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Module 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the only vein with oxygenated blood

A

Pulmonary vein

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2
Q

The left ventricle contracting and forcing a volume of blood with each beat is referred to as

A

Stroke volume

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3
Q

Are arteries or veins thicker

A

Arteries due to a greater smooth muscle layer

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4
Q

The ability of veins to stretch and expand

A

Dissension

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5
Q

Narrowing of aorta is called

A

Coarctation

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6
Q

Blood vessel inflammation with narrowing

A

Vasculitis

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7
Q

Where do the jugular veins empty into

A

Superior vena cava

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8
Q

2 layers of arteries/veins that are thinner in veins

A

Elastic membrane and tunica media

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9
Q

The interarterial formen ovale closes by the shifting pressures between

A

The right and left sides of heart

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10
Q

Does SVR increases or decrease in pregnancy

A

Decreases

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11
Q

An increase in __________________, may lead to elevated BP in older adults

A

Peripheral vascular resistance

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12
Q

Pain in the built on or calf with walking

A

Claudication

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13
Q

Is the bell or diaphragm used to auscultate carotids

A

Bell

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14
Q

Pain in the buttock May signify an obstruction in what artery

A

Common iliac

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15
Q

Patients with ________________ often present with often demonstrate pain, pulselessness, paresthesias, paralysis, pallor, and poikilothermia

A

Acute limb ischemia (ALI)

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16
Q

What 3 instances make it difficult to asses jugular venous pressure

A
  1. Severe Rt HF, tricuspid insufficiency,constrictive pericarditis, cardiac tamponade
  2. Severe hypovolemia
  3. Obesity
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17
Q

Hepatojugular reflux is exaggerated when ___________ is present

A

Right heart failure

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18
Q

What should be suspected if Significant swelling, pain, and tenderness occur in an extremity over a deep vain

A

DVT

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19
Q

In an infant, a bounding pulse is associated with

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

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20
Q

In an infant, a difference in pulse Amplitude between the upper extremities or between the femoral and radial pulses, or the femoral pulses are weak or absent are associated with

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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21
Q

In an infant, a capillary refill time > 2 seconds indicates

A

Dehydration or hypovolemia shock

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22
Q

An inflammatory disease of the branches of the aortic arch, including the temporal arteries

A

Temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)

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23
Q

Arterial wall thickening and thrombosis can lead to reduced blood supply and ischemia of structures such as the masseter muscle, tongue, or optic nerve; area Over temporal artery may be rd, swollen, tender, and nodular

A

Temporal arteritis

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24
Q

A localized dilation, which is generally defined as 1.5 times the diameter of the normal artery, caused by a weakness in the arterial wall

A

Arterial aneurysm

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25
Q

A pathologic communication between an artery and a vein

A

Arteriovenous fistula

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26
Q

Most common cause of arteriovenous fistulas

A

Damage to vessels cause by catheters

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27
Q

Stenosis of the blood supply to the extremities by atherosclerotic plaques

A

Peripheral arterial disease

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28
Q

An exaggerated spasm of the digital arterioles (occasionally in the nose and ears) usually in response to cold exposure

A

Raynaud phenomenon

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29
Q

associated with an underlying connective tissue disease such as scleroderma or systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Secondary raynaud phenomenon

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30
Q

Emboli that are dispersed throughout the arterial system; may be caused by thrombus, Atherosclerotic plaques, infectious material from fungal and bacterial endocarditis; Atrial myxomas (a mass of connective tissue)

A

Arterial embolic disease

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31
Q

Thrombosis can occur suddenly or gradually and with varying severity of symptoms; can be the result of trauma, a hypercoagulable state, or prolonged immobilization

A

Venous thrombosis

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32
Q

The backflow of blood into the right atrium during systole; seen in up to 75% adult population

A

Tricuspid Regurgitation

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33
Q

A stenosis seen most commonly in the descending aortic arch near the origin of the left subclavian artery and ligamentum arteriosum

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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34
Q

About 12% of girls born with coarctation of the aorta have

A

Turners syndrome

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35
Q

An acute small vessel vasculitis that may result in the development of coronary artery aneurysms; strawberry tongue is common symptom

