Module 5 Flashcards

1
Q

How long and how wide is the trachea

A

10-11 cm; 2 cm in diamter

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2
Q

Trachea divides into right and left main stem at the level of _____________

A

T4 and T5

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3
Q

Other name for the manubriosternal joint

A

Sternal angle or angle of louis

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4
Q

Arteries that branch from the anterior thoracic aorta and the intercostal arteries

A

bronchial arteries

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5
Q

The bronchial vein is formed at the __________ of the lung, but most of the blood supplied by the bronchial arteries is returned by the ____________ veins

A

hilum; pulmonary

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6
Q

A visible and palpable angulation of the sternum and the point at which the second rib articulates with the sternum

A

The manubriosternal junction (angle of Louis)

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7
Q

A depression, easily palpable and most often visible at the base of the ventral aspect of the neck, just superior to the manubriosternal junction

A

The Suprasternal notch

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8
Q

The angle formed by the costal margins at the sternum. It is usually no more than 90 degrees, with the ribs inserted at approximately 45-degree angles

A

Costal angle

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9
Q

Name for the spinous process of C7. It can be more readily seen and felt with the patient’s head bent forward.

A

Vertebra prominens

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10
Q

When inspecting the chest of an infant: note that the anteroposterior diameter is approximately __________ as the lateral diameter.

A

The same

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11
Q

The number of alveoli increases at a rapid rate in the first ____ years of life. This slows down by age ____ years.

A

2: 8

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12
Q

When does an infants lungs fill with air for the first time

A

During the infants initial gasp and cry

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13
Q

Most often leads to closure of the heart’s foramen ovale within minutes after birth, and the increased oxygen tension in the arterial blood usually stimulates contraction and closure of the ductus arteriosus

A

Cutting the umbilical cord

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14
Q

The chest of the newborn is generally what shape

A

Round

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15
Q

The failure for the foremen ovales and ductus arteriosus to close is more common in

A

Premature infants born before 30 weeks

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16
Q

can lead to left ventricular overload and heart failure in a newborn

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

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17
Q

The costal angle progressively increases from about 68.5 degrees to approximately _______ degrees in later months of pregnancy

A

103.5

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18
Q

In pregnancy, the diaphragm at rest rises as much as _____ cm above its usual resting position

A

4

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19
Q

What usually increases in pregnancy: minute volume or respiratory rate

A

Minute ventilation due to increase tidal volume

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20
Q

_________ in an older adult is often caused by loss of muscle strength in the thorax and diaphragm, coupled with loss of lung resiliency

A

Barrel chest

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21
Q

Moist or productive cough, accompanied by fever, may be caused by

A

infection

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22
Q

A regular, paroxysmal cough that produces an inspiration whoop, is heard in

A

Pertussis

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23
Q

Commonly observed with pulmonary or cardiac compromise

A

Dyspnea

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24
Q

shortness of breath that begins or increases when the patient lies down; ask whether the patient needs to sleep on more than one pillow and whether that helps

A

Orthopnea

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25
Q

a sudden onset of shortness of breath after a period of sleep; sitting upright is helpful

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

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26
Q

dyspnea increases in the upright posture

A

Platypnea

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27
Q

can cause tachycardia, hypertension, coronary arterial spasm (with infarction), and pneumothorax (lung collapse), with severe acute chest pain being the common result

A

Cocaine use

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28
Q

T or F: the AP diameter of the chest is generally > the lateral diameter

A

F: it is less than

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29
Q

results from compromised respiration as in, for example, chronic asthma, emphysema, or cystic fibrosis.

A

Barrel chest

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30
Q

Location: vertically down the midline of the sternum

A

Midsternal line

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31
Q

Location: parallel to the midsternal line, beginning at midclavicle; the
inferior borders of the lungs generally cross the sixth rib at the midclavicular line

A

Right and left midclavicular lines

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32
Q

Location: parallel to the midsternal line, beginning at the anterior axillary fold

A

Right and left anterior axillary lines

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33
Q

Location: parallel to the midsternal line, beginning at the midaxilla

A

Right and left midaxillary lines

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34
Q

Location: parallel to the midsternal line, beginning at the posterior axillary folds

A

Right and left posterior axillarty lines

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35
Q

Location: vertically down the spinal process

A

Vertebral line

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36
Q

Location: parallel to the vertebral line, through the inferior angle of the scapula when the patient is erect

A

Right and left scapular lines

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37
Q

The spine may be deviated either posteriorly (_called:________) or laterally (called: _________)

A

kyphosis; scoliosis

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38
Q

a prominent sternal protrusion

A

Pigeon Chest or pectus carinatum

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39
Q

an indentation of the lower sternum above the xiphoid process

A

Funnel chest (pectus excavatum)

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40
Q

The sequence of steps in examination of the chest and lungs is:

A
  1. Inspection
  2. Palpation
  3. Percussion
  4. Auscultation
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41
Q

In a pleural effusion and Lobar pneumonia, the percussion sound is

A

Dullness

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42
Q

In pleural effusions, breath sounds are

A

Absent

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43
Q

In lobar pneumonia, breath sounds are

A

Bronchial

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44
Q

On palpation, tactile fremitus is __________ in a pleural effusion while it is ____________with lobar pneumonia

A

Absent; increased

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45
Q

Normal RR for adults

A

12-16 breath per minute

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46
Q

Ratio of RR to HR is

A

1:4

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47
Q

is a persistent respiratory rate above 16 respirations per minute in an adult

A

Tachypnea

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48
Q

________________, a rate slower than 12 respirations per minute, may indicate neurologic or electrolyte disturbance, infection, or a conscious response to protect against the pain of pleurisy or other irritative phenomena.

