyperthermia
mutation in ryanodine-receptor (RYR1) gene coding fo rmuscel cell membrane ion channel
30
individual response to warfarin is determined by what 2 enzymes
- gene for detoxifying P450 protein causing slow metabolism of drug - mutation in vitamin K epoxide reductase
31
polymorphism in gene for detoxifying P450 protein causes what
higher senstivity to warfarin
32
mutation in vitamin K epoxide reductase complex (VKORC1) leads to waht
higher warfarin toelrance
33
how are fetal cells sampled
amniocentesis | chorionic villus sampling
34
amniocentesis
amniotic fluid is withdrawn at 15/16 weeks gestation
35
chorionic villus sampling
cells taken from chorion at 10-12 weeks gestation
36
what condition might chonrionic villus sampling miss
mosaicism
37
the specific bindign of antibodies to antigens is used to what
- detect presence of antigen in sample - quantify amount of antigen in sample - localize antigens in vivo
38
what produces antiboties
b lymphocytes
39
how are polyclonal antibodies obtained
challenged an animal with intravenously injected antigen. , then after several days take blood
40
how do you get monoclonal antiodies
- inject mouse with protein - get spleen cells - fuse spleen celsl with myeloma cells grown in culture - select and grow hybrid cells - select and grow cells making desired antibody
41
hybridoma cells
immortal and produce antibodies
42
what is ELISA commonly used for
detecting PTH HbA1c c-reactive protein
43
what do you use sandwich ELISA for
quantify an antigen
44
What do you use indirect ELISA for
presence of antibodies
45
What specific diseases is indirect ELISA used for
HIV | rheumatoid arthritis
46
western blotting
technique that uses specific antibodies to indicate the molecular weight of a protein
47
what is the advantage of western blotting over ELISA
you get better infromation about the antigen
48
what do you use western blotting for
confirm diagnosis of HIV | diagnose parasite infections