Module 7 Gastrointestinal drugs Flashcards

1
Q

How do anticholinergics reduce diarrhea?

A

By blocking the parasympathetic n nervous system

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2
Q

Where is the vomiting centre of the brain?

A

The medulla

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3
Q

The antiemetic increases gastric motility and lower esophageal sphincter tone

A

metoclopramide

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4
Q

One of primary mechanisms for treating stomach ulcers is :

A

reducing stomach acid

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5
Q

Which species do not vomit

A

rats, horses and rabbits

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6
Q

A common appetite stimulant that is available in an oral and transdermal ear gel form is:

A

mirtazapine

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7
Q

What are motility reducers used to treat

A

Diarrheah

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8
Q

active ingredient in gravol

A

Dimenhydrinate

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9
Q

Is emesis reccomended for all toxic singestions

A

no

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10
Q

Syrup of ipecac is rarely used to induce vomiting in veterinary medicine.

A

true

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11
Q

Antiemetics are often given enterally initially

A

False

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12
Q

anticholinergics decrease salivary secretions

A

true

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13
Q

with gi disroders it is important to treat clinical signs and underlying cause

A

true

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14
Q

hydrogen peroxide used to induce emesis in cats:

A

NO

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15
Q

Bismuth subsalicylate has an aspirin-like product and therefore, should not be used in cats.

A

true

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16
Q

Apomorphine is a ________

A

emetic

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17
Q

Maropitant is a ___________

A

antiemetic

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18
Q

Metronidazole is a:

A

Anaerobic antibiotic

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19
Q

omeprazole is a:

A

Proton pump inhibitor

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20
Q

Famotidine is a :

A

H2 blocker

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21
Q

Mirtazipine is a :

A

appetite stimulant

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22
Q

Metoclopramide is a

A

intestinal prokinetic

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23
Q

Suralfate does what :

A

binds to GI ulcers

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24
Q

Orexigenic

A

appetite stumulators

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25
Q

Prokinetic

A

increases motility of GI tarct

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26
Q

Cause vomiting

A

emetics

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27
Q

Antiemetcis

A

reduce nausea and vomiting

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28
Q

Absorb water in the intestine, increase bulk and stimulate peristalsis.

A

bulk forming

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29
Q

Pull water into the colon via osmosis.

A

osmotic laxative

30
Q

probiotic

A

addition of beneficial bacteria to GI tract

31
Q

Adsorbants

A

bind bacteria, digestive enzymes or toxins in GI tract

32
Q

Coat the inflamed intestinal mucosa

A

protectants

33
Q

Reduce salivary flow

A

Antisialogues

34
Q

The parasympathetic system __________ Gi motility and secretions

A

increases

35
Q

Sympathetic stimulation ______________ GI motility and secretions

A

decreases

36
Q

cholingerics ______ GI motility and secretions

A

increase

37
Q

____________does not appreciably cross into the CNS or placenta, making it more desirable for use in pregnant animals ______________

A

glycopyrrolate, atropine

38
Q

____________ is commonly used as an emetic in dogs, where as is often used as an emetic in cats.

A

apomorphine, Xylazine

39
Q

What do anticholinergic drugs do?

A
  • A class of drugs
  • Reduce salivary secretions
  • Block the parasympathetic system
  • Caution in Horses! Colic!
  • May cause tachycardia, urine retention, pupil dilation
40
Q

Glycopyrrolate

A
  • anticholinergic
  • Reduces salivary secretions
  • Minimal crossing into the CNS or placenta
  • May be used in pregnant animals
  • Increases HR, reduces salivary secretions
41
Q

atropine

A
  • anticholinergic
  • Reduces salivation
  • increases HR
  • Does cross into the CNS and placenta
42
Q

Gi protectants and absorbants include:

A

Bismuth Subsalicylate, Kaolin/Pectin, Activated Charcoal

43
Q

Bismuth Subsalicylate

A
  • Coats the intestinal mucosa
  • Mild antibacterial
  • Not used in cats aspirin like
  • Can blacken stool
  • protectant
44
Q

Kaolin/Pectin

A
  • mineral and polysaccharide
  • absorbent and protective properties
  • OTC may have bismuth subsalicylate
  • Improves stools appearance but no water loss
45
Q

Activated Charcoal

A
  • Absorbs chemicals from the upper Gi tract
  • Treats toxic ingestion
  • No diarrhea treatment
  • Black
  • Give asap after toxin ingestion
46
Q

Motility reducers include:

A

Loperamide

47
Q

loperamide

A
  • Opoid
  • Decreases intestinal secretions and peristaltic contractions
  • Increase Segmental contractions so increase absorption
  • Less CNS depression than other opioids
  • Constipation with prolonged use
  • imodium
48
Q

probiotics do what?