A

Bradypnea

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49
Q

Word for breathing deeply

A

Hyperpnea

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50
Q

always deep and most often rapid, is the eponym applied to the respiratory effort associated with metabolic acidosis

A

Kussmaul breathing

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51
Q

refers to abnormally shallow respirations

A

Hypopnea

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52
Q

A regular periodic pattern of breathing with intervals of apnea followed by a crescendo/decresendo sequence of respiration

A

Cheyne stokes

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53
Q

is the result of a prolonged but inefficient expiratory effort; can also result from increased resistance (i.e., chronic bronchitis), decreased elastic recoil of the lung (i.e., emphysema) or a drop in the critical closing pressure of the airway (i.e., asthma)

A

Air trapping

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54
Q

consists of irregular respirations varying in depth and interrupted by intervals of apnea but lacking the repetitive pattern of periodic respiration

A

Biot or ataxic respiration

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55
Q

usually is associated with severe and persistent increased intracranial pressure, respiratory compromise resulting from drug poisoning, or brain damage at the level of the medulla and generally indicates a poor prognosis

A

Biot respiration

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56
Q

Common contributors include seizures, central nervous system trauma or hypoperfusion, a variety of infections of the respiratory passageway, drug ingestions, and obstructive sleep disorders

A

Apnea

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57
Q

A self-limited condition, and not uncommon after a blow to the head. It is especially noted immediately after the birth of a newborn, who will breathe spontaneously when sufficient carbon dioxide accumulates in the circulation

A

Primary apnea

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58
Q

Breathing stops and will not begin spontaneously unless resuscitative measures are immediately instituted. Any event that severely limits the absorption of oxygen into the bloodstream will lead to secondary apnea.

A

Secondary apnea

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59
Q

When irritating and nausea-provoking vapors or gases are inhaled, there can be an involuntary, temporary halt to respiration.

A

Reflex apnea

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60
Q

characterized by periods of an absence of breathing and oxygenation during sleep. Due to blockage of the airway when the soft tissue in the back of the throat collapses during sleep, airflow is not maintained through the nose and mouth.

A

Sleep apnea

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61
Q

Characterized by a long inspiration and what amounts to expiration apnea. The neural center for control is in the breathing pons and medulla. When it is affected, breathing can become gasping because inspirations are prolonged and expiration constrained

A

Apneustic breathing

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62
Q

A normal condition characterized by an irregular pattern of rapid breathing interspersed with brief periods of apnea that one usually associated with rapid eye movement sleep

A

Periodic apnea of the newborn

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63
Q

Inspiratory stridor (with an I/E ratio of more than 2:1); A hoarse cough or cry; Flaring of the alae nasi; Retraction at the suprasternal notch

All may indicate

A

Upper airway obstruction

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64
Q

Stridor is inspiratory and expiratory; Cough has a barking character; Retractions also involve the subcostal and intercostal spaces; Cyanosis is obvious even with supplemental oxygen

May indicate

A

Severe upper airway obstruction

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65
Q

Stridor tends to be quieter; The voice is muffled; Swallowing is more difficult; cough is not a factor; The head and neck may be awkwardly positioned to preserve the airway (e.g., extended with retropharyngeal abscess; head to the affected side with peritonsillar abscess

May indicate what type of obstruction

A

Above the glottis

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66
Q

Stridor tends to be louder, more rasping; The voice is hoarse; Swallowing is not affected; Cough is harsh, barking; Positioning of the head is not a factor

May indicate what type of obstruction

A

Below the glottis

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67
Q

causes unilateral retractions, but they are not seen in the suprasternal notch

A

Foreign body in the bronchus

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68
Q

Retraction of the lower chest occurs with

A

asthma and bronchiolitis

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69
Q

Flaring of the alae nasi during inspiration is a sign of

A

air hunger

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70
Q

T or F: Crepitus always results from an underlying pathological process

A

T

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71
Q

A palpable, coarse, grating vibration, usually on inspiration, suggests a

A

Pleural friction rub

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72
Q

Where is fremitus best felt

A

Posteriorly and laterally at the level of the bifurcation of the bronchi

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73
Q

T or F: the scapulae may obscure fremitus

A

T

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74
Q

dullness to percussion and decreased tactile fremitus are the most useful findings for

A

Pleural effusion

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75
Q

Hyperresonance associated with hyperinflation may indicate

A

emphysema, pneumothorax, or asthma

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76
Q

Dullness or flatness on percussion suggests

A

pneumonia, atelectasis, pleural effusion, or asthma

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77
Q

the movement of the thoracic diaphragm that occurs with inhalation and exhalation

A

Diaphragmatic excursion

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78
Q

Why is the diaphragm usually higher on the right than the left

A

Sits over the liver

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79
Q

___________ breath sounds are low-pitched, low-intensity sounds heard over healthy lung tissue

A

Vesicular

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80
Q

_________________ sounds are heard over the major bronchi and are typically moderate in pitch and intensity.

A

Bronchovesicular

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81
Q

The sounds highest in pitch and intensity are the __________ breath sounds, which are ordinarily heard only over the trachea

A

Bronchial

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82
Q

T or F: Both bronchovesicular and bronchial breath sounds are normal if they are heard over the peripheral lung tissue.

