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Module 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Food nourishes the body by supplying necessary nutrients and calories to function in:

A
  • to provide energy for necessary activities
  • to build and maintain body tissues
  • To regulate body processes
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2
Q

Nutrients necessary to the body

A
  • macronutrients
  • micronutrients
  • water
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3
Q

stimulates the pituitary to release growth hormone

A

Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

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4
Q

Other name for growth hormone–inhibiting hormone (GHIBH)

A

Somatostatin

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5
Q

inhibits the secretion of both GHRH and thyroid- stimulating hormone (TSH)

A

Somatostatin or growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIBH)

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6
Q

_________ hormone is secreted in pulses

A

Growth

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7
Q

70% of this hormone secretion occurs during deep sleep

A

Growth Hormone

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8
Q

regulates carbohydrate, protein, and lipid metabolism

A

Growth hormone

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9
Q

Stimulates growth hormone secretion

A

Thyroid hormone

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10
Q

Thyroid hormone stimulates production of

A

insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) and interleukins 6 and 8 (IL-6 and IL-8)

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11
Q

T or F: growth hormone also affects the growth and maturation of other body tissues.

A

F; the thyroid hormone does that

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12
Q

is a type of growth hormone produced by the liver and in peripheral tissues, like bone

A

IGF-1

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13
Q

________ releases growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH)

A

Hypothalamus

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14
Q

GHRH stimulates _________ to release growth hormone

A

anterior pituitary

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15
Q

_______ exerts a negative feedback effect on growth hormone secretion and mediates the effect of growth hormone on bone, muscle, nervous system, and immune system cells

A

IGF-1

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16
Q

What is Ghrelin

A

A peptide

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17
Q

Known as the Hunger hormone

A

Ghrelin

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18
Q

helps control growth hormone release and influences food intake and obesity development

A

Ghrelin

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19
Q

has a key role in regulating body fat mass, and its concentration is thought to be a trigger for puberty by informing the central nervous system that adequate nutritional status and body fat mass are present to support pubertal changes and growth

A

Leptin

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20
Q

During puberty, with an increase in leptin, a relative _________ in fat percentage develops in males and an ____________ occurs in female

A

Decrease; increase

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21
Q

What do the gonads secrete during puberty

A

Testosterone and estrogen

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22
Q

Rising levels of testosterone and estrogen release what

A

Gonadotropins (lutenizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

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23
Q

Where do luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone release from

A

Hypothalamus

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24
Q

_________________ enhances muscular development and sexual maturation and promotes bone maturation and epiphyseal closure

A

Testosterone

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25
Q

stimulates the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, regulating the timing of the growth spurt and the acceleration of skeletal maturation and epiphyseal fusion.

A

Estrogen

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26
Q

Androgens are secreted by

A

Adrenal glands

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27
Q

promote masculinization manifested by secondary sex characteristics and skeletal maturation.

A

Androgens

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28
Q

Growth at puberty is dependent on the interaction of which hormones

A
  1. Growth hormone
  2. IGF-1
  3. Leptin
  4. Androgens (sex steroids)
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29
Q

What leads to adolescent growth spurt

A

The sex steroids stimulate an increased secretion of growth hormone, which in turn mediates the dramatic increase in IGF-1

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30
Q

Skeletal growth is considered complete when

A

epiphyses of long bones have completely fused during late puberty

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31
Q

More than ___% of the skeletal mass is present by 18 years of age

A

90

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32
Q

Examples of lymphatic tissues

A
  • adenoids
  • blood lymphocytes
  • lymph nodes
  • spleen
  • tonsils
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33
Q

T or F: Lymphatic tissues are well developed at birth

A

True

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34
Q

Lymphatic tissues reach adult size at about ______ years old

A

6

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35
Q

What happens to lymphatic tissues between ages 6 and 20

A

Adult size by 6
Age 10-12 about double the adult size
During adolescence they decrease to adult size

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36
Q

… complete physical development more quickly than other body parts

A

Brain, skull , eyes, ears

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37
Q

Time period of most rapid and critical brain growth

A

Conception and 3 years of age

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38
Q

By 34 weeks’ gestation, ____% of the weight of a newborn’s brain is present

A

65

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39
Q

Gray matter and myelinated white matter increase dramatically between the _____ and ______ weeks of gestation

A

34th and 40th

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40
Q

In the nervous system, _______, ______, and _______ continue to develop after birth

A

Glial cells, dendrites, and myelin

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41
Q

Why does the head size increase in adolescents

A

Development of air sinuses and the thickening of the scalp and skull

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42
Q

is influenced by genetic predisposition, gestational age, the mother’s prepregnancy weight, weight gain during pregnancy, environmental exposures like secondhand smoke, overall maternal health, and intercurrent disease or complications in pregnancy such as gestational diabetes.

A

Birth weight

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43
Q

Fastest growing body part in infancy

A

Trunk

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44
Q

Fastest growing body part during childhood

A

Legs

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45
Q

During adolescence, about _____% of the individual’s ideal weight is gained, and the skeletal mass and organ systems_______ in size.

A

50; double

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46
Q

Most weight is lost postpartum in first _______ months after delivery

A

3

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47
Q

Preschool aged children should engage in about _____ hours of activity a day

A

3

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48
Q

Children 6-17 years of age should engage in _______ minutes of activity a day

A

60

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49
Q

People 18-64 should engage in ________ of activity a week

A

150 minutes of moderate intensity or 75 minutes of vigorous activity

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50
Q

Method for obtaining a food intake history

A

24-hour recall

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51
Q

Five nutrients may be deficient in a vegetarian diet

A
  1. Protein
  2. Calcium (lacto-ovo and vegan)
  3. Iron
  4. Vitamin B12 (vegan)
  5. Vitamin D
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52
Q

Healthy BMI range

A

18.5-24.9

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53
Q

BMI of greater than _______ is indicative of obesity

A

30

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54
Q

are indicators of visceral fat or abdominal obesity

A

Waist circumference and waist-height ratio

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55
Q

At birth, healthy term newborns have length variations between _____________ inches

A

18-22 (45-55 cm)

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56
Q

Infant body length increases by ________ in the first year of life

A

50%

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57
Q

After losing up to 10% of their birth weight, newborns regain that weight within 2 weeks and then gain weight at a rate of approximately _________ per day

A

30 g (1 oz)

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58
Q

Infants lose about _______% of their birthweight

A

10

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59
Q

Expected head circumferences for term newborns range between ____________

A

32.5 and 37.5 cm

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60
Q

By what age should a child’s head circumference be 2/3 its adult size

A

2 years old

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61
Q

evaluates six physical and six neuromuscular newborn characteristics within 36 hours of birth to establish or confirm the newborn’s gestational age

A

The Ballard Gestational Age Assessment Tool

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62
Q

The gestational ages of _______through _____ weeks are considered term and are associated with the best health outcomes

A

37 through 42

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63
Q

In a child, arm span that exceeds height is associated with

A

Marfan syndrome

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64
Q

A higher upper-to-lower body segment ratio than expected may be associated with

A

dwarfism or bone disorders

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65
Q

Approximately _______% of women are obese

A

42.4-43.3%

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66
Q

A rare disease of excessive growth and distorted proportions caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor after closure of the epiphyses

A

Acromegaly

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67
Q

Most commonly caused by the use of medically prescribed corticosteroids.

