Module 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Seven bones of the skull

A

2 frontal, 2 parietal, 2 temporal, 1 occipital

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2
Q

Frontal, nasal, zygomatic, ethmoid, lacrimal, sphenoid, and maxillary bones, movable mandible make up the __________

A

Bony structure of face

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3
Q

Facial muscles are innervated by what two cranial nerves

A

CN V and CN VII

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4
Q

What major artery passes anterior to ear, over the temporal muscles and onto forehead

A

Temporal artery

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5
Q

paired parotid, submandibular, and sublingual salivary glands produce _____________

A

Saliva

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6
Q

3 functions of saliva

A
  1. Moisten mouth
  2. Inhibit dental carries
  3. digestion of carbohydrates
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7
Q

__________ glands located anterior to the ear and above mandible

A

Parotid

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8
Q

______________ glands located medial to the mandible at the angle of the jaw

A

Submandibular

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9
Q

_________________ glands located anteriorly in the floor of the mouth

A

Sublingual

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10
Q

Horizontal mobility is greatest between cervical vertebrae ___ and ___ or ___ and ____ in adults

A

4 and 5 or 5 and 6

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11
Q

The posterior triangle landmark of the neck is formed by what muscles and bones

A

Trapezius, sternocleidomastoid muscles, and clavicle

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12
Q

The____________ is the uppermost ring of the tracheal cartilages

A

cricoid cartilage

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13
Q

Largest endocrine gland of the body

A

Thyroid

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14
Q

Responsible for production of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)

A

Thyroid

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15
Q

The __________ lobe of the thyroid is is present in about 1/3 the population

A

Pyramidal

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16
Q

In infants, the 7 cranial bones are separated by:

A

Sagittarius, coronal, lambdoid sutures

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17
Q

The membranous spaces where the cranial bones meet and intersect

A

Anterior and posterior fontanelles

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18
Q

Ossification of the sutures begins after completion of brain growth, at about _______ years of age

A

6

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19
Q

Until what point in gestation is the mothers thyroid gland the source of thyroid hormone for fetus

A

Second trimester

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20
Q

Since the pregnant mothers thyroid is the primary source of thyroid hormone in first trimester, mother should increase intake of ___________

A

Iodine

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21
Q

T or F: Thyroid size increases in pregnancy in areas of iodine deficiency but not in those with sufficient iodine

A

True

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22
Q

shortening or excessive contraction of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

A

Torticollis

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23
Q

is defined as an expression or appearance of the face and features of the head and neck that, when considered together, is characteristic of a clinical condition or syndrome

A

Facies

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24
Q

spasmodic muscular contractions of the face, head, or neck

A

Tics

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25
Q

fungal infection of the scalp

A

Tinea capitis

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26
Q

opens into the mouth next to the maxillary second molar tooth

A

Parotid (Stensen’s) duct

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27
Q

opens in a small papilla at the sides of the frenulum

A

submandibular duct (Wharton duct)

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28
Q

With the index finger and thumb of one hand on each side of the trachea below the thyroid isthmus, a tugging sensation, synchronous with the pulse, is evidence of tracheal tug sign which can indicate:

A

Aortic aneurysm

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29
Q

T or F: The thyroid gland moves with swallowing

A

T

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30
Q

Which lobe of the thyroid is usually 25% larger

A

Right lobe is 25% > than left

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31
Q

is subcutaneous edema over the presenting part of the head at delivery

A

Caput succedaneum

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32
Q

In a newborn: is a subperiosteal collection of blood and is therefore bound by the suture lines. It is commonly found in the parietal region and, unlike caput, may not be immediately obvious at birth

A

Cephalhematoma

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33
Q

T or F: cephalhematoma crosses suture lines

A

False; it does not cross suture lines

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34
Q

In newborn: skull asymmetry or a particularly flattened spot on the back or one side of the head

A

Plagiocephaly

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35
Q

In an infant, a mass over the clavicle, changing size with crying or respiration, suggests

A

Cycstic hygroma

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36
Q

A third fontanel, _______________, is located between the anterior and posterior fontanels, may be an expected variant and is common in infants with Down syndrome.

A

the mastoid fontanel

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37
Q

The anterior fontanelle should close by ____________ months of age in an infant

A

12-15

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38
Q

A snapping sensation, similar to the feeling of pressing on a ping- pong ball, indicates ______________ that may be associated with prematurity, rickets, hydrocephalus, marasmus, syphilis, or thalassemia.