A

F: they are abnormal

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83
Q

sounding as if coming from a cavern, is commonly heard over a pulmonary cavity in which the wall is rigid

A

Cavernous breathing

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84
Q

T or F: Breath sounds are easier to hear when the lungs are consolidated

A

T

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85
Q

Are crackles continuous or discontinuous

A

Discontinuous

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86
Q

Are ronchi and wheezes continuous or discontinuous

A

Continuous

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87
Q

Is an abnormal respiratory sound heard more often during inspiration and characterized by discrete discontinuous sounds, each lasting just a few milliseconds

A

Crackles

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88
Q

may be fine, high-pitched, and relatively short in duration or coarse, low-pitched, and relatively longer in duration. They are caused by the disruptive passage of air through the small airways in the respiratory tree

A

Crackles

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89
Q

High-pitched crackles are described as_____________; the more low-pitched crackles are termed _____________

A

sibilant; sonorous

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90
Q

are deeper, more rumbling, more pronounced during expiration, more likely to be prolonged and continuous, and less discrete than crackles.

A

Rhonchi

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91
Q

They are caused by the passage of air through an airway obstructed by thick secretions, muscular spasm, tumor, or external pressure

A

Rhonchi

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92
Q

High-pitched, discrete, discontinuous crackling sounds heard during the end of inspiration; not cleared by a cough

A

Fine crackles

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93
Q

lower, more moist sound heard during the midstage of inspiration; not cleared by a cough

A

Medium crackles

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94
Q

loud, bubbly noise heard during inspiration; not cleared by a cough

A

Coarse crackles

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95
Q

loud, low, coarse sounds like a snore most often heard continuously during inspiration or expiration; coughing may clear sound (usually means mucus accumulation in trachea or large bronchi)

A

Rhonchi (sonorous wheezes)

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96
Q

musical noise most often heard continuously during inspiration or expiration; usually louder during expiration

A

Wheeze (Sibilant wheeze)

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97
Q

dry, rubbing, or grating sound, usually caused by inflammation of pleural surfaces; heard during inspiration or expiration; loudest over lower lateral anterior surface

A

Pleural friction rub

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98
Q

Do rhonchi or crackles tend to disappear with coughing

A

Rhonchi

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99
Q

If a wheeze is heard bilaterally, it may be caused by

A

bronchospasm of asthma (reactive airway disease) or acute or chronic bronchitis.

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100
Q

Adventitious breath sound that occurs outside the respiratory tree

A

Friction rub

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101
Q

How to tell if a rub is respiratory or cardiac related

A

Ask pt to hold breath; if sound stops while breath is health it is not respiratory related

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102
Q

is found with mediastinal emphysema

A

Mediastinal crunch (Hamman sign)

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103
Q

Greater clarity and increased loudness of spoken sounds are defined as

A

bronchophony

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104
Q

When the intensity of the spoken voice is increased and there is a nasal quality (e.g., “e” becomes a stuffy, broad “a”), the auditory quality is called

A

Egophany

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105
Q

Normal RR of infant

A

40-60 up to 80

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106
Q

Do C section or vaginally delivered babies tend to have higher RR at birth

A

C section

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107
Q

Highest score on a APGAR scoring system

A

10

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108
Q

In which age group is paradoxical breathing normal

A

Newborn/infant

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109
Q

Why are crackle and rhonchi normal after birth in newborn

A

Fetal fluid has not yet been completely cleared

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110
Q

What should you expect if gastrointestinal gurgling sound is persistently heard in the chest of a newborn in respiratory distress

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

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111
Q

T or F: hyperresonance is common in the young child.

A

T

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112
Q

How does a parturiant typically change respiration to achieve optimum o2 intake

A

Breath deeper (higher TV)

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113
Q

Small airway obstruction due to inflammation within the airways; Acute episodes triggered by allergens, anxiety, cold air, exercise, upper respiratory infections, cigarette smoke, or other allergens

A

Asthma

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114
Q

Incomplete expansion of the lung at birth or the collapse of the lung at any age

A

Atelectasis

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115
Q

Inflammation of the bronchial tubes leads to increased mucus secretions; Acutely due to a viral infection, whereas chronic is usually due to irritant exposure, most commonly smoking.

A

Bronchitis

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116
Q

Respiratory failure with low blood oxygen levels resulting from the inhalation of aerosols (vapors) produced from heating solutions containing nicotine or other substances

A

E-Cigarette or Vaping-Associated Acute Lung Injury

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117
Q

Inflammatory process involving the visceral and parietal pleura; often the result of PE, infection, or connective tissue disease; sometimes associated with asbestos or neoplasms

A

Pleurisy

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118
Q

Excessive nonpurulent fluid in the pleural space; Sources of fluid vary and include infection, heart failure, renal insufficiency, connective tissue disease, neoplasm, and trauma.