A

Cushing syndrome

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68
Q

causes include adrenal gland oversecretion leading to excessive production of cortisol or a pituitary tumor leading to excessive secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A

Cushing syndrome

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69
Q

A genetic disorder in which there is partial or complete absence of a second X chromosome

A

Turner syndrome

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70
Q

Phenotype results from a reduced complement of genes that are typically expressed from both X chromosomes in females.

A

Turner syndrome

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71
Q

Turner syndrome incidence is 1 per______ live birth

A

2500–3000

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72
Q

May be caused by an infection or obstruction in the subarachnoid space that interferes with the reabsorption of CSF, or from an infection or injury that obstructs the flow of CSF to the subarachnoid space where it can be reabsorbed.

A

Hydrocephalus

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73
Q

An excess volume of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain leading to an enlarged head circumference or increased intracranial pressure

A

Hydrocephalus

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74
Q

Often occurs in association with meningomyelocele

A

Hydrocephalus

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75
Q

Growth in an infant or child below the third to fifth percentiles on a growth chart, or a slower than expected rate of growth or crossing down two percentile lines in a short period of time (e.g., from the 50th percentile to below the 10th percentile on the growth chart)

A

Failure to thrive

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76
Q

Failure of the anterior pituitary to secrete adequate growth hormone to support growth in stature

A

Growth hormone deficeincy

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77
Q

May be congenital or develop from a pituitary tumor, radiation therapy for a tumor, or brain trauma

A

Growth hormone deficiency

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78
Q

The onset of secondary sexual characteristics before 7 years of age in white females, 6 years in Black females, and 9 years of age in males with progressive sexual maturation

A

Precocious puberty

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79
Q

A brain tumor or lesion (e.g., hypothalamic hamartoma) may activate the hypothalamic- pituitary-gonadal axis with gonadotropins triggering the growth of the gonads, secretion of the sex hormones, and progressive sexual maturation.

A

Precocious Puberty

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80
Q

May also be related to McCune-Albright syndrome

A

Precocious puberty

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81
Q

Excessive proportion of total body fat

A

Obesity

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82
Q

Eating disorder classified by the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (fifth edition; DSM-V) as a psychiatric disease, characterized by low body weight and body image distortion

A

Anorexia nerovosa

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83
Q

Two types of anorexia

A

Purging and restricting

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84
Q

Eating disorder with two types: purging and nonpurging type episodes followed by fasting or excessive exercising

A

Bulimia nervosa

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85
Q

T or F: anatomy of the skin remains the same from one part of the body to another

A

False: anatomy varies from one part to the other

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86
Q

The outermost portion of the skin that is composed of several cellular layers

A

Epidermis

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87
Q

The top most layer of the epidermis

A

Stratum corneum (cornified layer)

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88
Q

Composed of closely packed, dead, keratin-filled squamous cells

A

Stratum corneum of the epidermis

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89
Q

Chief mechanical barrier protecting the body against environmental exposures, pathogens, and restricting water loss

A

Stratum corneum

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90
Q

Where are the keratins of the stratum corneum synthesized

A

Beginning at the stratum basale (basal layer)

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91
Q

The lower layers contain _________, which allow for the regenerative properties of the skin to manifest

A

Stem cells

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92
Q

As keratinocytes mature, they pass from the ________ layer through the _________ layer to the cornified layer

A

Basal, granular

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93
Q

As keratinocytes mature, they pass from the basal layer through the granular layer to the cornified layer— how long does this process take?

A

28 days

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94
Q

The thick skin of the palms and soles contains an additional layer compared with other parts of the body called the ________________

A

stratum lucidum

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95
Q

Where is the stratum lucidem (of thick skin on palms and soles of feet) beneath

A

The stratum corneum

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96
Q

Mucosal skin lacks:

A

Stratum corneum

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97
Q

Where are melanocytes located

A

Stratum basale

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98
Q

richly vascular connective tissue layer of the skin that supports and separates the epidermis from adipose tissue

A

Dermis

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99
Q

secure the epidermis to the dermis and provide nourishment to the epidermal cells

A

Interdigitating papillae

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100
Q

provide resilience, strength, and stability in the dermis

A
  • elastin
  • collagen
  • reticular fibers
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101
Q

Sensory nerve fibers located in the _________ form a complex network that provides sensations of pain, touch, and temperature.

A

Dermis

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102
Q

contains autonomic motor nerves that innervate blood vessels, glands, and the arrector pili muscles

A

Dermis

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103
Q

The dermis is connected to underlying tissues by the

A

Hypodermis

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104
Q

a subcutaneous layer that consists of loose connective tissue filled with adipose

A

Hypodermis

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105
Q

Generates heat, provides insulation, shock absorption, and calorie reserve

A

Adipose layer of the hypodermis

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106
Q

are outgrowths of the skin and include eccrine sweat glands, apocrine sweat glands, sebaceous glands, hair, and nails

A

Cutaneous appendages

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107
Q

open directly onto the surface of the skin and help regulate body temperature through sweat secretion.

A

Eccrine sweat glands

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108
Q

These glands are distributed throughout the body except at the lip margins, eardrums, nail beds, inner surface of the prepuce, and glans penis

A

Eccrine sweat glands

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109
Q

Type of glands found only in the axillae, nipples, areolae, anogenital area, eyelids, and external ears

A

Apocrine glands

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110
Q

secrete an oily fluid containing protein, carbohydrate, and other substances that are odorless

A

Apocrine glands

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111
Q

How is body odor produced

A

By bacterial decomposition of apocrine sweat

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112
Q

a lipid-rich substance that acts as a lubricant and moisturizer for skin and hair

A

Sebum

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113
Q

__________ secretes sebum

A

Sebaceous glands

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114
Q

Secretory activity of sebum is stimulated by

A

Sex hormones, primarily testosterone

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115
Q

A strand of hair consists of a root and a shaft which sit in a _________

A

Follicle

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116
Q

What supplies nourishment and growth to a hair follicle

A

Papilla contains loop of capillaries

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117
Q

What gives hair its color

A

Melanocytes in the follicle synthesize pigment

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118
Q

Adults have both ________ and ________ hair.

A

Vellus; terminal

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119
Q

hair that is short, fine, soft, and nonpigmented

A

Vellus

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120
Q

Hair that is coarser, longer, thicker, and usually pigmented

A

Terminal hair

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121
Q

Cycles of Hair growth

A

Anagen (growth)
Catagen (atrophy)
Telogen (rest)
Exogen (Hair is shed)

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122
Q

Infants and children lack which type of hair

A

Terminal hair

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123
Q

a mixture of sebum and cornified epidermis, covers the infant’s body at birth

A

Vernix Caseosa

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124
Q

The newborn’s body, particularly the shoulders and back, can be covered with fine, silky hair called

A

Lanugo

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125
Q

Lanugo in neonates is typically shed in how many days

A

10-14 days

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126
Q

T or F: lanugo is more commonly seen in preterm infants

A

True

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127
Q

When do eccrine sweat glands develop

A

First month of life

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128
Q

When do apocrine glands form in children

A

Puberty

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129
Q

T or F: Children lack offensive perspiration

A

True because they do not have apocrine function until puberty

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130
Q

Hair production is one response to changing ________levels

A

Androgen

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131
Q

Processes that assists in dissipating the excess heat caused by increased metabolism in pregnancy

A

Acceleration of sweat/sebaceous gland activity and increased blood flow to skin (from peripheral dilation and increased number of capillaries)

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132
Q

In pregnancy, the skin thickens and fat is deposited in the ______ layers

A

Subdermal

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133
Q

T or F: sweat activity increases in older adults

A

F it decreases

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134
Q

What causes the skin to wrinkle in older adults

A

The dermis shrinks causing epidermis to fold

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135
Q

They are most commonly seen on the arms, legs, chest, and back and have been reported most often in Black and Japanese populations

A

Pigmentary demarcation lines

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136
Q

There is a strong association between sun exposure and the number of ______

A

Nevi

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137
Q

Spider Angiomas are
A. Arterial
B. Venous

A

Arterial

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138
Q

permanently dilated blood vessels consisting of venules or arterioles.