A

Craniotabes

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39
Q

Cranial bruits are common in children up to 5 years of age or in children with __________

A

Anemia

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40
Q

With aging, the thyroid becomes more ___________, feeling more nodular or irregular on palpation

A

Fibrotic

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41
Q

Pain in the head

A

Headaches

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42
Q

Tumor in any of the salivary glands, but most commonly in the parotid

A

Salivary gland tumor

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43
Q

Underactive thyroid

A

Hypothyroidism

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44
Q

Which is more common: hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism

A

Hypothyroidism

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45
Q

thyroid gland produces insufficient amounts of thyroid hormone is the ________________ pathophysiology for hypothyroidism
A. Primary
B. Secondary

A

A

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46
Q

insufficient secretion of thyroid hormone due to inadequate secretion of either thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) from the pituitary gland or thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus is the ________________ pathophysiology for hypothyroidism
A. Primary
B. Secondary

A

B

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47
Q

Overactive thyroid

A

Hyperthyroidism

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48
Q

Skin and tissue disorder usually due to severe prolonged hypothyroidism

A

Myxedema

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49
Q

Decrease in metabolic rate, resulting in accumulation of hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulfate in the dermis

A

Myxedema

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50
Q

Deposition of glycosaminoglycan in all organ systems leading to mucinous edema of facial features

A

Myxedema

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51
Q

Overactive thyroid caused by autoimmune antibodies to thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor

A

Graves’ disease

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52
Q

Graves’ disease is more common in women in ________

A

30s and 40s

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53
Q

Underactive thyroid caused by autoimmune antibodies against thyroid gland

A

Hashimoto disease

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54
Q

Due to underactive thyroid caused by antibodies; Often causes hypothyroidism; More common in children and women between 30 and 50 years; Progresses slowly over a number of years

A

Hashimoto disease

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55
Q

Palpable cystic mass in the neck of a newborn/infant

A

Thyroglossal Duct Cyst

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56
Q

Congenital lesion formed by incomplete involution of branchial cleft

A

Brachial cleft cyst

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57
Q

Excessive contraction of the sternocleidomastoid muscle in a newborn/infant

A

Torticollis (Wry Neck)

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58
Q

Neural tube defect with protrusions of brain and membranes that cover it through openings in the skull

A

Encephalocele

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59
Q

A problem in the formation, flow, or absorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) which now leads to an increase in the volume of the CSF

A

Hydrocephalus

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60
Q

Circumference of head is smaller than normal because the brain has not developed properly or has stopped growing

A

Microcephaly

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61
Q

Premature closure of one or more cranial sutures before brain growth complete

A

Craniosynostosis

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62
Q

A direct embryologic extension on the brain

A

The eye

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63
Q

Muscles attached to the eye

A

4 rectus

2 oblique

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64
Q

Which cranial nerve connects the eye to the brain

A

CN II

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65
Q

_______ of the eye contains fat, blood vessels, nerves, and supportive connective tissue

A

Orbit

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66
Q

What provides oils to the tear film in eyelid

A

Meibomian glands

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67
Q

Provides a skeleton for the eyelid

A

Tarsus

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68
Q

located in the temporal region of the superior eyelid and produces tears that moisten the eye

A

Lacrimal gland

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69
Q

The flow of tears:

A

Flow over cornea and drain via the canaliculi to the lacrimal sac/duct, then into nasal meatus

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70
Q

The 6 eye muscles are controlled by which cranial nerves

A

CNS III (oculomotor), IV (Trochlear), and VI (abducens)

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71
Q

the oculomotor nerve controls what part of the eye

A

Levator palpebrae superioris (elevated and retracts upper eyelid), and all extraocular muscles, except for superior oblique and lateral rectus

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72
Q

Trochlear cranial nerve controls which part of the eye muscles

A

Superior oblique

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73
Q

Which cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle

A

Abducens nerve

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74
Q

Outer wall of the eye Consists of

A

Sclera and cornea

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75
Q

The middle layer of the eye is called

A

Uvea

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76
Q

The middle layer of the eye consists of

A

Choroid, ciliary body and iris

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77
Q

The inner layer of the eye that consist of nerve fibers is the

A

retina

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78
Q

the dense, avascular structure that appears anteriorly as the white of the eye. It physically supports the internal structure of the eye

A

Sclera

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79
Q

By dilating and contracting, this part of the eye controls the amount of light entering pupil to retina

A

Iris

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80
Q

Fluid that circulates between the lens and the cornea

A

Aqueous humor

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81
Q

Produces the aqueous humor and contains the muscles controlling accommodation

A

Ciliary body

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82
Q

is a pigmented, richly vascular layer that supplies oxygen to the outer layer of the retina

A

Choroid

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83
Q

biconvex, transparent structure located immediately behind the iris

A

Lens

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84
Q

What allows for the retina to focus on images of varying distance?