A
  • Opoid
  • Decreases intestinal secretions and peristaltic contractions
  • Increase Segmental contractions so increase absorption
  • Less CNS depression than other opioids
  • Constipation with prolonged use
    imodium
49
Q

metronidazole

A
  • antibiotic
  • Effective against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa
  • Neurotoxic at high doses
  • Antidiarrheal effects
50
Q

osmotic laxatives

A

lactulose and polyethylene glycol

51
Q

lactulose

A
  • Laxative
  • Metabolized by bacteria in the colon to low molecular weight acids that draw water into the bowels
  • hyReduce blood ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy
52
Q

Polyethylene Glycol (PEG)

A
  • class of drugs
  • hyperosmolar salts
  • Sodium or. Magnesium
  • May cause electrolyte imbalances
  • Caution in heart and kidney disease
  • Can lead to dehydration
53
Q

antiemetics

A

Acepromazine, dimenhydrinate, metoclopramide, odanestron, maropitant

54
Q

Dimenhydrinate

A
  • Affects histamine receptors in CRTZ
  • Does not work for cats to control vomiting as they do not have histamine receptors in CRTZ
  • May work if vomiting is due to motion sickness, vaccine reactions or inner ear problems
55
Q

Metoclopramide

A
  • Prokinetic
  • Speeds up gastric emptying, tightens gastroesophageal sphincter
  • Encourages the movement
  • Not for Gi obstruction
  • Can be given PO, SQ, Im, IV, CRI
56
Q

ondansetron

A
  • Serotonin Receptor Agonists
  • Selective for serotonin receptors on the vagal nerve and CRTZ to block serotonin activity at these sites
  • Oral, injectable
  • Sounds like a Transformer
57
Q

Maropitant

A
  • NK1 Receptor Antagonist
  • Inhibits activity of substance P (neurokinin NK1)
  • Used for motion sickness and acute vomiting
  • SQ, IV, oral
  • Possible adjunctive analgesia for visceral pain
  • Cerenia
58
Q

emetics include:

A

Apomorphine, Xylazine

59
Q

apomorphine

A
  • Emetic
  • Dopamine Agonist
  • Used commonly in dogs
  • Not used in cats- less effective- causes excitability
  • Works in 5-20 minutes
  • Additional doses are usually not helpful
  • IV, SQ, conjunctival sac!
60
Q

xylazine

A
  • alpha 2 agonist
  • Induces emesis in cats
  • Causes sedation
61
Q

Famotidine

A
  • H2 blockers
  • Class
  • Ranitidine
  • Famotidine
  • Competitively block H2 receptorz of partial cells to reduce gastric acid
  • Ranitidine
  • Famotidine
62
Q

Randitine, famotidine are:

A

Histamine-2 Receptor Antagonists

63
Q

omeprazole

A

proton pump inhibitor

  • Reduces stomach acid
  • Omeprazole
  • Most effective 30 min before meal
  • Treats ulcer in horses
  • May cause diarrhea vomiting or flatulence
  • Don’t crush
  • Irreversibly binds to proton pump so parietal cells cannot produce HCl
64
Q

Sucralfate

A
  • Mucosal protector
  • Covers the ulcer and protects it from stomach acid
  • Used in gastritis, esophagitis, and ulcers
  • Should not be given at the same time as PPI and H2 Blockers because it binds to ulcers in an acidic environment
  • May adsorb other drugs. Separate by ~2 hours
65
Q

Misoprostol

A
  • Antiulcer
  • Prostaglandin analogue
  • Suppresses gastric acid production and increases mucous production
  • Prevents gastric ulceration, especially with NSAIDs
  • May induce abortion- do not handle if pregnant
66
Q

cisapride

A
  • Prokinetic
  • Used for constipation, GI reflux, ileus
67
Q

Pancrelipase

A

Pancrelipase
- Enzyme Supplement
- Aids in digestion
- Provides lipase to digest fats, amylase to digest starch and protease to digest proteins
- For patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI), which may result in steatorrhea, weight loss, vomiting

68
Q

Orexigenic drugs

A

appetite stimulant

69
Q

Mirtazapine

A
  • Tetracyclic antidepressant
  • Orexigenic
  • Possibly antagonizes certain serotonin and histamine receptor
  • Stimulates appetite in cats and dogs
70
Q

Diazpema

A

orexigenic
- Benzodiazepine
- IV, PO
- Instant effect in cats IV
- Small risk of hepatotoxicity
- Caution with liver disease

71
Q
A