A

Telangiectasias: spider angioma

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139
Q

is a handheld magnifying lens that is useful in evaluating the subtle details of a lesion by providing polarized light to allow for visualization of deeper skin structures and non-polarized light for the assessment of superficial skin lesions.

A

Dermatoscope

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140
Q

Dryness and brittleness of scalp hair could indicate

A

Systemic or genetic disorder

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141
Q

Hirsutism in women, growth of terminal hair in a male distribution pattern on face, body and pubic are, could signify an _________

A

Endocrine disorder

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142
Q

A flat, circumscribed area that is a change in the color of the skin; less than 1 cm in diameter

A

Macule

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143
Q

An elevated, firm, circumscribed area; less than 1 cm in diameter

A

Papule

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144
Q

A flat, nonpalpable, irregularly shaped macule greater than 1 cm in diameter

A

Patch

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145
Q

Freckles, flat nevi, petechiae are examples of …

A

Macule

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146
Q

Warts (verruca), and lichen planus are examples of

A

Papule

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147
Q

Vitiligo, port-wine stains, cafe au lair patch are examples of

A

Patch

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148
Q

Psoriases, atopic dermatitis are examples of

A

Plaques

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149
Q

Elevated, firm, and rough

lesion with flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter

A

Plaques

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150
Q

Elevated, irregular- shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid, transient, variable diameter

A

Wheal

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151
Q

Elevated, firm, circumscribed lesion; deeper in dermis than a papule; 1–2 cm in diameter

A

Nodule

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152
Q

Insect bites, urticaria, and allergic reactions are examples of

A

Wheal

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153
Q

Elevated and solid lesion; may or may

not be clearly demarcated; deeper in dermis; greater than 2 cm in diameter

A

Tumor

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154
Q

Neoplasms, benign tumor, lipoma are examples of

A

Tumors

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155
Q

Elevated, circumscribed, superficial, not into dermis; filled with serous fluid; less than 1 cm in diameter

A

Vesicles

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156
Q

Varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles) are what type of skin lesion

A

Vesicles

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157
Q

Vesicle greater than 1 cm in diameter

A

Bulla

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158
Q

Bullous pemphigus, pemphigus vulgaris are examples of what kind of skin abnormality

A

Bulla

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159
Q

Elevated, superficial lesion; similar to a vesicle but filled with purulent fluid

A

Pustule

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160
Q

Impetigo and acne are examples of what kind of skin abnormality

A

Pustules

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161
Q

Elevated, circumscribed, encapsulated lesion; in dermis or subcutaneous layer; filled with liquid or semisolid material

A

Cyst

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162
Q

Fine, irregular, red lines produced by capillary dilation

A

Telangiectasia

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163
Q

What kind of skin abnormality would you see Telangiectasia

A

Rosacea

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164
Q

Heaped-up, keratinized cells; flaky skin; irregular; thick or thin; dry or oily; variation in size

A

Scale

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165
Q

Rough, thickened epidermis secondary to persistent rubbing, itching, or skin irritation; often involves flexor surface of extremity

A

Lichenification

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166
Q

Chronic atopic dermatitis is an example of what skin abnormality

A

Lichenification

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167
Q

Irregularly shaped, elevated, progressively enlarging scar; grows beyond the boundaries of the wound; caused by excessive collagen formation during healing

A

Keloid

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168
Q

Thin to thick fibrous tissue that replaces normal skin after injury or laceration to the dermis

A

Scar

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169
Q

Loss of the epidermis; linear hollowed- out, crusted area

A

Excoriation

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170
Q

Linear crack or break from the epidermis to the dermis; may be moist or dry

A

Fissure

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171
Q

Example of a fissure

A

Athletes foot

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172
Q

Loss of part of the epidermis; depressed, moist, glistening; follows rupture of a vesicle or bulla

A

Erosion

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173
Q

Loss of epidermis and dermis; concave; varies in size

A

Ulcer

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174
Q

Thinning of skin surface and loss of skin markings; skin translucent and paper- like

A

Atrophy

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175
Q

Ragged cuticles are also a classic sign of

A

Dermatomyositis

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176
Q

Peeling nails (from the plate splitting into layers) usually found in

A
  • hands repeated water immersion

- have underlying psoriasis

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177
Q

Causes of yellow discoloration of nails

A
  • psoriasis
  • fungal infections
  • chronic respiratory diseases
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178
Q

Proximal subungual fungal infection is associated with

A

HIV infection

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179
Q

A complete absence of a nail

A

Anonychia

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180
Q

The ___________ method is when a patient places together the nail (dorsal) surfaces of the thumbs from both the right and left hands and is used to assess for clubbing

A

Schamroth

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181
Q

Expected skin finding in newborn: Cyanosis of hands and feet

A

Acrocyanosis

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182
Q

Expected skin finding in newborn: Transient mottling when infant is exposed to decreased temperature

A

Cutis marmorata

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183
Q

Expected skin finding the newborn: Pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed on thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen; may appear in 24-48 hr and resolve after several days

A

Erythema toxicum

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184
Q

Expected skins change in a newborn: Irregular areas of deep blue pigmentation, usually in the sacral and gluteal regions; seen predominantly in newborns of African, Native American/American Indian, Asian, or Latin descent

A

Congenital dermal melanocytosis

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185
Q

Expected skin changes in a newborn: Flat, deep pink localized areas usually seen on the midforehead, eyelids, upper lip, and back of neck

A

Nevis simplex

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186
Q

Tuft of hair overlying the spinal column at birth, usually in the lumbosacral area; may be associated with spina bifida occulta

A

Faun tail nevus

187
Q

Flat, evenly pigmented spots varying in color from light brown to dark brown or black in darker skin; larger than 5 mm in diameter; present at birth or shortly thereafter; may be associated with neurofibromatosis or miscellaneous other conditions including pulmonary stenosis, temporal lobe dysrhythmia, and tuberous sclerosis.

A

Cafe au lait Macules

188
Q

Congenital accessory nipples with or without glandular tissue, located along the mammary ridge; may be associated with renal abnormalities, especially in the presence of other minor anomalies

A

Supernumerary nipples

189
Q

A ring of long, dark, coarse hair surrounding a midline scalp nodule in infants is usually an isolated cutaneous anomaly that may indicate neural tube closure defects of the scalp

A

“Hair collar” sign

190
Q

small whitish, discrete papules on the face commonly found during the first 2 to 3 months of life. The sebaceous glands function in an immature fashion at this age and are easily clogged by sebum

A

Milia

191
Q

produces numerous tiny yellow macules and papules in the newborn, probably the result of androgen stimulation from the parent

A

Sebaceous hyperplasia

192
Q

The increased hair shedding 2-6 months postpartum

A

Telogen effluvium

193
Q

are tiny, bright ruby-red to dark blue/black, round papules that may become brown with time. They occur in virtually everyone older than 30 years and increase numerically with age

A

Cherry angiomas

194
Q

are pigmented, raised, warty lesions, usually appearing on the trunk. These must be distinguished from other growths such as nevi or actinic keratoses, which may have malignant potential. Because the lesions may look similar, seek the assistance of an experienced practitioner for evaluation

A

Seborrheic keratoses

195
Q

presents as a yellowish, flattened papule with a central depression that is often difficult to discern from a basal cell carcinoma

A

Sebaceous hyperplasia

196
Q

are small, soft, skin-colored, pedunculated (narrow stalk) papules of skin, usually appearing on the neck and upper chest

A

Cutaneous tags (acrochordon)

197
Q

are small, hard projections of the epidermis, usually occurring on the forehead and face and can be the manifestation of an underlying squamous cell carcinoma or a wart

A

Cutaneous horns

198
Q

are irregular, gray-brown macules that occur in sun-exposed areas that can range in size from a few millimeters to over a centimeter

A

Solar lentigines

199
Q

Most common inflammatory skin disorder; several forms, including irritant contact dermatitis, allergic contact dermatitis, and atopic dermatitis

A

Eczematous Dermatitis

200
Q

Inflammation and infection of the hair follicle and surrounding dermis

A

Folliculitis

201
Q

A deep-seated infection of the pilosebaceous unit.