A

Pleural Effusion

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119
Q

Purulent exudative fluid collected in the pleural space; Non–free-flowing purulent fluid collection develops most commonly from adjacent infected tissues; May be complicated by pneumonia, simultaneous pneumothorax, or a bronchopleural fistula

A

Empyema

120
Q

Well-defined, circumscribed, inflammatory, and purulent mass that can develop central necrosis; Aspiration of food or infected material from upper respiratory or dental sources of infection are most common causes; It may elude diagnosis for some time.

A

Lung abcess

121
Q

Inflammatory response of the bronchioles and alveoli to an infective agent (bacterial, fungal, or viral); Acute infection of the pulmonary parenchyma may be due to different organisms that may be acquired in the community or hospital setting; contaminant inflammatory exudates leads to lung consolidation

A

Pneumonia

122
Q

Viral infection of the lung. Although this originates as a viral respiratory infection, due to alterations in the epithelial barrier, the infected host is more susceptible to secondary bacterial infection; Entire respiratory tract may be overwhelmed by interstitial inflammation and necrosis extending throughout the bronchiolar and alveolar tissue.

A

Influenza

123
Q

COVID-19 is a viral infection caused by the severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS- CoV-2).

A

Covid 19

124
Q

Chronic infectious disease that most often begins in the lung but may then have widespread manifestation

A

Tuberculosis

125
Q

Presence of air or gas in the pleural cavity; May result from trauma or may occur spontaneously, perhaps because of rupture of a congenital or acquired bleb

A

Pneumothorax

126
Q

Presence of blood in the pleural cavity; • May be the result of trauma or invasive medical procedures (e.g., thoracentesis, central line placement or attempt, pleural biopsy)

A

Hemothorax

127
Q

Generally refers to bronchogenic carcinoma, a malignant tumor that evolves from bronchial epithelial structures; Etiologic agents include tobacco smoke, asbestos, ionizing radiation, and other inhaled carcinogenic agents.

A

Lung cancer

128
Q

The embolic occlusion of pulmonary arteries typically resulting from dislodged thrombosis within the deep veins of the legs; Risk factors include, among others, age older than 40 years, a history of venous thromboembolism, surgery with anesthesia longer than 30 min, heart disease, cancer, fracture of the pelvis and leg bones, obesity, and acquired or genetic thrombophilia.

A

PE

129
Q

Acute, life-threatening infection involving the epiglottis and surrounding tissues; • Acute inflammation of the epiglottis due to bacterial invasion Haemophilus influenza type B, group A beta hemolytic streptococcus, staphylococcus, leading to life threatening airway obstruction, may cause death

A

Epiglottitis

130
Q

Result of an imperfectly structured diaphragm, occurs once in slightly more than 2000 live births; on left side 90% of time; In a Bochdalek hernia, the diaphragm may not develop properly, and the intestine may become trapped in the chest cavity as a result; In a Morgagni hernia, the tendon that should develop in the middle of the diaphragm does not develop properly.

A

Diaphragmatic Hernia

131
Q

Autosomal recessive disorder of exocrine glands involving the lungs, pancreas, and sweat glands; Thick mucus causes progressive clogging of the bronchi and bronchioles; Bronchiectasis results with cyst formation and subsequent pulmonary infection.

A

Cycstic fibrosis

132
Q

Syndrome that generally results from infection with a variety of viral agents, particularly the parainfluenza viruses, occurring most often in children from about 1.5 to 3 years of age; The inflammation is subglottic and may involve areas beyond the larynx

A

Croup (Laryngotracheal bronchitis)

133
Q

Lack of rigidity or a floppiness of the trachea or airway; Trachea narrows in response to the varying pressures of inspiration and expiration.

A

Tracheomalacia

134
Q

Bronchiolar (small airway) inflammation leading to hyperinflation of the lungs, occurring most often in infants younger than 6 months; Usual cause is respiratory syncytial virus; other viral organisms include adenovirus, parainfluenza virus, and human metapneumovirus; The virus acts as a parasite invading small bronchioles. The virus bursts and invades other cells that die and obstruct and irritate the airway.

A

Bronchiolitis

135
Q

a nonspecific designation that includes a group of respiratory problems in which coughs, chronic and often excessive sputum production, and dyspnea are prominent features. Ultimately, an irreversible expiratory airflow obstruction occurs

A

COPD

136
Q

Condition in which the lungs lose elasticity and alveoli enlarge in a way that disrupts function; gas exchange compromised

A

Emphysema

137
Q

Chronic dilation of the bronchi or bronchioles caused by repeated pulmonary infections and bronchial obstruction; often seen in Cystic fibrosis

A

Bronchiectasis

138
Q

Large airway chronic inflammation leading to mucus production, usually a result of chronic irritant exposure, most often smoking; more commonly a problem for patients older than 40

A

Chronic bronchitis

139
Q

The area of the chest overlying the heart is the

A

Precordium

140
Q

Broad upper part of the heart is called ___________; while the narrow lower tip is called _____________

A

Base; apex

141
Q

When the heart is a mirror image of the normal positioning

A

Dextrocardia

142
Q

is when the heart and stomach are placed to the right and the liver to the left

A

Situs inversus

143
Q

the thin outermost muscle layer of the heart

A

Epicardium

144
Q

What are the typical dimensions of the adult heart

A

12 cm long X 8 cm wide X 6 cm at AP diameter

145
Q

What makes up the most posterior aspect of the heart

A

Left atrium and ventricle

146
Q

Where is the apical pulse best felt

A

Fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line

147
Q

The AV valves

A

Tricuspid and mitral valves

148
Q

separates the right atrium from the right ventricle

A

Tricuspid valve

149
Q

AV valve that has two cusps, and separates the left atrium from the left ventricle

A

Mitral valve

150
Q

When are the AV valves open, during systole or diastole?