A

The elasticity of the lens and contraction/relaxation of the ciliary body changing thickness

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85
Q

Sensory network of the eye

A

Retina

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86
Q

Where are light impulses eventually interpreted in the brain

A

Cerebral cortex

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87
Q

The site of central vision

A

Macula, or fovea

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88
Q

Eyes develop during the first ___________ weeks of gestation, but vision which depends on the CNS takes longer

A

8

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89
Q

Typical newborn visual acuity

A

20/400

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90
Q

Adult visual acuity is achieved at what age

A

4 years old

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91
Q

Increased levels of _________ during pregnancy may cause tears to feel greasy and cause problems for contact wearers

A

Lysozyme

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92
Q

The major physiologic eye change that occurs with aging is a progressive weakening of accommodation (focusing power)

A

Presbyopia

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93
Q

Risk factors for cataract formation

A
  • family history of cataracts
  • steroid med use
  • exposure to UV lights
  • cigarette smoking
  • diabetes mellitus
  • aging
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94
Q

Acute infection of sebaceous glands of Zeis

A

Hardeola (also called stye)

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95
Q

chronic blockage of meibomian gland

A

Chalazion

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96
Q

What is the most common cause of isolated unilateral sixth nerve palsy

A

Micro-vascular disease

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97
Q

T or F: Retinoblastoma is an autosomal dominant disorder

A

T

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98
Q

In a pregnant patient, diplopia, scotomata, blurred vision, and amaurosis fagux symptoms are indicative of

A

PIH: pregnancy induced hypertension

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99
Q

Nocturnal eye pain in older adults if a sign of ___________ and a symptom of ____________

A

Subacute angle closure, glaucoma

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100
Q

Measurement of visual acuity/central vision tests which cranial nerve

A

CN II (optic)

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101
Q

Vision that cannot be corrected to 20/_____ is considered legal blindness

A

200

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102
Q

Monocular diplopia is a(n) ___________ problem while binocular diplopia is a(n) _______________ problem.

A

Optical; alignment

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103
Q

Handheld card used to screen “near vision”

A

Rosenbaum Pocket vision screener

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104
Q

If pt’s eyebrows are coarse or do not extend beyond the temporal canthus, the patient may have ___________

A

Hypothyroidism

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105
Q

Elevated plaque of cholesterol deposited in macrophages most commonly in the nasal portion of the upper or lower lid

A

Xanthelasma

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106
Q

Fasiculations or tremors of the eyelids is a sign of

A

Hyperthyroidism

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107
Q

When the lower lid is turned away from the eye, it is called _____________ and may result in excessive tearing

A

Ectropian

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108
Q

When the eye lid is turned inward toward the globe, a condition known as_______________

A

entropion

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109
Q

An acute suppurative inflammation of the follicle of an eyelash can cause an erythematous or yellow lump and is generally caused by a staphylococcal infection

A

hordeolum, or stye

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110
Q

Crusting along the eyelashes may represent________ which caused by bacterial infection, seborrhea, psoriasis, a manifestation of rosacea, or an allergic response

A

blepharitis

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111
Q

Condition where the closed eyelid does not cover the globe

A

Lagopthalmos

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112
Q

T or F: subconjunctival hemorrhages resolve with medications

A

F: they resolve spontaneously

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113
Q

is an abnormal growth of conjunctiva that extends over the cornea from the limbus

A

Pterygium

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114
Q

A pterygium is more common in people who have been

A

Heavily exposed to UV light

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115
Q

Which cranial nerve controls corneal sensitivity

A

CN V (trigeminal)

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116
Q

Name for eye condition where lipids deposited in the periphery of the cornea

A

Arcus senilis

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117
Q

An eye abnormality of pupillary constriction, usually less than 2 mm in diameter; can be caused by opioid abuse

A

Miosis

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118
Q

Eye abnormality of pupillary dilation, usually more than 6 mm in diameter. Can be caused by eye drops meds, lesions, hypoxia, oculomotor (CN III) damage, acute angle glaucoma, and stimulants (cocaine, amphetamines, abuse)

A

Mydriasis

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119
Q

Failure of the pupil to respond can be caused by destruction to which cranial nerve

A

CN III

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120
Q

Bilateral, miotic, irregularly shaped pupils that fail to constrict with light but retain constriction with convergence

A

Argyll Robertson pupil

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121
Q

Unequal size of pupils

A

Anisocoria

122
Q

Constriction of the pupil accompanied by pain and reddened eye, especially adjacent to the iris

A

Iritis (anterior uveitis)