A

Furuncle (boil)

202
Q

Diffuse, acute, infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue

A

Cellulitis

203
Q

Group of noncandidal fungal infections that involve the stratum corneum, nails, or hair

A

Tinea (Dermatophytosis)

204
Q

Self-limiting inflammation of unknown cause

A

Pityriasis rosea

205
Q

Chronic and recurrent disease of keratinocyte proliferation

A

Psoriasis

206
Q

Characterized by increased epidermal cell turnover, increased numbers of epidermal stem cells, and abnormal differentiation of keratin expression leading to thickened skin with copious scale

A

Psoriasis

207
Q

Chronic inflammatory skin disorder

A

Rosacea

208
Q

A tick-borne disease that can lead to multisystemic infection.

A

Lyme disease

209
Q

A nonspecific reaction pattern associated with obesity, certain endocrine syndromes, or malignancies or as an inherited disorder

A

Acanthosis Nigricans

210
Q

The most common form of skin cancer.

A

Basal cell carcinoma

211
Q

Second most common form of skin cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

212
Q

Lethal form of skin cancer that develops from melanocytes

A

Malignant melanoma

213
Q

Sudden, rapid, coin-shaped loss of hair, usually from the scalp or face

A

Alopecia Areata

214
Q

Replacement of hair follicles with scar tissue

A

Scarring alopecia

215
Q

A common cause of alopecia or hair loss in Black women

A

Central Centrifugal Cicatricial Alopecia (CCCA)

216
Q

Growth of terminal hair in women in the male distribution pattern on the face, body, and pubs areas

A

Hirsutism

217
Q

Invasion of bacteria or yeast between the nail fold and the nail plate; can be acute or chronic

A

Paronychia

218
Q

Fungal infection of the nail

A

Onychomycosis

219
Q

Nail pierces the lateral nail fold and grows into the dermis

A

Ingrown nails

220
Q

Trauma to the nail plate severe enough to cause immediate bleeding and pain

A

Subungual hematoma

221
Q

Loosening of the nail plate with separation from the nail bed that begins at the distal groove

A

Onycholysis

222
Q

Central depression of the nail with lateral elevation of the nail plate that is associated with iron deficiency anemia, syphilis, fungal dermatoses, hemochromatosis, and hypothyroidism

A

Koilonychia (Spoon Nails

223
Q

Transverse depression in the nail bed caused by temporary interruption of nail formation due to systemic disorders and can be associated with coronary occlusion, hypercalcemia, and skin disease

A

Beau lines

224
Q

Whitening of the proximal half to three-quarters of the nail bed

A

White banding (terry nails)

225
Q

Chronic and recurrent disease of keratinocyte proliferation

A

Psoriasis

226
Q

Epidermal neoplasms caused by human papilloma virus

A

Warts

227
Q

Cyst-like structures contain a clear, jelly-like substance

A

Digital mucous cysts

228
Q

Cysts located on the dorsal-lateral finger at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint are probably caused by _________ of tendon sheaths or joint linings and are related to ganglion and synovial cysts

A

Herniation

229
Q

A benign dermatosis that usually arises late in the third trimester of a first pregnancy

A

Polymorphic Eruption of pregnancy

230
Q

Chronic, recurrent, erythematous scaling eruption localized in areas where sebaceous glands are concentrated

A

Seborrheic Dermatitis

231
Q

Caused by sweat retention from occlusion of sweat ducts during periods of heat and high humidity; Overdressed babies are susceptible to this condition in the summer

A

Militaries rubric (Prickly heat)

232
Q

Common, contagious superficial skin infection caused mostly by staphylococcal or streptococcal infection of the epidermis

A

Impetigo

233
Q

Common condition due to plugging of hair follicles

A

Acne vulgaris

234
Q

Acute, highly communicable disease common in children and young adults caused by varicella zoster virus

A

Chickenpox (varicella)

235
Q

infects by invasion of the respiratory epithelium

A

Measles (Rubeola)

236
Q

Mild, febrile, highly communicable viral disease; Spread in droplets that are shed from respiratory secretions of infected persons

A

German measles (Rubella)

237
Q

Incubation period of Rubella

A

14-23 days

238
Q

Hair is twisted around the finger and pulled or rubbed until it breaks off; the act of manipulation is usually an unconscious habit

A

Hair-pulling (Trichotillomania)

239
Q

Skin inflammation resulting from chronic edema

A

Stasis dermatitis

240
Q

Atypical squamous cells confined to the upper layers of epidermis; occurs secondary to chronic sun damage; Most lesions remain superficial; lesions can progress into squamous cell carcinoma over time

A

Actinic keratosis

241
Q

consists of lymph fluid, the collecting lymphatic ducts, and various tissues including the lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, tonsils, adenoids, and Peyer patches in the small intestine

A

Lymphatic system

242
Q

Functions (3) of lymphatic system

A
  • conserving fluid and plasma that leak from capillaries
  • fight disease as part of immune system
  • Absorbing lipids from intestinal tract
243
Q

an unwelcome manifestation of immunocompetence

A

Tissue rejection of transplanted organs

244
Q

Every tissue supplied by blood vessels has lymphatic vessels EXCEPT

A

Placenta and brain

245
Q

the lymphatic system plays an undesirable role in providing at least one pathway for the spread of _________

A

malignancy

246
Q

Lymph contains

A

White and red blood cells

247
Q

The majority of the white blood cells that make up lymph

A

Lymphocytes

248
Q

The drainage point for the right upper body is a lymphatic trunk that empties into the

A

Right subclavian vein

249
Q

The major vessel of the lymphatic system

A

Thoracic duct

250
Q

drains lymph from the rest of the body into the left subclavian vein

A

The thoracic duct

251
Q

Superficial nodes are located in ____________, and deeper nodes lie beneath the _______________ and within the various body cavities.

A

subcutaneous connective tissues; fascia of muscles

252
Q

Lymph nodes defend against the invasion of microorganisms and other particles by what 2 processes

A

filtration and phagocytosis

253
Q

Lymph nodes aid in the maturation of __________ and____________

A

lymphocytes: monocytes

254
Q

are the gateway to assessing the health of the entire lymphatic system.