A

Kawasaki disease

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36
Q

A syndrome specific to pregnancy with hypertension that occurs after the 20th week of pregnancy and the presence of proteinuria; may cause seizures when pt has no PMH of seizures

A

Preeclampsia-eclampsia

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37
Q

Results from chronic venous insufficiency in which the lack of venous flow leads to lower extremity venous hypertension; obstruction may result from incompetent valves, obstruction of blood flow, or the loss of the pumping effect of the leg muscles

A

Venous ulcers

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38
Q

extend from the connective tissue layer through the breast and attach to the underlying muscle fascia, providing further support

A

Suspension ligaments (cooper ligaments)

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39
Q

Vascular supply to the breast is primairily from

A

Internal mammary artery and the lateral thoracic artery

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40
Q

What is the breast tissue extending from the quadrant into the axilla called

A

Tail of Spence

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41
Q

In the breast: superficial lymphatics drain the _________, and deep lymphatics strain the ________________

A

Skin, mammary lobules

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42
Q

The _____________nodes are high in the axilla close to the ribs and the ______________ nodes lie along the lateral border of the scapula and deep in the posterior axillary fold. the ____________ nodes can be felt along the upper humerus

A

Midaxillary (central); posterior axillary (sub scapular); lateral axillary (brachial)

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43
Q

Breast development in children is classified using the five __________________

A

Tanner stages

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44
Q

In the tanner stages, it is unusual for menses to begin before stage ____

A

3

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45
Q

The average interval from the appearance of the breast bud (stage 2 in Tanner stages) to menarche is ___ years

A

2

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46
Q

T or F: the areolae become lighter and larger in diamter in pregnancy

A

F: they become darker in pigmentation and larger in diameter

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47
Q

In pregnancy, Montgomery tubercles develop from what

A

Sebaceous glands hypertrophying

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48
Q

What causes colostrum to be replaced by milk 2-4 days after delivery

A

Surging prolactin levels, declining estrogen, and stimulation of sucking

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49
Q

At the termination of lactation, involution occurs over a period of about ____ months.

A

3

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50
Q

In older adults, the breasts tend to hang more loosely from the chest wall as a result of the tissue changes and relaxation of the

A

suspensory ligaments

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51
Q

Patients with female breasts with an inherited BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation have a ____________% chance of developing breast cancer during their lifetime

A

45% to 80%

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52
Q

T or F: Nulliparity or late age at birth of first child (after age 30) is associated with an increased risk for breast cancer

A

T

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53
Q

appearance of the skin that indicates edema of the breast caused by blocked lymph drainage in advanced or inflammatory breast cancer. It is often first seen in the areola

A

Peau d’orange (orange skin)

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54
Q

Unilateral venous patterns can occur in the breast as a result of

A

Increased blood flow to malignancy

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55
Q

Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests

A

Malignancy

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56
Q

In some cases, supernumerary nipples may be associated with

A

congenital renal or cardiac anomalies

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57
Q

Breast examination technique: sweep downward from clavicle to nipple, feeling for superficial lumps

A

Chest wall sweep

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58
Q

Breast examination technique: place palm side up hand under breast, with fingers of other hand, walk across the breast tissue, feeling for lumps as you compress the tissue

A

Bimanual digital palpation

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59
Q

Palpable sentinel nodes are indicators for invasion of the lymphatics by

A

Cancer

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60
Q

T or F: In breasts that have been surgically augmented, do not palpate the breast

A

F: In breasts that have been surgically augmented, palpate as usual

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61
Q

Which assessment technique for palpation of the breasts are more thorough: vertical strip pattern or concentric circle pattern

A

Vertical strip

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62
Q

When examining the breasts, a method where the examiner palpate from the center of the breast in radial fashion, returning to the areola to begin each spoke

A

Wedge method

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63
Q

T or F: Nipple compression to provoke discharge is no longer performed as part of routine clinical breast examination

A

T

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64
Q

The breasts of many newborns are enlarged for a relatively brief time as a result of passively transferred