123
Q

Pupil dilated and fixed; eye deviated laterally and downward; ptosis — is a sign of damage to which cranial nevre

A

Oculomotor nerve (CN III) damage

124
Q

Affected pupil dilated and reacts slowly or fails to react to light

A

Adie pupil (tonic pupil)

125
Q

T or F: mydriasis is often seen in pt in a come

A

True

126
Q

appears as a dark, slate gray pigment just anterior to the insertion of the medial rectus muscle

A

Senile hyaline plaque

127
Q

What conditions may cause the lacrimal glands to enlarge

A

Tumors, lymphoid infiltration, sarcoidosis disease, Sjogren syndrome

128
Q

The oculomotor nerve is cranial nerve _____

A

III

129
Q

The Trochlear nerve is cranial nerve ________

A

IV

130
Q

The abducens is cranial nerve ________

A

VI

131
Q

Lid lag may indicate

A

Thyroid eye disease

132
Q

T or F: the optic disc is considered a blind spot

A

T

133
Q

Ratio of size of eye arterioles to venules

A

3:5 or 2:3

134
Q

Called the fovea centralis or macula lutea

A

Macula

135
Q

_________ in the eye may represent microaneurysms

A

Dot hemorrhages

136
Q

White area with soft, ill-defined peripheral margins usually continuous with the optic disc

A

Myelinated retinal nerve fibers

137
Q

Loss of definition of optic disc margin initially occurs superiorly and inferiorly, then nasally and temporally central vessels are pushed forward, and veins are markedly dilated

A

Papilledema

138
Q

Caused by increased intracranial pressure transmitted along the optic nerve. Initiallly, vision is not altered

A

Papilledema

139
Q

Physiologic disc margins are raised with a lowered central area. Blood vessels may disappear over the edge of the physiologic disc and may be seen again deep within the disc

A

Glaucomatous optic nerve head cupping

140
Q

Ill-defined, yellow areas caused by infarction of nerve layer of the retina

A

Cotton wool spot

141
Q

A common cause of cotton wool spot in eye is

A

Vascular disease secondary to HTN or DM

142
Q

Retinal changes associated with hypertension have historically been classified according to the ___________ system of four groups of increasing severity

A

Keith-Wagner-Barker (KWB)

143
Q

false appearance of strabismus caused by a flattened nasal bridge or epicanthal fold

A

Pseudostrabismus

144
Q

How to distinguish pseudostrabismus from strabismus

A

Use the corneal light reflex

145
Q

Using a corneal light reflex to distinguish between pseudostrabismus and strabismus, an asymmetric light reflex may indicate

A

True strabismus

146
Q

In an infant, enlarged corneas may be a sign of

A

Congenital glaucoma

147
Q

A finding of the eye in a newborn/infant that is often associated with other congenital abnormalities

A

Coloboma, or keyhole pupil

148
Q

White specks scattered in a linear pattern around the entire circumference of the iris, called brush field spots, strongly suggest

A

Down syndrome

149
Q

What test would you use for visual acuity in children 3-5 years old

A

LEA, HOTV

150
Q

What visual chart for literate, verbal, and English-speaking children ages 6 years and older

A

SNellen or Sloan

151
Q

The anticipated visual acuity for children aged 36 to 47 months should be_____ or better,______ for children aged 48-59 mos, and______ or better for children 60 mos or older

A

20/50; 20/40; 20/30

152
Q

In a pregnant patient, you should avoid cycloplegic and mydriatic agents d/t systemic absorption but if necessary, what may descrease systemic absorption

A

Use of nasolacrimal duct occlusion

153
Q

Bulging of eye anteriorly out of orbit

A

Exopthalmos

154
Q

Most common cause of exopthalmos

A

Grave’s disease

155
Q

Inflammation of the superficial layers of the sclera anterior to the insertion of the rectus muscles

A

Episcleritis

156
Q

Two types of episcleritis

A

Simple, nodular

157
Q

Deposition of calcium in the superficial cornea

A

Band keratopathy

158
Q

Eye condition that is most commonly in patients with chronic corneal disease; may occur in patients with hypercalcemia, hyperparathyroidism, and occasionally in individuals with trauma, renal failure sarcoidosis, or syphilis

A

Band Keratopathy (the deposit of calcium in cornea??)