A

The superficial lymph nodes

255
Q

a palpable ________ node should be suspected as a probable sign of malignancy

A

supraclavicular

256
Q

Lymphocytes are primarily produced in

A

Bone marrow

257
Q

involved in the humoral immune response

A

Lymphocytes

258
Q

Marrow-derived cells that mature in the thymus

A

T lymphocytes

259
Q

Unique ability of the T cells

A

Ability to differentiate between healthy and abnormal cells

260
Q

T lymphocytes also have role in controlling immune responses of __________, which produce antibodies

A

B lymphocytes

261
Q

Life span of B cells

A

3-4 days

262
Q

Life span of T cells

A

100-200 days

263
Q

Where is the thymus located

A

Superior mediastinum

264
Q

the cells responsible for cell-mediated immunity reactions

A

T lymphocytes

265
Q

It is the site for production of T lymphocytes and the controlling agent for the humoral immune responses generated by B lymphocytes.

A

Thymus

266
Q

The Thymus is largest and most active during the ___________ and ______________ periods and atrophies after ______________.

A

Neonatal; preadolescent; puberty

267
Q

Where is the spleen located

A

left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity between the stomach and the diaphragm

268
Q

Spleen is highly vascularized and is made up of two systems:

A

White pulp and red pulp

269
Q

made up of lymphatic nodules and diffuse lymphatic tissue

A

The white pulp system of the spleen

270
Q

The system of the spleen that is made up of venous sinusoids

A

Red pulp

271
Q

has several functions including destroying old red blood cells, producing antibodies, storing red blood cells, and filtering microorganisms from the blood

A

The spleen

272
Q

The ________ tonsils are commonly referred to as “the tonsils”

A

Palantine

273
Q

Location of the palantine tonsils

A

set between the palatine arches on either side of the pharynx just beyond the base of the tongue

274
Q

The tonsils are comprised mainly of ….

A

Lymphoid tissue

275
Q

T or F: the palantine tonisls are covered in mucous membranes

A

True

276
Q

Tonsils located at the nasopharyngeal border

A

pharyngeal tonsils aka adenoids

277
Q

The tonsils located near the base of the tongue

A

lingual tonsils

278
Q

What is the other name for the pharyngeal tonsils

A

Adenoids

279
Q

are small, raised areas of lymph tissue on the mucosa of the small intestine and consist of many clustered lymphoid nodules

A

Peyer patches

280
Q

facilitate an immune response when pathogenic microorganisms are detected in the intestinal tract

A

Peyer Patches

281
Q

At what stage in gestation do the immune system and lymphoid system begin developing

A

20 weeks

282
Q

Delayed umbilical cord separation is associated with__________________, an autosomal recessive disorder that causes recurrent infections

A

leukocyte adhesion deficiency

283
Q

T of F: Lymph node distribution is different between children and adults

A

F its the same

284
Q

T or F: immune changes in pregnancy can lead to temporary remission of autoimmune/inflammatory diseases

A

True

285
Q

a contributing factor to impaired ability to resist infection in older adults

A

The nodes of older patients are more likely to be fibrotic and fatty than those of the young

286
Q

T of F: A node fixed to surrounding tissues is cause for concern

A

True

287
Q

enlarged lymph node(s)

A

Lymphadenopathy (adenopathy)

288
Q

inflamed and enlarged lymph node(s)

A

Lymphadenitis

289
Q

inflammation of the lymphatics that drain an area of infection; tender erythematous streaks extend from site to heart; regional nodes may also be tender

A

Lymphangitis

290
Q

small non-tender nodes that feel like BBs under the skin

A

Shotty

291
Q

wavelike motion that is felt when the node is palpated

A

Fluctuant

292
Q

group of nodes that feel connected and seem to move as a unit

A

Matted

293
Q

In the presence of a ___________________, nodes may become warm or tender to the touch, matted, and much less discrete

A

Bacterial infection

294
Q

infections of the _____ usually drain to the preauricular, retropharyngeal, and deep cervical nodes

A

Ear

295
Q

Nodes that feel like they contain fluid; suggest suppuration from infection

A

Fluctuant nodes

296
Q

in ___________ the lymph nodes, often felt in the cervical chains, are usually body temperature, soft, matted, and not tender or painful

A

TB

297
Q

Lymphadenopathy that is widespread, involving several lymph node regions, indicate:

A

systemic disease or disorder

298
Q

T or F: certain drugs can cause nodal enlargement

A

True

299
Q

T or F: Young adults and children with localized supraclavicular lymphadenopathy require further investigation

A

True

300
Q

Infection and inflammation of a lymph node; may affect a single or localized group of nodes

A

Acute Suppurative Lymphadenitis

301
Q

Lymphatic abnormality: Most commonly caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci and coagulase-positive staphylococcal infection

A

Acute Suppurative Lymphadenitis

302
Q

Where is Acute Suppurative Lymphadenitis most commonly examined

A

in the cervical region-
due to microbial drainage from infections of the teeth or tonsils and in the axillary or inguinal regions secondary to infections in the extremities

303
Q

Edematous swelling due to excess accumulation of lymph fluid in tissues caused by inadequate lymph drainage

A

Lymphedema

304
Q

Congenital malformation of dilated lymphatics

A

Lymphangioma/Cystic Hygroma

305
Q

Results from a failure of complete development and subsequent obstruction of the lymphatic system; commonly found in the neck

A

Lymphangioma/Cystic Hygroma

306
Q

Massive accumulation of lymphedema throughout the body; the most common cause of secondary lymphedema worldwide

A

Lymphatic Filariasis (Elephantiasis)

307
Q

Malignant neoplasm of the lymphatic system and the reticuloendothelial tissues

A

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

308
Q

occur most often in lymph nodes in the chest, neck, abdomen, tonsils, and skin; they may also develop in sites other than lymph nodes such as the digestive tract, central nervous system, and around the tonsils; most arise in B cells; the rest occur in T cells

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphomas

309
Q

Malignant lymphoma

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

310
Q

Starts in a single node or chain and spreads to contiguous
lymph nodes, spleen, liver, and bone marrow; Neoplastic giant cells release factors that induce the accumulation of reactive lymphocytes, macrophages, and granulocytes

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma

311
Q

Initially infects oral epithelial cells; after intracellular viral replication and cell lysis with release of new virions, virus spreads to contiguous structures such as the salivary glands, with eventual viremia and infection of the entire lymphoreticular system, including the liver and spleen

A

Epstein-Barr Virus Mononucleosis

312
Q

Zoonosis, caused by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii

A

Toxoplasmosis

313
Q

Ingestion or inhalation of oocysts in soil/fomites, undercooked meat, or raw eggs; cat feces or litter; infection persists for life without signs of disease

A

Toxoplasmosis

314
Q

May cause serious congenital infection if exposed during pregnancy, particularly in the first trimester; transmitted directly from pregnant mother to fetus

A

Toxoplasmosis

315
Q

Infection by human herpes virus 6

A

Roseola Infantum (HHV-6)

316
Q

Infection by human herpes virus 1 (HSV-1) or human herpes virus 2 (HSV-2)

A

Herpes Simplex (HSV)

317
Q

A common cause of subacute or chronic lymphadenitis in children

A

Cat Scratch Disease

318
Q

Caused mainly by Bartonella henselae and Bartonella clarridgeiae; usually follows a bite, scratch, or other penetrating injury from a kitten or cat; the organisms, however, rarely cause illness in the cat

A

Cat scratch disease

319
Q

Viral infection that attacks the body’s immune system

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus/Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (HIV/AIDS)

320
Q

An immune complex disease

A

Serum Sickness (Type III Hypersensitivity Reaction)

321
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity reaction

A

Latex Allergy Type IV Dermatitis

322
Q

T cell–mediated, delayed response; allergic contact dermatitis that involves the immune system and is caused by the chemicals used in latex products

A

Latex Allergy Type IV Dermatitis

323
Q

True allergic reaction caused by protein antibodies

A

Latex Allergy Type I Reaction

324
Q

a parameter of growth calculated by charting changes in height over a time interval

A

Velocity

325
Q

nutrients required by the body in large amounts (carbohydrates, fats, and proteins)

A

Macronutrients

326
Q

nonnutritive eating

A

PICA

327
Q

a marker used to determine a child’s pubertal development

A

Sexual maturity rating

328
Q

an assessment tool that evaluates six physical and six neuromuscular characteristics within 36 hours of birth to establish or confirm the newborn’s gestational age.