A

Diastole

151
Q

When do the AV valves close, during systole or diastole?

A

Systole

152
Q

Do the semilunar valves have two or three cusps

A

3

153
Q

Are the semilunar valves open during systole or diastole?

A

Systole

154
Q

When are the semilunar valves closed, during systole or diastole?

A

Diastole

155
Q

Which valves closing are responsible for the S1 heart sound

A

AV- mitral and tricuspid

156
Q

Closure of which valves causes the S2 sound

A

Semilunar- aortic and pulmonic

157
Q

Why are valve sounds heard best away from the anatomic site?

A

Sound is transmitted in the direction of blood flow

158
Q

Where does the hearts electrical impulse typically come from

A

They SA node in the wall of the right atrium

159
Q

On an ECG: the spread of a stimulus through the atria (atrial depolarization)

A

P wave

160
Q

On an ECG: the time from initial stimulation of the atria to initial stimulation of the ventricles,
usually 0.12 to 0.20 second

A

PR interval

161
Q

On an ECG: the spread of a stimulus through the ventricles (ventricular depolarization), less than 0.12 second

A

QRS complex

162
Q

On an ECG: the return of stimulated ventricular muscle to a resting state (ventricular repolarization)

A

ST segment and T wave

163
Q

On an ECG: a small deflection rarely seen just after the T wave, thought to be related to repolarization of the Purkinje fibers. They are commonly seen with bradycardia. This is also seen sometimes with electrolyte abnormalities, hypothermia, and hypothyroidism.

A

U wave

164
Q

On an ECG: the time elapsed from the onset of ventricular depolarization until the completion of ventricular repolarization. The interval varies with the cardiac rate

A

QT interval

165
Q

In the fetus, blood flows from the right atrium into the left atrium via the

A

foramen ovale

166
Q

In the newborn, the changes in the heart at birth include:

A

Closure of ductus artiosus (in 24-48 hours) and closure of inter arterial foramen ovale

167
Q

What causes foramen ovale to close shortly after birth

A

Rise in pressure in the left atrium

168
Q

In a fetus, the right and left ventricles are _________ in weight and muscle mass because they both pump blood into the systemic circulation, unlike the adult heart

A

Equal

169
Q

By what age are the relative size of the left and right ventricle approximately the adult ratio, 2:1

A

1 year old

170
Q

The adult heart positioning is reached by what age

A

7

171
Q

Parturients blood volume increases by what percent

A

40-50% prepregnancy levels

172
Q

How much does plasma volume increase in pregnant patient

A

50%, could be 70% in twin pregnancy

173
Q

At what point after delivery does blood volume return to prepregnany levels

A

3-4 weeks

174
Q

How much does cardiac output increase in pregnant patient

A

30-40%

175
Q

When is cardiac output highest in pregnant patient

A

25-32 weeks gestation

176
Q

How long after delivery does it take parturients cardiac output to return to pre pregnancy levels

A

2 weeks

177
Q

What may elevate the apex of the heart

A

Pregnancy and ascites

178
Q

Traditional auscultatory location of aortic valve

A

second right intercostal space at the right sternal border

179
Q

Traditional auscultatory location of pulmonic valve

A

second left intercostal space at the left sternal border

180
Q

Traditional auscultatory location of second pulmonic area

A

third left intercostal space at the left sternal border

181
Q

Traditional auscultatory location of tricuspid

A

fourth left intercostal space along the lower left sternal border

182
Q

Traditional auscultatory location of mitral (apical) area

A

at the apex of the heart in the fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line

183
Q

If cardiac rhythm is irregular, compare the beats per minute by

A

Over the heart (apical HR) with the radial pulse rate

184
Q

S1 coincides with the rise (upswing) of the

A

carotid pulse

185
Q

marks the initiation of diastole and closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves

A

S2

186
Q

marks the beginning of systole

A

S1

187
Q

When are systole and diastole equal

A

When HR is rapid

188
Q

Where is a split S2 heard

A

Pulmonic auscultation area

189
Q

T or F: there may be some asynchrony heard between closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves

A

T

190
Q

What is an example of when S1 intensity is increased

A

Complete heart block

191
Q

What is an example of when S1 intensity is decreased

A

Systemic or pulmonary hypertension

192
Q

occurs when the mitral and tricuspid valves or the pulmonic and aortic valves do not close simultaneously

A

Splitting

193
Q

Splitting is more often heard and easier to detect in what population

A

The young

194
Q

Why is splitting often best heard in young?