159
Q

Causes a disruption of the corneal epithelium and stroma

A

Corneal ulcer

160
Q

Both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously but can focus with either eye

A

Strabismus

161
Q

Interruption of sympathetic nerve innervation to the eye

A

Horner syndrome

162
Q

Results in triad of ipsilateral miosis, mild ptosis, and loss of
hemifacial sweating

A

Horner syndrome

163
Q

Opacity in lens

A

Cataract

164
Q

Dot hemorrhages or microaneurysms and the presence of hard and soft exudates

A

Diabetic retinopathy (Background or Nonproliferative)

165
Q

Development of new vessels as result of anoxic stimulation

A

Diabetic Retinopathy (Proliferative)

166
Q

Vessels grow out of the retina toward the vitreous humor; may occur in peripheral retina or on optic nerve itself

A

Diabetic Retinopathy (Proliferative

167
Q

Creamy white appearance of retinal vessels that occurs with excessively high serum triglyceride levels (usually > 2000 mg/dL

A

Lipemia Retinalis

168
Q

Autosomal recessive disorder in which the genetic defects cause cell death, predominantly in the rod photoreceptors

A

Retinitis Pigmentosa

169
Q

Disease of the optic nerve wherein the nerve cells die, usually due to excessively high intraocular pressure

A

Glaucoma

170
Q

Glaucoma may also be congenital as a result of improper development of the eye’s______________ system

A

aqueous outflow

171
Q

Inflammation in the anterior vitreous, ciliary body, and the peripheral retina

A

Intermediate Uveitis

172
Q

Inflammatory process involving both the choroid and the retina; Most common cause is laser therapy for diabetic retinopathy but may also be seen in histoplasmosis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, or congenital rubella infections

A

Chorioretinitis (Chorioretinal Inflammation, also called Posterior Uveitis)

173
Q

Defective vision or blindness

A

Visual field defecets

174
Q

Embryonic malignant tumor arising from the retina

A

Retinoblastoma

175
Q

Most common retinal tumor in children

A

Retinoblastoma

176
Q

Disruption of normal progression of retinal vascular development in preterm infant

A

Retinopathy of Prematurity (ROP)

177
Q

Who is at highest risk for Retinopathy of prematurity?

A

birth weight of ≤1500 g or gestational age of ≤30

weeks or less

178
Q

Abnormal bleeding of the blood vessels in the retina, in an infant

A

Retinal hemorrhages in infancy

179
Q

Results from acceleration-deceleration impact head injury in abusive head trauma (shaken baby syndrome)

A

Retinal Hemorrhages in Infancy

180
Q

Macular degeneration, also called age-related macular degeneration (AMD or ARMD), is caused when part of the retina deteriorates

A

Macular degeneration

181
Q

Leading cause of legal blindness in people older than 55 years in the United States

A

Macular degeneration

182
Q

Two types of macular degeneration

A

Wet (atrophic) and dry (exudative or neovascular)

183
Q

In the ear, what provides an acidic environment that inhibits the growth of microorganisms

A

Cerumen

184
Q

The ______________ is an air-filled cavity in the temporal bone

A

Middle ear

185
Q

contains the ossicles, three small, connected bones (malleus, incus, and stapes) that transmit sound from the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the inner ear

A

The middle ear

186
Q

separates the external ear from the middle ear

A

Tympanic membrane

187
Q

Is the tympanic membrane concave or convex

A

Concave, pulled in at the center by the malleus

188
Q

The tympanic membrane is translucent which permits what two parts of the ear to be visualized

A

Middle ear cavity and malleus

189
Q

The middle ear mucosa produces a small amount of mucus that is rapidly cleared by the ciliary action of the

A

Eustachian tube

190
Q

a cartilaginous, fibrous, and bony passageway between the nasopharynx and the middle ear

A

Eustachian tube

191
Q

The eustachian tube drains into the posterior aspect of the

A

inferior turbinate of the nose

192
Q

How are the middle ear secretions cleared to equalize the middle ear pressure with atmospheric pressure

A

Muscles that open the Eustachian tube during swallowing, yawning, and sneezing

193
Q

What is the purpose of the Eustachian tubes draining to equalize the middle ear pressure

A

Permits the tympanic membrane to vibrate freely with sound waves

194
Q

Membranous, curved cavity inside a bony labyrinth consisting of the vestibule, semicircular canals, and cochlea

A

Inner ear

195
Q

a coiled structure containing the organ of Corti, transmits sound impulses to the eighth cranial nerve

A

Cochlea

196
Q

contain the end organs for vestibular function

A

Semicircular canals

197
Q

Equilibrium receptors in the _________ and ___________ of the inner ear respond to changes in direction of movement and send signals to the cerebellum to maintain balance

A

semicircular canals; vestibule

198
Q

Hearing is the interpretation of

A

Sound waves

199
Q

Hair cells in the _________________ detect sound vibrations and send the information to the auditory division of the eighth cranial nerve

A

organ of Corti

200
Q

T or F: sound cannot be transmitted by bone vibrations of the skull that pass to the inner ear