A

Maternal estrogen

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65
Q

A small amount of clear or milky white fluid from a newborns breast bud called witches milk, is caused by

A

maternal estrogen

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66
Q

T or F: in a patient who has had a mastectomy, if a malignancy recurs, it will not be never be at the scar site

A

F: “it may be at the scar site”

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67
Q

A condition where pubescent male breasts may enlarge

A

Gynecomastia

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68
Q

A breast condition in males that can be associated with the use of either prescription or illicit drugs, particularly marijuana and alcohol

A

Gynecomastia

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69
Q

During the second trimester, ___________________________ may develop on the upper chest, arms, neck, and face as a result of elevated levels of circulating estrogen

A

telangiectasias (called spider angiomas or vascular spiders)

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70
Q

may result from either inadequate emptying of the breast or a bra that is too tight; left unattended may result in ____________

A

Clogged milk duct; mastitis

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71
Q

Are light or dark colored nipples more prone to cracking/damage from breast feeding

A

Light-colored

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72
Q

In the breast, are fibrocystic changes and fibroadenomas generally unilateral or bilateral

A

Bilateral

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73
Q

Benign fluid-filled cyst formation caused by ductal enlargement; usually bilateral, most common ages 30-55; associated with a long follicular or literal phase of the menstrual cycle

A

Fibrocystic changes

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74
Q

Benign tumors composed of stromal and epithelial elements that represent a hyperplastic or proliferative process in a single terminal ductal unit; tumors generally regress after menopause and do not fluctuate with menstrual cycle

A

Fibroadenoma

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75
Q

Ductal carcinoma arises from the epithelial lining of ducts, while lobular carcinoma originates in the glandular tissue of the lobules; peak incidence between 40-75 years of age

A

Malignant breast tumors

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76
Q

Benign breast lump that occurs as inflammatory response to local injury; Necrotic fat and cellular debris become fibrotic and may contract into a scar

A

Fat necrosis

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77
Q

Benign tumors of the subareolar ducts that produce nipple discharge; Epithelial hyperplasia produces a wartlike tumor in a lactiferous duct

A

Intraductal Papillomas and Papillomatosis

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78
Q

Benign condition of the subareolar ducts that produces nipple discharge; Subareolar ducts become dilated and blocked with desquamating secretory epithelium, necrotic debris, and chronic inflammatory cells; Occurs most commonly in menopausal women

A

Duct ectasia

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79
Q

Lactation not associated with childbearing; Elevated levels of prolactin, resulting in milk production, occur as a result of disruption of the communication between the pituitary and hypothalamus glands; Common causes include pituitary-secreting tumors, hypothalamic-pituitary disorders, systemic diseases, numerous medications and herbs, physiologic conditions, or local factors

A

Galactorrhea

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80
Q

Common causes of galactorrhea include: amenorrhea, pregnancy, post abortion, hypothyroidism, Cushing syndrome, and ___________

A

Chronic renal failure

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81
Q

Surface manifestation of underlying ductal carcinoma; Migration of malignant epithelial cells from the underlying intraductal carcinoma via the lactiferous sinuses into nipple skin; Tumor cells disrupt the epithelial barrier, allowing extracellular fluid to seep out onto the nipple surface

A

Paget disease

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82
Q

Paget disease appears eczematous but unlike eczema, it does not respond to what medication

A

Steroids

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83
Q

Inflammation and infection of the breast tissue; Most infections are staphylococcal, often Staphylococcus aureus

A

Mastitis

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84
Q

Breast enlargement in children assigned female at birth, younger than 8 years of age; most onset in females <2 years old; In most cases, breasts continue to enlarge slowly throughout childhood until full development is reached during adolescence; other signs of sexual maturation may be absent

A

Premature thelarche

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85
Q

a tendinous band—is located in the midline of the abdomen between the rectus abdominis muscles. It extends from the xiphoid process to the symphysis pubis and contains the umbilicus

A

Linea alba

86
Q

extends from the anterior superior spine of the ilium on each side to the pubis

A

Inguinal ligament (poupart ligament)

87
Q

runs from the mouth to the anus and includes the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine; is about 27 feet long

A

Alimentary tract

88
Q

—a collapsible tube about 10 inches long—connects the pharynx to the stomach

A

The esophagus

89
Q

Part of the stomach lying above and to the left of the cardiac orifice

A

Fundus

90
Q

The middle 2/3 of stomach

A

Body

91
Q

The most distal portion of the stomach that narrows and terminates in the pyloric orifice.