A

The tendency of of the anterior posterior diameter of the chest to increase with age

195
Q

What causes the S4 sound in heart

A

Vibration of valves, papillae, and ventricular wall

196
Q

What age population is S4 most commonly heard

A

Older population

197
Q

T or F: a loud S4 sound is never a cause for concern

A

F: suggests pathology and should be further evaluated

198
Q

When does wide splitting occur

A

RBBB, stenosis delayed Pulmonic valve closure

199
Q

When does fixed splitting occur

A

Atrial septal defects, ventricular septal defect with L to R shunting, RV failure

200
Q

Splitting is said to be fixed when

A

It is unaffected by respiration

201
Q

occurs when closure of the aortic valve is delayed (e.g., as in left bundle branch block) so that P2 occurs first, followed by A2

A

Paradoxical (Reversed) Splitting

202
Q

In PAradoxical Splitting, the interval between P2 and A1 is heard during __________ and disappears during ___________.

A

Expiration, inspiration

203
Q

may produce an opening snap (mitral valve), ejection clicks (semilunar valves), or mid to late non ejection systolic clicks (mitral prolapse)

A

Valvular stenosis

204
Q

The pulmonary ejection click is best heard on ___________ in the second left intercostal space and is seldom heard on ________________

A

Expiration, inspiration

205
Q

Where would an aortic ejection click be heard

A

Second right intercostal space

206
Q

Where is pericardial friction rub best heard

A

Toward the apex

207
Q

A prosthetic aortic valve causes a sound in early

A

Systole

208
Q

What type of aortic valve material is usually quietest?

A

Animal tissue

209
Q

relatively prolonged extra sounds heard during systole or diastole

A

Heart murmur

210
Q

T or F: all murmurs are the result of valvular defects

A

F

211
Q

A murmur, particularly in young with no apparent cause

A

Still murmur

212
Q

Narrowed valve restricts forward flow; forceful ejection into ventricle Often occurs with mitral regurgitation Caused by rheumatic fever or cardiac infection

A

Mitral stenosis

213
Q

Calcification of valve cusps restricts forward flow; forceful ejection from ventricle into systemic circulation Caused by congenital bicuspid (rather than the usual tricuspid) valve, rheumatic heart disease, atherosclerosis ; May be the cause of sudden death, particularly in children and adolescents, either at rest or during exercise; risk apparently related to degree of stenosis

A

Aortic stenosis

214
Q

Fibrous ring, usually 1–4 mm below aortic valve; most pronounced on ventricular septal side; may become progressively severe with time; difficult to distinguish from aortic stenosis on clinical grounds alone

A

Subaortic stenosis

215
Q

Valve restricts forward flow; forceful ejection from ventricle into pulmonary circulation Cause is almost always congenital

A

Pulmonic stenosis

216
Q

Calcification of valve cusps restricts forward flow; forceful ejection into ventricles Usually seen with mitral stenosis, rarely occurs alone. Caused by rheumatic heart disease, congenital defect, endocardial fibroelastosis, right atrial myxoma

A

Tricuspid stenosis

217
Q

Valve incompetence allows backflow from left ventricle to left atrium Caused by rheumatic fever, myocardial infarction, myxoma, rupture of chordae

A

Mitral regurgitation

218
Q

Valve is competent early in systole but prolapses into atrium later in systole; may become progressively severe, resulting in a holosystolic murmur; often concurrent with pectus excavatum

A

Mitral valve prolapse

219
Q

Valve incompetence allows backflow from aorta to ventricle Caused by rheumatic heart disease, endocarditis, aortic diseases (Marfan syndrome, medial necrosis), syphilis, ankylosing spondylitis, dissection, cardiac trauma

A

Aortic regurgitation

220
Q

Valve incompetence allows backflow from pulmonary artery to ventricle Secondary to pulmonary hypertension or bacterial endocarditis

A

Pulmonic regurgitation

221
Q

Valve incompetence allows backflow from ventricle to atrium Caused by congenital defects, bacterial endocarditis (especially in intravenous drug abusers), pulmonary hypertension, cardiac trauma

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

222
Q

Valve defect heard at left lower sternum, occasionally radiating a few centimeters to left

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

223
Q

Valvular defect Heard with diaphragm,
patient sitting and leaning forward; Austin flint murmur heard with bell; ejection click heard in second intercostal space

A

Aortic regurgitation

224
Q

Valvular defect heard at apex and left lower sternal border; easily missed in supine position; also listen with patient upright

A

Mitral valve prolapse

225
Q

Valvular defect heard best at apex; loudest there, transmitted into left axilla

A

Mitral regurgitation

226
Q

Valvular defect heard with bell over tricuspid area

A

Tricuspid stenosis

227
Q

Valvular defect heard over pulmonic area radiating to left and into neck; thrill in second and third left intercostal spaces

A

Pulmonic stenosis

228
Q

Valvular defect heard at apex and along left sternal border

A

Subaortic stenosis

229
Q

Valvular defect heard over aortic area; ejection sound at second right intercostal border

A

Aortic stenosis

230
Q

Valvular defect heard with bell at apex, patient in left lateral decubitus position

A

Mitral stenosis

231
Q

A heart rate that is irregular but occurs in a repeated pattern may indicate

A

Sinus arrhythmia

232
Q

a cyclic variation of the heart rate characterized by an increasing rate on inspiration and decreasing rate on expiration