A

F: it can be transmitted by bone vibrations

201
Q

Which bones form the nasal bridge

A

Frontal and maxillary

202
Q

The nasal floor is made up of ___________ while the roof is formed by ____________

A

Hard/soft palates; frontal and sphenoid bones

203
Q

Mucus contains ______________ and _________________ that serve as a defense against infection

A

Immunoglobulins; enzymes

204
Q

Receptors for smell are located in the _________________ that lines about half of the nasal cavities

A

olfactory epithelium

205
Q

The two anterior cavities of the internal nose

A

Vestibules

206
Q

posterior openings leading to the nasopharynx

A

Choanae

207
Q

houses the sensory endings of the olfactory nerve and lies on the roof of the nose

A

The cribriform plate

208
Q

__________________ a convergence of small, fragile arteries and veins, is located on the anterior- inferior portion of the septum

A

The Kiesselbach plexus

209
Q

The adenoids lie on the posterior wall of the ______________

A

nasopharynx

210
Q

parallel, curved bony structures covered by vascular mucous membrane—form the lateral walls of the nose and protrude into the nasal cavity

A

Turbinates

211
Q

Responsible for warming, humidifying, and filtering inspired air

A

Turbinates

212
Q

are air-filled, paired extensions of the nasal cavities within the bones of the skull; lined with mucous membranes and cilia that move secretions along excretory pathways; their openings into the middle meatus of the nasal cavity are easily obstructed.

A

The paranasal sinuses

213
Q

sinuses that lie along the lateral wall of the nasal cavity in the maxillary bone

A

Maxillary

214
Q

The ____________ sinuses that develop during childhood are in the frontal bone superior to the nasal cavities

A

Frontal

215
Q

The _____________ sinuses lie behind the frontal sinuses and near the superior portion of the nasal cavity

A

ethmoid

216
Q

The _______________ sinuses are deep in the skull behind the ethmoid sinuses

A

sphenoid

217
Q

The tongue is anchored to the back of the oral cavity by its base and to the floor of the mouth by the __________

A

Frenulum

218
Q

5 basic taste sensations

A
Sour
Sweet
Salty
Bitter
Umami (savory)
219
Q

Real name for taste receptors (taste buds)

A

Fungiform papillae

220
Q

_____________ ducts are parotid gland outlets that open on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molar on each side of the upper jaw

A

Stensen

221
Q

________________ ducts open on each side of the frenulum under the tongue

A

Wharton

222
Q

Drain saliva from the submandibular and sublingual glands to the sublingual carunlce at the base of the tongue

A

Wharton ducts

223
Q

Adults have _______ teeth

A

32

224
Q

Development of the inner ear occurs which trimester of pregnancy

A

First

225
Q

Growth of _______________ may occlude the eustachian tube and interfere with aeration of the middle ear, predisposing young children to developing middle ear effusions

A

lymphatic tissue, specifically the adenoids

226
Q

How does infants external auditory canal differ from adults

A

It is shorter and has an up award curve

227
Q

How does infants Eustachian tube differ from adults

A

It is wider, shorter, more horizontal, and less stiff than the adult’s

228
Q

T or F: the ethmoid and maxillary sinuses are present at birth

A

True but they are very small

229
Q

When do the sphenoid sinuses develope

A

About 5 years old

230
Q

The frontal sinuses begin to develop at what age

A

7-8 years old

231
Q

When do the 20 deciduous teeth generally erupt in an infant

A

6 mos to 24 months

232
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss first occurs with _______-frequency sounds and then progresses to tones of ________ frequency

A

High; lower

233
Q

Loss of ________-frequency sound hearing usually interferes with the understanding of speech and localization of sound

A

High

234
Q

_______________ hearing loss may result from cerumen impaction and tympanosclerosis or otosclerosis caused by calcification of tissues in the middle ear

A

Conductive

235
Q

In the ear, results from blunt trauma and necrosis of the underlying cartilage

A

Cauliflower ear

236
Q

small, whitish uric acid crystals along the peripheral margins of the auricles—may indicate gout

A

Tophi

237
Q

If pain is present when you pull on the lobe of the ear, it may indicate

A

External auditory canal inflammation

238
Q

Tenderness or swelling in the mastoid area may indicate

A

Mastoiditis

239
Q

is the procedure used to inspect the external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, and middle ear

A

Otoscopy

240
Q

results from eustachian tube dysfunction, leading to the development of a transudate in the middle ear

A

Otitis media with effusion

241
Q

the effusion of ear becomes infected with bacterial pathogens, and the child typically shows signs of inflammation (e.g., pain, fever, redness, and bulging of the tympanic membrane)