A

Pylorus

92
Q

____________ acts to digest proteins, whereas ______________ acts on emulsified fats

A

Pepsin; gastric lipase

93
Q

Begins at the pylorus and joins the large intestine at the ileocecal valve

A

Small intestine

94
Q

First 12 inches of the small intestine that curves around the pancreas; the common bile duct and pancreatic duct open into this part of the small intestine

A

Duodenum

95
Q

Within the duodenum, Where do the common bile duct and pancreatic duct open into the small intestine at

A

Duodenal papilla

96
Q

The small intestine order is the duodenum then the

A

Jejunum

97
Q

makes up the remaining 12 feet of the small intestine and meets the large intestine at the ileocecal valve

A

Ileum

98
Q

between the ileum and large intestine prevents backward flow of fecal material

A

The ileocecal valve

99
Q

completes digestion through the action of pancreatic enzymes, bile, and several other enzymes

A

The small intestine

100
Q

The functional surface area of the small intestine is increased by its

A

Circular folds and villi

101
Q

The large intestine begins at the __________, a blind pouch about 2-3 inches long

A

Cecum

102
Q

The ascending colon turns toward the midline at the

A

Hepatic flexure

103
Q

The transverse colon crosses the abdominal cavity toward the spleen and turns downward at the

A

Splenic flexure

104
Q

Live bacteria decompose undigested food residue, unabsorbed amino acids, cell debris, and dead bacteria through a process of

A

putrefaction

105
Q

What is the heaviest organ in the body

A

The liver @ 3 lbs

106
Q

The ______________ artery transports blood to the liver directly from the aorta, and the ____________ vein carries blood from the digestive tract and spleen to the liver.

A

Hepatic; portal

107
Q

Three hepatic veins carry blood from the liver and empty into the

A

inferior vena cava

108
Q

The liver also can convert amino acids to

A

Glucose

109
Q

are oxidized to two-carbon components in preparation for entry into the tricarboxylic acid cycle.

A

Fats

110
Q

Cholesterol is used by the liver to form

A

Bile salts

111
Q

Synthesis of fats from _______________ and _____________ also occurs in the liver

A

carbohydrates and proteins

112
Q

Proteins are broken down to amino acids through __________________, and their waste products are converted to ____________ for excretion by the kidneys

A

Hydrolysis; urea

113
Q

The ___________ is responsible for the production of the majority of proteins circulating in the plasm

A

Liver

114
Q

How does the liver serve as an excretory organ

A
  • Synthesis of bile
  • secretion of organic wastes into bile
  • conversion of fat-soluble wastes to water-soluble material for renal excretion
115
Q

concentrates and stores bile from the liver

A

Gallbladder

116
Q

The gallbladder concentrates and stores bile from the liver. In response to ________________—a hormone produced in the duodenum—the gallbladder releases bile into the cystic duct

A

cholecystokinin

117
Q

The cystic duct and hepatic duct join to form the

A

common bile duct

118
Q

serves to maintain the alkaline pH of the small intestine, permitting emulsification of fats so that absorption of lipids can be accomplished

A

Bile

119
Q

As an exocrine gland, the acinar cells of the pancreas produce digestive juices containing inactive enzymes for the breakdown of

A

Proteins, fats, and carbohydrates

120
Q

Collecting ducts of the pancreas empty into the pancreatic duct called the:

A

duct of Wirsung

121
Q

As an endocrine gland, ____________ scattered throughput the pancreas produce the hormones insulin and glucagon

A

islet cells

122
Q

Is right or left kidney slightly higher

A

Right kidney

123
Q

Each kidney receives about ____________ of the cardiac output through the renal artery