A

Sinus arrhythmia

233
Q

Infants with ________-sided congestive heart failure have large, firm livers with the inferior edge as much as 5 to 6 cm below the right costal margin

A

Right

234
Q

In infants, a purplish plethora/skin tone is associated with

A

Polycythemia

235
Q

an ashen white color in a newborns skin indicates

A

shock

236
Q

Central cyanosis in a newborn suggests

A

Congenital heart disease

237
Q

cyanosis of the hands and feet without central cyanosis

A

Acrocyanosis

238
Q

is a characteristic of congenital heart defects that allow mixture of arterial and venous blood or prevent blood flow to the lungs

A

Cyanosis

239
Q

evident at birth or shortly thereafter suggests transposition of the great vessels, tetralogy of Fallot, tricuspid atresia, a severe septal defect, or severe pulmonic stenosis

A

Severe cyanosis

240
Q

Cyanosis that does not appear until after the neonatal period suggests

A
  • pulmonic stenosis
  • eisenmenger complex
  • tetralogy of fallout
  • large septal defects
241
Q

heart defect that can lead to a right-to-left shunt

A

Eisenmenger complex

242
Q

Where can you palpate the apical pulse in a newborn

A

Fourth to fifth left intercostal space medial to the midclavicular line

243
Q

Pneumothorax shifts the apical impulse __________ from the area of injury

A

Away

244
Q

more commonly found on the left, shifts the heart of a neonate to the right

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

245
Q

Dextrocardia results in an apical impulse on the

A

Right

246
Q

In a neonate/infant, where can you feel the closure of the pulmonary valve in the

A

Second left intercostal space

247
Q

T or F: splitting of heart sounds is common in neonate/infants

A

T

248
Q

If you push up on the liver, thereby increasing right atrial pressure, the murmur of a left-to-right shunt through a septal opening or patent ductus will ____________ briefly, whereas the murmur of a right-to-left shunt will __________.

A

Disappear; intensify

249
Q

Murmurs are relatively common in newborns until

A

48 hours of age

250
Q

If you cannot tell a murmur from respiration in a neonate, you should

A

Listen while the baby is feeding

251
Q

Murmurs that extend beyond S2 and occupy diastole are said to have a _______________ quality

A

machine-like

252
Q

accounts for most acquired murmurs in children

A

Kawasaki disease

253
Q

More audible splitting of S1 and S2, and S3 may be readily heard after _____ weeks of gestation

A

20

254
Q

systolic ejection murmurs may be heard over the pulmonic area in ____% of pregnant patients

A

90

255
Q

Pain caused by myocardial ischemia; occurs when myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply

A

Angina

256
Q

Bacterial infection of the endothelial layer of the heart and valves; Individuals with congenital or acquired valve defects and those with history of previous illness or who use intravenous drugs are particularly susceptible

A

Bacterial endocarditis

257
Q

small erythematous or hemorrhagic macules appearing on the palms and soles; common to patients with bacterial endocarditis

A

Janeway lesions

258
Q

painful, red, raised lesions that appear on the tips of fingers or toes and are caused by septic emboli; common to patients with bacterial endocarditis

A

Osler nodes

259
Q

Systolic CHF has a _______ pulse pressure while diastolic CHF has a ___________ pulse pressure

A

Narrow, wide

260
Q

Heart fails to propel blood forward with its usual force, resulting in congestion in the pulmonary circulation

A

Congestive heart failure- left sided

261
Q

_________ CHF is due to impaired contraction of the left ventricle; ______________ CHF is a result of advanced glycation cross-linking collagen and creating a
stiff ventricle unable to dilate actively (impaired relaxation) and occurs in older adults with diabetes mellitus whose tissue is exposed to glucose for a longer period of time.

A

Systolic; diastolic

262
Q

Heart fails to propel blood forward with its usual force, resulting in congestion in the systemic circulation; decreased cardiac output causes decreased blood flow to the tissue

A

Congestive heart failure- right sided

263
Q

In what type of CHF is pitting edema in lower extremities, JVD, ascites, and hepatomegaly common

A

Right sided

264
Q

The most helpful physical examination findings in the diagnosis of left-sided heart failure is

A

Cardiomegaly (displaced PMI/abnormal apical impulse

265
Q

The most helpful physical examination findings in the diagnosis of right-sided congestive heart failure is

A

JVD

266
Q

Inflammation of the pericardium often the result of a viral infection such as echovirus or Coxsackie

A

Pericarditis

267
Q

Excessive accumulation of effused fluids or blood between the pericardium and the heart; Seriously constrains cardiac relaxation, impairing blood return to the right heart. Common causes: pericarditis, malignancy, aortic dissection, and trauma

A

Cardiac tamponade

268
Q

Enlargement of the right ventricle secondary to chronic lung disease; usually chronic condition; Results from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and
pulmonary arterial hypertension

A

COR pulmonale

269
Q

In what cardiac condition do you see prominent A or V waves and distended neck veins

A

COR pulmonale

270
Q

Ischemic myocardial necrosis caused by abrupt decrease in coronary blood flow to a segment of the myocardium; most commonly affects left ventricle; results from atherosclerosis of coronary blood vessels

A

Myocardial infarction

271
Q

Which cardiac abnormality would have new ST elevation in two contiguous leads

A

Myocardial infarction

272
Q

Focal or diffuse inflammation of the myocardium. Inflammation can occur from direct cytotoxic effect of secondary immune response. Causes can be viral, bacterial, spirochetal, fungal, protozoal, helminthic, from venomous bites, chemo, drugs, systemic inflammatory diseases, peripartum

A

Myocarditis

273
Q

Conduction disturbances either proximal to the bundle of His or diffusely throughout the conduction system; may result from ischemic, infiltrative, or neoplastic causes. Antidepressant medications, digitalis, quinidine, and many other medications can be precipitating factor.