A

Acute otitis media

242
Q

often referred to as swimmer’s ear, is an inflammation of the auditory canal; Water retained in the canal causes tissue maceration, desquamation, and microfissures that favor bacterial or fungal growth

A

Otitis externa

243
Q

Evaluating hearing test which cranial nerve

A

CN VIII

244
Q

The Weber test helps assess ____________ hearing loss

A

Unilateral

245
Q

The ________ test helps distinguish whether the patient hears better by air or bone conduction

A

Rinne

246
Q

_______-conducted sound should be heard twice as long as ________-conducted sound

A

Air; bone

247
Q

bilateral watery discharge and associated sneezing and nasal congestion

A

Allergy

248
Q

bloody discharge from the nose

A

Epistaxis

249
Q

bilateral mucoid or purulent discharge from the nose

A

Rhinitis or upper respiratory infection

250
Q

unilateral, purulent, thick, greenish, malodorous discharge of the nose may be indicative of

A

Foreign body presence

251
Q

unilateral watery discharge occurring after head trauma from the nose

A

CSF leak

252
Q

When inspecting the nasal cavity with a speculum, which turbinates are visible

A

Inferior and middle turbinates

253
Q

rhinorrhea, hyperemia, and edema of the nasal mucosa may be indicative of

A

Recent cocaine use

254
Q

may be indicated by asymmetric size of the posterior nasal cavities

A

A nasal septum deviation

255
Q

Which cranial nerve controls the sense of smell

A

CN I

256
Q

Dry, cracked lips

A

Cheilitis

257
Q

Deep fissures at the corners of the mouth that may indicate infection, irritation, nutritional deficiencies (iron and B vitamins), or overclosure of the mouth, allowing saliva to macerate the tissue.

A

angular cheilitis

258
Q

Round, oval, or irregular bluish-gray macules on the lips and buccal mucosa are associated with

A

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

259
Q

Ask the patient to clench their teeth and smile to observe the occlusion of the teeth. This would observe which cranial nerve

A

CN VII, the facial nerve

260
Q

________ ulcers on the buccal mucosa appear as white, round, or oval ulcerative lesions with a red halo

A

Aphthous

261
Q

A red spot on the buccal mucosa at the opening of the Stensen duct is associated with

A

Parotitis (mumps)

262
Q

A thickened white patch lesion that cannot be wiped away, a premalignant oral lesion most commonly seen in individuals smoking or chewing tobacco

A

Leukoplakia

263
Q

a diffuse, filmy, grayish surface with white streaks, wrinkles, or milky alteration in the mouth

A

Leukoedema

264
Q

a localized gingival enlargement or granuloma, is usually an inflammatory rather than neoplastic change

A

Epulis

265
Q

Ask the patient to extend the tongue while you inspect for deviation, tremor, and limitation of movement. The procedure also tests which nerve

A

Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

266
Q

The hard palate may have a bony protuberance at the midline, called ____________ , an expected variant present in 25% to 35% of the population, more commonly seen in women than men

A

torus palatinus

267
Q

A bifid uvula is also associated with _______________________, a disorder in which aortic root dilation and aortic dissection May occur

A

Loeys-Dietz syndrome

268
Q

Four clinical signs assessed include tonsil enlargement, tonsillar exudates, tender and enlarged anterior cervical nodes, and absence of cough

A

streptococcal pharyngitis

269
Q

Elicitation of the gag reflex tests which cranial nerves

A

Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus nerves (CN X)

270
Q

A saddle-shaped nose with a low bridge and broad base, a short, small nose, or a large nose in a neonate/infant may suggest a

A

chromosomal disorder or congenital anomaly

271
Q

A smooth philtrum in a newborn/infant, is characteristic of

A

fetal alcohol syndrome

272
Q

Copious secretions that accumulate in the newborn’s mouth that return after frequent suctioning may indicate

A

esophageal atresia

273
Q

is associated with congenital anomalies such as congenital hypothyroidism

A

Macroglossia

274
Q

T or F: If the child is or has been crying, dilation of blood vessels in the tympanic membrane can cause a pinkish-red appearance

A

T

275
Q

compulsive, unconscious grinding of the teeth

A

Bruxism

276
Q

sensorineural hearing loss with advancing age

A

presbycusis

277
Q

Abnormal squamous epithelial tissue behind the tympanic membrane; As the epithelial tissue enlarges, it can perforate the tympanic membrane, erode the ossicles and temporal bone, and invade the inner ear structures