A

1/8

124
Q

Normal GFR is __________ mL/min/1.73 m^2 or higher

A

90

125
Q

Urinary volume controlled by

A

ADH (antidiuretic hormone)

126
Q

Urinary bladder can hold approximately ________mL urine

A

400-600

127
Q

The kidney also serves as an endocrine gland responsible for the production of ________, which controls aldosterone secretion,it is also the primary source of erythropoietin production in adults, thus influencing the body’s red cell mass

A

Renin

128
Q

produces the biologically active form of vitamin D

A

Kidneys

129
Q

In pregnancy, dilation of the ureter is greater on the ________ side, probably because it is affected by displacement of the uterus to the __________ by an enlarged ________ ovarian vein.

A

Right; right; right

130
Q

an anatomic landmark one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus

A

McBurney point

131
Q

hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

A

Lynch syndrome

132
Q

associated with non-cancer tumors of skin, soft tissue and bones

A

Gardner Syndrome

133
Q

A bluish periumbilical discoloration suggests intra-abdominal bleeding

A

Cullen sign

134
Q

Most striae blue, silver, white but in Cushing it is

A

Purple

135
Q

A pearl-like, enlarged and sometimes painful umbilical nodule from cancer metastasis, known as _________________, may be the first sign of an intra-abdominal malignancy

A

Sister Mary Joseph’s nodule

136
Q

two other common causes of paralytic ileus

A

Narcotics and hypothyroidism

137
Q

Loud prolonged gurgles/stomach growling

A

Borborygmi

138
Q

is a semilunar region defined by the sixth rib superiorly, the midaxillary line laterally, and the left costal margin inferiorly

A

Traube space

139
Q

tensing of the abdominal musculature to protect inflamed organs—should alert you to move cautiously through the remainder of the examination.

A

Guarding

140
Q

is a board-like hardness of the abdominal wall overlying areas of peritoneal irritation

A

Rigidity

141
Q

If the abdomen is distended or the abdominal muscles tense, the usual techniques for determining the lower liver border may be challenging, and the___________ may be useful

A

scratch test

142
Q

T or F: a healthy gallbladder will not be palpable

A

T

143
Q

a palpable and tender gallbladder indicates ___________ while a non tender, palpable gallbladder indicates ________________

A

Choleycstitis; common bile duct obstruction

144
Q

As the inflamed gallbladder comes in contact with the examining fingers, the patient will experience pain and abruptly halt inspiration, this is called

A

Murphy’s sign

145
Q

a pathologic increase in fluid in the peritoneal cavity

A

Ascites

146
Q

When diagnosing abdominal pain: the farther from the umbilicus the pain, the more likely it will be organic in origin

A

apley rule

147
Q

is the most common indication for emergency abdominal surgery

A

Appendicitis

148
Q

Diagnosing appendicitides, the MANTRELS score is used, what does it stand for

A 
M= migration of pain
A= anorexia
N= Nausea/vomiting
T= tenderness in RLQ
R= Rebound pain
E= elevated temp
L= leukocytes is
S= shift to left
149
Q

uses patient age, history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, is another tool to help identify patients at low, moderate, and high risk of having appendicitis

A

OhmAnn score

150
Q

To diagnose appendicitis in children: uses pain with cough, hopping, or rebound tenderness with percussion in place of right lower quadrant pain

A

PAS= pediatric appendicitis score

151
Q

The two most vials clinical prediction rules for diagnosisng appendicitis in children are

A
  1. Alvarado score

2. PAS (pediatric appendicitis score)

152
Q

T or F: ectopic pregnancy is often diagnosed before rupture because symptoms are severe

A

F: ectopic pregnancy is often not diagnosed before rupture because symptoms are mild

153
Q

A test where you Ask the patient to raise the right leg, flexing at the hip, while you push downward… Pain with this techniques is considered a positive _______ sign, indicating irritation of the ____________ muscle.