A

Ballard gestational age assessment

329
Q

a measurement that should be obtained on each visit until a child reaches 2–3 years of age

A

Head circumference

330
Q

a measure of fat distribution by body type

A

Waist to height ratio

331
Q

the most common method used to assess nutritional status and total body fat

A

Body mass index

332
Q

vitamins, minerals, and electrolytes required and stored by the body in small amount

A

Micronutrients

333
Q

an indicator of a newborn’s maturity

A

Gestational age

334
Q

length of an infant from birth to 24 months of age measured in the supine position on the measuring device

A

Recumbent length

335
Q

falling one or more standard deviations off growth curve pattern; below the fifth percentile for weight and height

A

Failure to thrive

336
Q

excessive proportion of total body fat

A

Obesity

337
Q

method for obtaining a food intake history in which the patient is asked to list all foods, beverages, and snacks ingested during the past 24 hours

A

24 hour recall

338
Q

Hormone deficiency: A 16-year-old female with absence of sexual development; also has short stature and increased carrying angle of the elbows.

A

Turner Syndrome

339
Q

Hormone deficiency: Woman with a round face, reddish purple striae, and fat accumulation in the lower posterior cervical area

A

Cushing syndrome

340
Q

Hormone Disorder: A 5-year-old girl with pubertal changes

A

Precocious puberty

341
Q

Hormone Disorder: Child with pronounced head enlargement and increased intracranial pressure

A

Hydrocephalus

342
Q

Hormone disorder: A 60-year-old man with exaggerated facial features and massive hands

A

Acromegaly

343
Q

A 38-year-old woman is 5 feet 7 inches tall and weighs 163 pounds. Based on these measurements, the examiner assesses total body fat using the

a. upper-to-lower body segment ratio.
b. arm span.
c. waist-to-hip circumference ratio.
d. body mass index.

A

D

344
Q

The body mass index of a patient who is 5 feet 3 inches tall and weighs 142 pounds would be

a. 21
b. 25.2
c. 27
d. 29.5.

A

B

345
Q

With a BMI of 22.6, you would consider a patient to be

a. underweight.
b. of normal weight
c. overweight
d. obese

A

B

346
Q

The majority of brain growth is completed by

a. 1 year of age.
b. 2 years of age
c. 3 years of age
d. 7 years of age.

A

C

347
Q

A child has an arm span that measures greater than his height. This finding is consistent with what condition?

a. Turner syndrome
b. Marfan syndrome
c. Acromegaly
d. Failure to thrive

A

B

348
Q

Which assessment data do you need to calculate a Sexual Maturity Rating (SMR) for a 13-year-old female patient?
A. Height, weight, and age of menarche
b. Ages at which breast stage 4 and pubic hair stage 5 were
reached
c. Age of peak height velocity and average stage of breast
and pubic hair development
d. Stage of breast development and stage of pubic hair
development

A

D

349
Q 
To accurately assess height velocity, the examiner must
measure a child’s height at 
a. 6-month intervals.
b. 12-month intervals.
c. 18-month intervals.
d. 24-month intervals.
A

B

350
Q

A pregnant patient has a prepregnancy body mass index of

    1. The examiner expects this patient’s weight gain during pregnancy to fall into which weight range?
      a. Less than 20 pounds
      b. 20 to 26 pounds
      c. 25 to 35 pounds
      d. 40 to 50 pounds
A

C

351
Q

You ask an 82-year-old patient to keep a food diary to aid in assessing the adequacy of her diet. Which is an appropriate instruction to provide?

a. Keep the diary for 3 days. Start tomorrow morning at breakfast and end before breakfast on Friday.
b. Make a list of what and how much you eat or drink at each meal for the next week.
c. Keep a record of everything you eat and drink over the weekend. Be sure to include snacks and alcohol.
d. Write down what/how much of everything you eat and drink for four days, at least one of which is a weekend day.

A

D

352
Q

To assess and monitor growth, the examiner makes routine measurements of an infant’s weight, length, and which of the following?

a. Head circumference
b. Hip-to-toe length
c. Forearm length
d. Chest circumference

A

A

353
Q

A 4-month-old infant is brought to the clinic. At birth, the baby weighed 6 pounds, 8 ounces. If the baby is gaining weight at the desired rate, the examiner should expect the baby to now weigh

a. 9 pounds.
b. 11 pounds
c. 13 pounds
d. 15 pounds.

A

D

354
Q

Which hormone has a key role in regulating body fat mass and is thought to be a trigger for puberty?

a. Leptin
b. Androgen
c. Estrogen
d. Growth hormone

A

A

355
Q

A dietary assessment is performed by:
a. comparing established eating habits with the
recommended dietary allowances.
b. asking the patient to fill out a food pyramid.
c. comparing the recommended dietary allowances to the
U.S. Department of Agriculture MyPlate.
d. asking the patient to do a 24-hour dietary recall

A

D

356
Q 
Which position would you ask a 14-year-old male patient to assume in order for you to assess his pubertal development?
a. Sitting
B. Standing
C. Lying supine
D. Knee-chest
A

B

357
Q

A 22-year-old patient presents for a routine physical examination. As part of her history, she states that she has been on a vegan diet for 14 months. Based on this information, you would be most concerned about a possible deficiency in which two nutrients?

a. Calcium and vitamin B12
b. Protein and iron
c. Vitamin D and phosphorus
d. Fat and vitamin A

A

A

358
Q

round, active margins with central clearing

A

Annular

359
Q

referring to lesions that run together

A

Confluent

360
Q

widely distributed or present in several areas simultaneously

A

Generalized

361
Q

a mole that varies in size and degree of pigmentation

A

Nevus

362
Q

a fluid- filled and elevated, but superficial, skin lesion

A

Vesicles

363
Q

a bluish discoloration of the hands and feet that may be present at birth and may persist for several days or longer if the newborn is kept in cool ambient temperatures

A

Acrocyanosis

364
Q

fine, silky hair of newborns found on the shoulders and back

A

Lanugo

365
Q

tiny, flat, purple, or red spots on the skin surface resulting from minute hemorrhages within the dermal layer smaller than 0.5 cm in diameter

A

Petechiae

366
Q

refers to maculopapular lesions that become confluent on the face and body (often drug induced)

A

Morbilliform

367
Q

Hair loss

A

Alopecia

368
Q

permanently dilated, small blood vessels consisting of venules or arterioles

A

Telangiectasis

369
Q

hyperpigmentation that occurs in pregnant women and is found on the forehead, cheeks, bridge of the nose, and chin; it is blotchy and symmetric

A

Chloasma

370
Q

flat, deep- pink, localized areas usually seen on the mid-forehead, eyelids, upper lip, and back of the neck in a newborn.

A

Salmon patches (stork bite)

371
Q

a discoloration produced by injury

A

Ecchyomosis

372
Q

a lipid substance that keeps skin and hair from drying out.