A

Cholesteatoma

278
Q

Reduced transmission of sound to the middle ear; can be in auditory canal, tympanic membrane or in middle ear; Causes include cerumen impaction, otitis media with effusion, acute otitis media, otitis externa, foreign body, cholesteatoma, stiffening of the ossicles, and otosclerosis (bone deposition immobilizing the stapes)

A

Conductive hearing loss

279
Q

Reduced transmission of sound in the inner ear (cochlea, associated structures, or cranial nerve VIII); Causes include damage to cranial nerve VIII, in utero infection (e.g., cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis), genetic hearing impairment, genetic syndromes, systemic disease, ototoxic medications, trauma, tumors, or prolonged exposure to loud occupational and recreational noise; older adults results from degenerative changes in the inner ear or vestibular nerve

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

280
Q

An inner ear disorder characterized by episodes of hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus, and ear fullness; Likely caused by genetic and environmental factors; may be caused by excess secretion of endolymph or failure of resorption in the subarachnoid space

A

Ménière Disease

281
Q

The illusion of rotational movement by a patient, most often due to a disorder of the inner ear

A

Vertigo

282
Q

otolith fragments gravitate into the semicircular canal, and nerve sensors in the canal cause vertigo with head movements.

A

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

283
Q

A bacterial infection of one or more of the paranasal sinuses; Inflammation, allergies, or structural defect of the nose may block the sinus meatus and prevent the sinus cavity from draining, creating an environment for infection; overproduction of mucus may result from inflammation and increase susceptibility to infection.

A

Sinusitis

284
Q

Infection of tonsils or posterior pharynx by microorganisms; Microorganisms causing infection often include group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, other streptococcal species, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Acute bacterial pharyngitis

285
Q

A deep infection in the space between the palatine tonsil capsule and pharyngeal muscles; Thought to develop as a complication of adenotonsillitis or from blockage of the Weber glands, the salivary glands in the space superior to the tonsil in the soft palate; Typically polymicrobial, most commonly including group A beta-hemolytic streptococci and fusobacterium species

A

Peritonsillar Abscess

286
Q

A life-threatening deep neck space infection that may occlude the airway; occurs in the potential space extending from the base of the skull to the posterior mediastinum between the posterior pharyngeal wall and prevertebral fascia

A

Retropharyngeal abscess

287
Q

occurs through spread of nasopharyngeal infection or direct inoculation from penetrating trauma; most often in pediatric pt after an upper respiratory tract infection with spread to lymph nodes in retropharyngeal space; highest incidence is among children < 5 years of age; more frequently in boys; Predisposing infections include pharyngitis, tonsillitis, sinusitis, and dental infection; typically polymicrobial with group A streptococci, Staphylococcus aureus, and respiratory anaerobes as common causative organisms

A

Retropharyngeal Abscess

288
Q

A cancer involving the oral cavity or related structures

A

Oral cancer

289
Q

Most often, squamous cell carcinoma that originates in the basal cell layer of the oral mucosa; may occur as a primary lesion, metastasis from a distant site to the jaw or related structure, or extension from a nearby structure (nasal cavity)

A

Oral cancer

290
Q

Chronic infection of the gums, bones, and other tissues that surround and support the teeth; Often results from poor dental hygiene (calculus and hard plaque not removed below the gum line) leading to chronic inflammation and infection of the gingiva and periodontal tissue; underlying bone is reabsorbed and teeth loosen

A

Periodontal Disease (Periodontitis)

291
Q

Most common craniofacial congenital malformation; Thought to be caused by interactions between genetic and environmental factors; also occurs in genetic syndromes, fetal exposure to teratogens and conditions present in the mother; Result of the lip or palate failing to fuse during embryonic development before the 12th week of gestation

A

Oropharyngeal Clefts (Cleft Lip, Cleft Palate, Cleft Lip and Palate)

292
Q

When would you conduct a pinhole test?

A

Using snellen chart if vision less than 20/20

293
Q

How do you examine clarity of the cornea?

A

Shine light on it

294
Q

T or f: blood vessels should be visible in cornea

A

F they should not be present

295
Q

Test eye movements using what?

A

6 cardinal fields of gaze

296
Q

How do you test extraocular muscle balance of eye

A

Corneal light reflex, if imbalanced perform cover-uncover test

297
Q

What helps differentiate between chronic hypertension and pregnancy - induced hypertension (pih)

A

Retinal examination

298
Q

Dry mouth

A

Xerostomia

299
Q

inflammation of the vestibular nerve after an acute viral upper respiratory infection

A

acute vestibular neuronitis

300
Q

In the mouth, I completely formed blood vessels proliferate, forming lesions of various shades and size as blood extravasates in response to the malignant tumor of the epithelium

A

Kaposi sarcoma