A

Psoas; iliopsoas

154
Q

This test can be performed when you suspect a ruptured appendix or a pelvic abscess due to irritation of the obturator muscle; Pain in the right hypogastric region is a positive sign, indicating irritation of the ______________

A

obturator muscle

155
Q

Pain or distress occurs in area of patient’s heart or stomach on palpation of McBurney point; may be associated with appendicitis

A

Aaron sign

156
Q

Fixed dullness to percussion in left flank and dullness in right flank that disappears on change of position; may be associated with peritoneal irritation

A

Ballance test

157
Q

Rebound tenderness; may be associated with peritoneal irritation and appendicitis

A

Blumberg sign

158
Q

Absence of bowel sounds in right lower quadrant; may be associated with intussusception

A

Dance sign

159
Q

Ecchymosis of flanks

A

Gray turner sign

160
Q

Abdominal pain radiating to left shoulder; may be associated with splenic rupture, renal calculi, or ectopic pregnancy

A

Kehr sign

161
Q

Patient stands with straightened knees, then raises up on toes, relaxes, and allows heels to hit floor, thus jarring body; action will cause abdominal pain if positive; associated with peritoneal irritation or appendicitis

A

Markle (heel jar) sign

162
Q

Pain down the medial aspect of the thigh to the knees; may be associated with Strangulated obturator hernia

A

Romberg-howship sign

163
Q

Right lower quadrant pain intensified by left lower quadrant abdominal palpation; may be associated with appendicitis or peritoneal irritation

A

Rovsing sign

164
Q

is a palpation technique used to assess an organ or a mass

A

Ballottment

165
Q

Spider nevi in newborn may indicate

A

Liver disease

166
Q

____ arterie(s) and _____ vein(s) should be present in the umbilical cord. A single umbilical artery should alert you to the possibility of congenital anomalies

A

2; 1

167
Q

intestinal structure present in the umbilical cord or protruding into the umbilical area and visible through a thick transparent membrane suggests an

A

omphalocele

168
Q

Once the stump (of the umbilical cord) has separated, typically by 2 weeks of age, serous or serosanguineous discharge may indicate a ____________ when no other signs of infection are present

A

Granuloma

169
Q

A small umbilical hernia is common in children; it will typically close by what age

A

1-2 years old

170
Q

How long after birth should you hear bowel sounds in newborn

A

1-2 hours

171
Q

An enlarged spleen may indicate congenital____________ disease or sepsis in an ill-appearing infant

A

hemolytic

172
Q

More than half of all masses detected in newborns are ________________ in origin

A

genitourinary

173
Q

Three or more watery or loose stools per day; Camping or well water exposes individuals to Giardia and Campylobacter through untreated water; may be caused from international travel in food, undercooks beef, meat

A

Acute diarrhea

174
Q

feeling of incomplete defecation

A

Tenesmus

175
Q

Backward flow of gastric contents, which are typically acidic, into the esophagus; Caused by relaxation or incompetence of the lower esophageal sphincter; Delayed gastric emptying is a predisposing factor; More common among older adults and in pregnant individuals

A

Gastroespohageal reflux disease

176
Q

Functional chronic gastrointestinal disorder with symptoms of pain and change in stooling patterns; consisting of abdominal pain, bloating, constipation; or abdominal pain, urgency, and diarrhea; or mixed constipation and diarrhea estimated 10%–15% of U.S. adults affected; more often in women;

A

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

177
Q

Part of the stomach passes through the esophageal hiatus in the diaphragm into the chest cavity; About 95% are classified as sliding hernias where the gastroesophageal junction is displaced above the diaphragm; associated with obesity, pregnancy, heavy lifting, hard coughing, and straining with bowel movements

A

Hiatal Hernia

178
Q

Chronic circumscribed break in the duodenal mucosa that scars with healing; Typically develops from infection with Helicobacter pylori resulting in increased gastrin production and acid secretion; May be caused by Zollinger- Ellison syndrome

A

Duodenal ulcer (Duodenal Peptic Ulcer Disease)

179
Q

a rare disorder where one or more tumors (gastrinomas) secrete gastrin

A

Zollinger- Ellison syndrome

180
Q

Chronic inflammatory disorder that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract that produces ulceration, fibrosis, and malabsorption; terminal ileum and colon are the most common sites; occurs from an imbalance between proinflammatory and anti- inflammatory mediators in genetically susceptible individuals; fistula and abcess formation common