A

Sebum

373
Q

a type of skin lesion common in patients with psoriasis.

A

Plaque

374
Q

referring to a lesion that follows a nerve or segment of the body.

A

Dermatomal

375
Q

irregularly shaped, elevated, progressively enlarging, and hypertrophied scar.

A

Keloid

376
Q

referring to a star-shaped lesion

A

Stellate

377
Q

synthesized in the stratum germinativum by melanocytes and is the pigment that gives skin its color.

A

Melanin

378
Q

a mixture of sebum and cornified epidermis that covers the infant’s body at birth

A

Vernix caseosa

379
Q

referring to a lesion with a netlike or lacy appearance

A

Reticulate

380
Q

referring to lesions that appear to occur in a wavy line

A

Serpiginous

381
Q

Type of lesion in: chickenpox

A

Vesicles

382
Q

Type of lesion in insect bite

A

Wheal

383
Q

Type of lesion in impetigo

A

Pustule

384
Q

Type of lesion in chronic atopic dermatitis

A

Lichenification

385
Q

Type of lesion in lipoma

A

Tumor

386
Q

Type of lesion in blister

A

Bulla

387
Q

Type of lesion in wart

A

Papule

388
Q

Type of lesion in port-wine stain

A

Patch

389
Q

Type of lesion in petechiae

A

Macule

390
Q

Stratum corneum is found in the

A

Epidermis

391
Q

Autonomic motor nerves are found in the

A

Dermis

392
Q

Cellular stratum is found in the

A

Epidermis

393
Q

Keratin cells are found in the

A

Epidermis

394
Q

Reticulum fibers is found in the

A

Dermis

395
Q

Subcutaneous layer is found in the

A

Hypodermis

396
Q

Stratum germinativum is found in the

A

Epidermis

397
Q

Skin layer that generates heat

A

Hypodermis

398
Q

Milia are an expected finding in which age group?

a. Newborns
b. Young children
c. Adolescents
d. Older adults

A

A

399
Q

An older patient asks the examiner, “Is this spot on my chin a cancer?” Which of the following would indicate a need for further medical investigation?

a. Reddish-brown color of the lesion
b. Presence on his chin for 20 years
c. Bleeds easily when it is touched
d. Slightly raised and circumscribed

A

C

400
Q 
A 6-year-old girl has freckles over her nose and cheeks.
Freckles are a type of 
a. macule.
b. papule.
c. nodule.
d. petechiae
A

A

401
Q

What grade should be assigned to a pressure ulcer over the coccyx that is open and shallow, showing a red-pink wound bed?

a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV

A

B

402
Q

Why do some infants develop a yellowish skin tone on the third or fourth day of life?

a. Increased formation of subcutaneous tissue causes a yellow hue.
b. Capillaries broken during the birth process turn the skin yellow as bruises heal.
c. Yellowish color results from increased fat metabolism and heat production.
d. Red blood cells that hemolyze after birth may cause a yellow skin hue.

A

D

403
Q

An adolescent pt asks the examiner why teens have more problems with acne than children. Which of the following would be an appropriate response?

a. “Children have better hygiene habits than adolescents because of parental guidance.”
b. “Adolescents have reduced blood flow to the epidermal layer of the skin, making them more susceptible to infections.”
c. “At puberty, adolescents begin to secrete more oil from their sebaceous glands
d. “Children have very little skin mass, which prevents development of acne”

A

C

404
Q

Chloasma is an expected finding in which of the following?

a. Newborns
b. Adolescents
c. Pregnant women
d. Older adults

A

C

405
Q

While examining the skin of an 87-year-old woman, the examiner observes significant tenting. Which of the following age-associated changes best explains this finding?
a. Small skin tags form on the neck and back.
b. The skin becomes thin and takes on a parchment-like
appearance.
c. The skin becomes dry, with significant flaking.
d. There is loss of adipose tissue and loss of elasticity.

A

D

406
Q

When assessing for the presence of clubbing, the examiner specifically examines the

a. width of the nail base.
b. angle of the nail base.
c. thickness of the nail.
d. color of the nail.

A

B

407
Q

Which type of lesion sometimes grows out of an already- present nevus?

a. Malignant melanoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Basal cell carcinoma
d. Kaposi sarcom

A

A

408
Q 
A skin lesion is described as sessile by the examiner. This means that the lesion
a. does not have a stalk.
b. is freely moveable.
c. bleeds easily
D. Has a spongy consistency
A

A

409
Q

The examiner notes a large blue-black spot on the buttock of a 4-week-old black neonate. The mother states that the infant was born with it. The examiner should recognize that this

a. is a common finding.
b. may indicate child abuse.
c. is related to birth trauma.
d. suggests a congenital defect.

A

A

410
Q

Which of the following may be associated with neurofibromatosis or pulmonary stenosis?

a. Café au lait patches
b. Nevus vasculosus
c. Port-wine limb stain
d. Spider angioma

A

A

411
Q

Which lesion is an expected finding on the skin of healthy older adults?

a. Acne vulgaris
b. Cherry angioma
c. Miliaria
d. Trichotillomania

A

B

412
Q

When palpating skin surfaces for temperature, the examiner should use the

a. palmar aspect of the hand.
b. fingertips of the dominant hand.
c. dorsal aspect of the hands or fingers.
d. ulnar surface of the hand.

A

C

413
Q

Hyperkeratosis is noted on a patient’s palms and soles. The examiner recognizes that this

a. may be a sign of a systemic disorder.
b. may be an indication of a congenital heart defect.
c. is common among individuals with Down syndrome.
d. is considered a normal finding.

A

D

414
Q 
A patient with diabetes presents to the clinic complaining of an infected foot. Upon removing the patient’s sock, the examiner notes an odor that resembles rotting apples. This finding is consistent with which type of infection?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 
B. Proteus
C. Viridans streptococci
D. Clostridium
A

D

415
Q

Which finding is consistent with a physical abuse injury in a toddler?
a. Burn to the skin with a splash pattern
B. Bruising of the skin over soft tissue
C. Bruising of the skin over a bony prominence
D. Cafe au lait patches

A

B

416
Q

Which of the following techniques helps the examiner determine whether a palpable skin mass is filled with fluid?

a. Using a Wood’s lamp
b. Palpating
c. Transilluminating
d. Noting the odor of the lesion

A

C

417
Q

Which of the following findings suggests that a patient has a fungal infection of the nail beds?
a. The nail bed is wide and thick.
b. The nail plate has a central depression, causing a spoon
appearance.
c. Superficial white spots are present in the nail plate.
d. The nail plate is yellow and crumbling

A

D

418
Q

small nontender nodes that feel like BBs or buckshot under the skin

A

Shotty nodes

419
Q

clear, sometimes milky-colored or yellow-tinged fluid containing a variety of white blood cells, most of which are lymphocytes, and an occasional red blood cell

A

Lymph

420
Q

a congenital malformation of dilated lymphatics

A

Lymphangioedema

421
Q

enlarged lymph nodes

A

Lymphadenopathy

422
Q

wavelike motion that is felt when the node is palpated

A

Fluctuant

423
Q

group of nodes that feel connected and seem to move as a unit

A

Matted

424
Q

inflamed and enlarged lymph node(s)

A

Lymphadenitis

425
Q

What lymph node is in this location: Above and in front of the ear

A

Preauricular

426
Q

What lymph node is in this location: Superficial to the mastoid process

A

Postauricular

427
Q

What lymph node is in this location: Base of the skull

A

Occipital

428
Q

What lymph node is in this location: Behind the tip of the mandible

A

Submental

429
Q

What lymph node is in this location: halfway between the angle and tip of the mandible

A

Submandibular

430
Q

What lymph node is in this location: Overlying the sternomastoid muscle

A

Superficial cervicle

431
Q

What lymph node is in this location: Deep under the sternomastoid muscle

A

Deep cervicle

432
Q

What lymph node is in this location: posterior triangle along the edge of the trapezius muscle

A

Posterior cervicle

433
Q

What lymph node is in this location: above and behind the clavicle

A

Supraclavicular

434
Q

During an examination, which of the following questions would be most appropriate for the examiner to ask a patient to elicit information about the lymph system?

a. “Are you aware of any lumps?”
b. “Have you had a change in appetite?”
c. “Do your lymph nodes hurt?”
d. “Where are your largest lymph nodes?