A

Conduction disturbances

274
Q

Arrhythmias caused by a malfunction of the sinus node; Occurs secondary to hypertension, arteriosclerotic heart disease, or rheumatic heart, or without known cause (idiopathic)

A

Sick sinus syndrome

275
Q

Atrial rate far in excess of ventricular rate; heart sounds not necessarily weak; Regular uniform contractions occur in excess of 200 beats/min, but the ventricular response is limited as a result of physiologic heart block. The conduction system cannot respond to the rapidity of the atrial rate, causing variance from the ventricular rate. The ECG may look like a sawtooth cog.

A

Atrial flutter (Auricular)

276
Q

Slow rate below 50 or 60/min; No disruption in conduction is not necessarily suggestive of a problem.

A

Sinus bradycardia

277
Q

Dysrhythmic contraction of the atria gives way to rapid series of irregular spasms of the muscle wall; no discernible regularity in rhythm or pattern; The conduction system is malfunctioning and is in an anarchic state. Any contraction of the atria that is best described as “irregularly” irregular.

A

Atrial fibrillation

278
Q

Heart rate slower than expected; incomplete heart block rate is often 25–45/min at rest; Conduction from atria to ventricles partially or completely disrupted.

A

Heart block

279
Q

Type of heart block: Conduction occurs all the time (but taking a little longer than usual)

A

First degree heart block

280
Q

Type of heart block: conduction occurs some of the time

A

Second degree: type 1 wenkebach or type 2 mobitz

281
Q

Type of heart block: conduction occurs none of the time

A

Third degree; complete heart block

282
Q

Rapid, regular heart rate and narrow QRS complex; originating at or above the AV node; may decrease with Vagal stimulation, deep breath, or general carotid massage

A

SVT

283
Q

Rapid, relatively regular heartbeat (often nearly 200/min) without loss in apparent strength; The electrical source of the beat is in an unusual focus somewhere in the ventricles. This usually arises in serious heart disease and is a grave prognostic sign.

A

V-tach

284
Q

Complete loss of regular heart rhythm with expected conduction pattern absent if weakened and rapid, ventricular contraction is irregular; The ventricle has lost the rhythm of its expected response, and all evidence of vigorous contraction is gone. It calls for immediate action and may immediately precede sudden death.

A

V-fib

285
Q

In an infant/neonate: opening between the left and right ventricles

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

286
Q

Recurrent respiratory infections in a neonate/ infant may be indicative of

A

Ventricular septal defect

287
Q

In a neonate/infant: Holosystolic murmur, often loud, coarse, high- pitched, and best heard along the left sternal
border in the third to fifth intercostal spaces

A

Ventricular septal defect

288
Q

Congenital heart defect composed of four cardiac defects: ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, dextroposition of the aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

289
Q

Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close after birth; Blood flows from the aorta through the ductus to the pulmonary artery during systole and diastole, increasing pressure in the pulmonary circulation and consequently the workload of the right ventricle.

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

290
Q

T or F: in an infant with a patent ductus arteriosus, a murmur is usually unaltered by postural change

A

T

291
Q

Congenital defect in the septum dividing the left and right atria; untreated can result in enlargement of the right side of the heart and shunt reversal (right- to-left shunt) and heart failure.

A

Atrial septal defect (ASD)

292
Q

In what infant cardiac abnormality is a diamond shaped systolic ejection murmur heard over the pulmonic area

A

Atrial septal defect

293
Q

Systemic connective tissue disease occurring after streptococcal pharyngitis or skin infection; May result in serious cardiac valvular involvement of mitral or aortic valve; tricuspid and pulmonic are not often affected; Affected valve becomes stenotic and regurgitant; Children between 5 and 15 years of age are most commonly
affected

A

Acute Rheumatic Fever

294
Q

What cardiac abnormality in kids may cause inflamed swollen joints

A

Acute rheumatic fever

295
Q

Flat or slightly raised, painless rash with pink margins with
pale centers and a ragged edge (erythema marginatum) and aimless jerky movements (Sydenham chorea or St. Vitus dance) are subjective findings in

A

Acute rheumatic fever

296
Q

Narrowing of the small blood vessels that supply blood and oxygen to the heart; Caused by deposition of cholesterol, other lipids, by a complex inflammatory process; Leads to vascular wall thickening and narrowing of the lumen

A

Atherosclerotic Heart Disease (Atherosclerosis, Coronary Heart Disease)

297
Q

Amyloid, a fibrillary protein produced by chronic inflammation or neoplastic disease, deposition in the heart; heart contractility may be reduced; causes HF

A

Senile Cardiac Amyloidosis