A

Crohn’s disease

181
Q

Chronic inflammatory disorder of the colon and rectum that produces mucosal friability and areas of ulceration; Active chronic ulcerative colitis predisposes an individual to developing colon cancer; Sclerosing cholangitis (inflammation, scarring and destruction of bile ducts) may present with fatigue and jaundice

A

Ulcerative Colitis

182
Q

inflammation, scarring and destruction of bile ducts

A

Sclerosing cholangitis

183
Q

Malignancy that arises from epithelial cells of the mucous membrane; One of the most common malignancies worldwide; Twice as common in males; Helicobacter pylori infection is a major risk factor; Most commonly found in lower half of the stomach

A

Gastric cancer

184
Q

Small bulges or saclike outpouchings (diverticula) through colonic muscle in the intestine; May involve any part of the gastrointestinal tract; the sigmoid is the most commonly affected location; most patients asymptomatic or with LLQ pain

A

Diverticula disease

185
Q

May involve the rectum, sigmoid, proximal, and descending colon; second leading cause of cancer-related death in US

A

Colon Cancer (Colorectal Cancer)

186
Q

Inflammatory process characterized by diffuse or patchy hepatocellular necrosis; Most commonly caused by viral infection, alcohol, drugs, or toxins

A

Hepatitis

187
Q

Hepatitis __ occurs only in those infected with hepatitis B, either as a coinfection in acute hepatitis B or as a superinfection in chronic hepatitis B
Hepatitis ___ is a self-limited type that may occur after a natural disaster because of fecal-contaminated water or food

A

D; E

188
Q

Late stage of liver disease characterized by fibrosis (scarring), alteration of normal hepatic architecture and loss of function; Signs and symptoms occur as a result of decreased liver synthetic function, decreased detoxification capabilities, or portal hypertension

A

Cirrhosis

189
Q

Most common type of liver cancer in the United States; Risk factors include hepatitis C infection, hepatitis B infection, excessive alcohol intake, obesity, diabetes, nonalcoholic fatty liver disease and smoking; pt may have clay-colored stools, and tea colored urine

A

Primary Hepatocellular Carcinoma

190
Q

Stone formation in the gallbladder occurs when certain substances reach a high concentration in bile and produce crystals; Crystals mix with mucus and form gallbladder sludge; over time, the crystals enlarge, mix, and form stones; Main substances involved in gallstone formation are cholesterol (>80%) and calcium bilirubinate; Chronic disease can result in fibrosis and gallbladder dysfunction and predispose to gallbladder cancer

A

Cholelithiasis

191
Q

Inflammatory process of the gallbladder most commonly due to obstruction of the cystic duct from cholelithiasis, which may be acute or chronic; RUQ pain radiates to right scapula; fat intolerance;

A

Cholecystitis

192
Q

Spectrum of hepatic disease due to fat stored in the liver in the absence of excessive alcohol intake; most common cause of chronic liver disease worldwide; affects 25% of adults;

A

Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease

193
Q

Acute inflammatory process in which release of pancreatic enzymes results in pancreatic glandular autodigestion; biliary disease (cholelithiasis) and chronic alcohol use, accounting for approximately 80% of cases; in severe cases, Cullen and Grey Turner signs may be present

A

Acute Pancreatitis

194
Q

Chronic inflammatory process of the pancreas, characterized by irreversible morphologic changes resulting in atrophy, fibrosis, and pancreatic calcifications; most common cause is chronic alcohol use

A

Chronic Pancreatitis

195
Q

Most commonly injured organ in abdominal trauma because of its anatomic location; Mechanism of injury can be either blunt or penetrating but is more often blunt; LUQ pain radiates to left shoulder

A

Spleen Laceration/Rupture

196
Q

Inflammation of the capillary loops of the renal glomeruli; Accounts for about 20% of chronic kidney disease