A

A

435
Q

While palpating lymph nodes on an adult, the examiner should remember that

a. tubercular nodes are hot and firm to the touch.
b. nodes that are fixed and palpable are a normal finding.
c. heavy pressure is required to locate and identify nodes.
d. easily palpable nodes are generally not found in healthy adults.

A

D

436
Q 
In comparison with those of a young adult, the lymph nodes of an older adult will be
a. large and soft.
b. small and fatty
C. Hard and irregular 
D. Large and hard
A

B

437
Q

A 19-year-old man has a severe infection involving the fifth digit of his right hand. Where should the examiner expect to palpate enlarged and tender lymph nodes?

a. Radial aspect of the right wrist
b. Palmar aspect of the right hand
c. Lateral aspect of the right forearm
d. Medial aspect of the right elbow

A

D

438
Q

Which of the following examination findings in an adult is a major cause for concern?
a. A palpable fluctuant lymph node movable under the examiner’s fingers.
b. A palpable hard lymph node fixed in its setting
C. A palpable soft lymph node approximately 2 mm in size
D. Absence of any palpable lymph nodes

A

B

439
Q

The most common causes of acute suppurative lymphadenitis are which organisms?

a. Pseudomonas and Clostridium spp.
b. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus spp.
c. Candida and Chlamydia spp.
d. Aspergillus and Escherichia spp

A

B

440
Q

The examiner typically assesses the lymph system using which of the following methods?

a. Assesses the entire lymph system as a unit, exploring all accessible nodes.
b. Assesses both the superficial and deep nodes using palpation and a Doppler study.
c. Assesses the lymph system region by region as each body system is assessed.
d. Assesses the lymph nodes only when the patient’s history suggests a need to do so.

A

C

441
Q

A 2-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for immunizations. The examiner palpates enlarged inguinal nodes. What additional finding might explain the enlarged nodes?
a. The mother reports that the infant has colic.
b. The infant’s length and weight are above the 85th
percentile.
c. The infant has a severe diaper rash.
d. A port-wine stain is present on the infant’s left thigh.

A

C

442
Q

As the examiner palpates an enlarged lymph node, the patient complains of pain. This is suggestive of

a. an inflammatory process.
b. Hodgkin disease.
c. immature lymph node development.
d. toxoplasmosis.

A

A

443
Q

Which examination method is used to differentiate an enlarged lymph node from a cyst?

a. Palpation
b. Auscultation
c. Biopsy
d. Transillumination

A

D

444
Q

Which of the following methods best describes how to assess supraclavicular lymph nodes?

a. Have the patient assume a supine position and then hold his or her breath.
b. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position and illuminate the lymph nodes with a bright light.
c. Palpate deeply behind the clavicles as the patient takes a deep breath.
d. Hook fingers over the clavicles with the patient in a sitting position, with head flexed

A

D

445
Q

The examiner notes enlarged tonsils in a young child. The examiner should recognize that this

a. is an indication of a retropharyngeal abscess.
b. may be an early indication of Epstein-Barr virus.
c. is an indication that the child has lymphoma
d. may be a normal finding.

A

D

446
Q

In addition to the head, neck, axillae, and inguinal area, the
examiner may also assess lymph nodes in which location?
a. On the palmar aspect of the hands
b. In the popliteal region
c. In the patellar region
d. On the dorsum of the foot

A

B

447
Q

Which of the following is an assessment technique that can
differentiate mumps from cervical adenitis?
a. Palpating for the angle of the jaw
b. Palpating enlarged lymph nodes
c. Noting painful lymph nodes
d. Noting swelling of the face

A

A

448
Q

On examining a patient, you find matted occipital lymph nodes. What do you do to facilitate subsequent assessment for change in the matted nodes?
a. Outline the mass with a skin pen.
b. Tattoo the center of the mass
C. Mark 12, 3, 6, and 9 o’clock positions on the periphery of
the mass with a skin pencil.
d. Use calipers to obtain the diameter of the mass

A

C

449
Q

A patient presents to the office with a complaint of a lump in the neck. What would you expect to feel if the problem involved a cancer that had spread through the lymph system?

a. A soft lymph node less than 0.5 cm in size
b. Multiple small, hard, nontender nodes
c. A single, firm node affixed to underlying tissue
d. Solitary, tender, matted node of variable size

A

C

450
Q 
Normal cervical lymph nodes typically are 
a. matted
B. Tender to palpation
C. Rubbery
D smaller than 1 cm
A

D

451
Q

On examination of a patient, you palpate enlarged preauricular and submandibular lymph nodes. Which term can be used to describe the finding?

a. Lymphadenopathy
b. Lymphadenitis
c. Lymphangitis
d. Lymphedema

A

A

452
Q

How should the patient be positioned when you palpate for
left inguinal lymph nodes?
a. Standing, with weight on the right leg
b. Sitting, with legs dangling
c. Supine, with knees slightly bent
d. Supine, with the left leg externally rotated

A

C

453
Q

Which finding is the most concerning?

a. 3-mm occipital lymph node in a neonate
b. 6-mm postauricular lymph node in a 1 year old
c. 0.5-cm cervical lymph node in a 3 year old
d. 0.8-cm supraclavicular lymph node in a 5 year old

A

D

454
Q

Which is the function of the thymus in early life and young children?
A. Protective immune function
B. Drain lymph from the chest
C. Destroying old white blood cells
D. Filtering mechanism from white blood cells

A

B

455
Q 
Which organ does NOT have lymphatic vessels?
A. Brain
B. Intestine
C. Bone Marrow
D. Lungs
A

A

456
Q 
Small, clustered lymphoid nodules that are raised areas of lymph tissue of the small intestine are called:
A. adenoids
B. Thymus
C. Peyer patches
D. Spleen
A

C

457
Q 
Enlarged, painful lymph nodes, firm and tender, with mild edema, caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci is:
A. Acute suppurative lymphadenitis 
B. Lymphatic filariasis
C. Lymphangioma 
D. Lymphedema
A

A

458
Q 
Which is a chronic autoimmune disorder?
A. Microcephaly
B. Hashimoto disease
C. Salivary gland tumor 
D. Down syndrome
A

B

459
Q 
Mrs. Wagner is a 45 year old patient. You are examining her thyroid and note a course and gritty sensation. This is indicative of:
A. Cancer
B. Nodules
C. Goiter
D. Inflammatory process
A

D

460
Q

Palpable supraclavicular node on left indicative of a thoracic or abdominal malignancy

A

Virchow Node

461
Q

The lymph system is considered a _________ and _________ circulation system

A

Closed; porous

462
Q

Produce antibodies

A

B lymphocytes

463
Q

Site for T cell production

A

Thymus

Advanced HA (13 decks)

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