A

Acute Glomerulonephritis

197
Q

Dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces due to an obstruction of urine flow anywhere from the urethral meatus to the kidneys; Increasing ureteral pressure from urine results in changes in glomerular filtration, tubular function, and renal blood flow; severe renal colic pain in acute obsrtuction

A

Hydronephrosis

198
Q

Infection of the kidney and renal pelvis

A

Pyelonephritis

199
Q

Localized infection in the medulla or cortex of the kidneys; bscesses in the renal cortex are often caused by gram-positive organisms (Staphylococcus aureus and Enterococcus fecalis); Medullary abscesses are commonly caused by gram- negative bacilli (E. coli and Klebsiella)

A

Renal abscess

200
Q

Stones formed in the pelvis of the kidney associated with obstruction and infections in the urinary tract; Stones are composed of calcium, oxalate, uric acid, cystine, xanthine, and phosphate

A

Renal Calculi

201
Q

Prolapse, or telescoping, of one segment of intestine into another causes intestinal obstruction; Sausage-shaped mass may be palpated in the right or left upper quadrant, whereas the right lower quadrant feels empty (positive Dance sign)

A

Intusussception

202
Q

Hypertrophy of the circular muscle of the pylorus, leading to obstruction of the pyloric sphincter; Cause is unknown; an association has been found with use of erythromycin; Small, rounded, olive-shaped mass sometimes palpable in the right upper quadrant, particularly after the infant vomits

A

Pyloric Stenosis

203
Q

Distal intestinal obstruction caused by thick inspissated impacted meconium in the lower intestine of a newborn; May be the first manifestation of cystic fibrosis (CF); Pancreatic insufficiency or congenital pancreatic anomalies (pancreatic duct stenosis) are thought to be contributing factors

A

Meconium ileus

204
Q

Congenital obstruction or absence of some or all of the bile duct system, resulting in bile flow obstruction; most have complete absence of entire extrahepatic biliary tree; In postnatal onset, disease inflammation and necrosis of extrahepatic bile ducts are thought to result from a perinatal insult (e.g., viral infection); can be postnatal or embryonic onset

A

Biliary atresia

205
Q

Outpouching of the ileum that varies in size from a small appendiceal process to a segment of bowel several inches long, often in the proximity of the ileocecal valve; Develops from incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct resulting in a blind- ending pouch that contains all the mucosal layers in the ileum

A

Meckel Diverticulum

206
Q

Most common congenital anomaly of the gastrointestinal tract, occurring in about 2% of the general population

A

Meckel diverticulum

207
Q

Inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa associated with prematurity and gut immaturity; most common GI emergency in neonates; most commonly in the distal ileum and proximal colon

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

208
Q

Solid malignancy of embryonal origin in the peripheral sympathetic nervous system; Although commonly arising from the adrenal medulla, may occur anywhere along the craniospinal axis; Metastases to the periorbital region result in proptosis and infraorbital ecchymoses; Horner syndrome, ataxia, and opsomyoclonus (“dancing eyes and dancing feet”) may be seen on physical examination

A

Neuroblastoma

209
Q

Most common intra-abdominal tumor of childhood; painless enlargement of abdomen; usually appears between 3 and 5 years of age; gene is located on chromosome 11 and regulates normal kidney development; about 20% of affected children have mutations of this gene

A

Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma)

210
Q

Primary absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in a segment of the colon, which interrupts intestinal motility; Abnormal intestinal innervation results in the absence of peristalsis, which leads to the accumulation of stool proximal to the defect and intestinal obstruction; Most common cause of lower intestinal obstruction in newborns

A

Hirschsprung Disease (Congenital Aganglionic Megacolon)

211
Q

Triad of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and uremia; One of the most common causes of acute kidney injury in children; common cause in US= Shiga-like toxin produced by Escherichia coli; Risk factors include ingestion of undercooked meat or unpasteurized milk; most have preceding upper respiratory infection

A

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

212
Q

Inability to control bowel movements, leading to leakage of stool; associated with three major causes—fecal impaction, underlying disease, and neurogenic disorders; fecal impact ion is most common cause

A

Fecal Incontinence

Advanced HA (13 decks)

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