Module 5.3 - Animal Responses Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the role of the Mammalian Nervous System? (4)

A
  • Detects changes in environment
  • Allows for cell signalling between all parts of the body
  • Coordinates effectors
  • Deals with rapid responses
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2
Q

What are the two structural systems of the nervous system (2)

A
  • Central Nervous System (CNS)
  • Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
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3
Q

What is the role of the CNS? (1)

A
  • To coordinate responses to stimuli
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4
Q

What is the CNS composed of? (2)

A
  • Brain
  • Spinal Cord
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5
Q

What is the brain composed of? (1)

A
  • Non-myelinated relay neuron (grey matter)
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6
Q

What is the spinal cord composed of? (3)

A
  • Non-myelinated relay neuron (grey matter)
  • Outer region of myelinated neurons (white matter)
  • Vertebral column
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7
Q

What does the white matter do? (1)

A
  • Carries action potential up and down spinal cord
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8
Q

What are the structures of the brain? (5)

A
  • Hypothalamus
  • Cerebrum
  • Pituitary Gland
  • Medulla Oblongata
  • Cerebellum
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9
Q

Hypothalamus? (4)

A
  • Involved in negative feedback
  • Found beneath the middle part of the brain
  • Maintains body temperature
  • Produces hormones that control the pituitary gland
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10
Q

Cerebrum? (4)

A
  • Largest part of the brain
  • Involved in vision, hearing, learning and thinking
  • Consists of two cerebral hemispheres connected via corpus callosum
  • Cerebral cortex
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11
Q

What is the corpus callosum? (1)

A
  • Major tracts of neurones
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12
Q

What is the cerebral cortex? (3)

A
  • Thin outer layer of nerve bodies
  • Highly folded
  • Has three subdivisions
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13
Q

What are the three cerebral cortex subdivisions? (3)

A
  • Sensory areas
  • Association areas
  • Motor areas
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14
Q

What are the sensory areas? (2)

A
  • Receives action potential from sensory receptors
  • Size of region is relative to the sensitivity of area
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15
Q

What are the association areas? (1)

A
  • Compares sensory input with previous inputs to interpret signals and select responses
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16
Q

What are the motor areas? (3)

A
  • Sends action potential to various effectors
  • Size is relative to the complexity of movement
  • Left side of brain controls right side of body
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17
Q

Pituitary gland? (4)

A
  • Found beneath the hypothalamus
  • Controlled by the hypothalamus
  • It releases hormones and stimulates other glands
  • Consists of two lobes
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18
Q

What are the two lobes of the pituitary gland? (2)

A
  • Anterior gland
  • Posterior gland
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19
Q

What is the role of the anterior gland? (1)

A
  • Produces its own hormones in response to stress, growth and reproduction factors
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20
Q

What is the role of the posterior gland? (2)

A
  • Produces specialised neurosecretory cells
  • e.g. ADH
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21
Q

Medulla Oblongata? (5)

A
  • At the base of the brain
  • Controls autonomic nervous system
  • Controls non-skeletal muscles
  • Controls cardiac, vasomotor and respiratory centres
  • Automatically controls breathing and heart rate
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22
Q

Cerebellum? (3)

A
  • Coordinates muscles, balances and posture
  • Receives information from sensory receptors and processes them
  • Cerebellar cortex
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23
Q

What is the role of the cerebellar cortex? (3)

A
  • Involved in conscious decision to contract voluntary muscles
  • Judges position of objects and limbs
  • Generates slight tension for using instruments and tools
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24
Q

Pons? (1)

A
  • Connects cerebrum and cerebellum
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25
Q

Reflex actions? (2)

A
  • Reflex actions do not require processing in the brain before coordination takes place
  • Any impulse sent through a relay neurone can be overridden
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26
Q

How can impulses sent through a relay neurone be overridden? (1)

A
  • Myelinated neurone gets to CNS before non-myelinated relay neurone
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27
Q

Knee jerk reflex? (4)

A
  • Reflex to straighten your leg to help maintain posture and balance
  • Stretch receptors in quadriceps muscles detects muscle being stretched
  • Nerve impulses passes through sensory neuron to motor neuron through spinal cord
  • Motor neuron sends impulse to effector in quadriceps muscle causing it to contract
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28
Q

Blinking reflex? (4)

A
  • Reflex to close your eyes to prevent damage
  • Sensory nerve ending in cornea is stimulated
  • Nerve impulses passes through sensory neuron to relay neuron in CNS
  • Motor neuron sends impulse to effector in orbicularis oculi muscles causing it to contract
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29
Q

What are the physiological changes that occur in response to the “fight or flight response”? (9)

A
  • Pupil dilate
  • Heart rate and blood pressure increases
  • Vasoconstriction of digestive system
  • Vasodilation of muscles in liver
  • Increase in blood glucose
  • Metabolic rate increases
  • Erector pili muscles in skin contrast
  • Ventilation rate & depth increases
  • Endorphins released in the brain
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30
Q

Physiological changes: pupils dilate (2)

A
  • Allows more light to enter eyes
  • Retina becomes more sensitive
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31
Q

Physiological changes: heart rate and blood pressure increase (1)

A
  • Allows more oxygen and glucose to be delivered to responding effectors and to remove CO2 & toxins
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32
Q

Physiological changes: vasoconstriction of digestive system & vasodilation of muscles in liver (1)

A
  • Diverts blood flow away from metabolism to muscles to prepare for fight or flight response
33
Q

Physiological changes: increase in blood glucose (1)

A
  • Supplies energy for muscular contraction
34
Q

Physiological changes: metabolic rate increases (1)

A
  • Converts glucose to create forms of energy such as ATP
35
Q

Physiological changes: erector pili muscles in skin contract (2)

A
  • Hairs stand up
  • Sign of aggression
36
Q

Physiological changes: ventilation rate & depth increases (3)

A
  • Increase in gas exchange
  • More oxygen is respired
  • More toxins removed
37
Q

Physiological changes: endorphins released in the brain (2)

A
  • Wounds inflicted in the fight or flight response do not prevent activity
  • Decreases sensitivity to injuries
38
Q

How does the sympathetic nervous system response to a potential threat? (5)

A
  • Signals sent from hypothalamus are sent to the adrenal medulla
  • Adrenaline is released
  • Adrenaline binds to cells such as G-proteins which stimulates adenyl cyclase to converts ATP into cyclic AMP (cAMP)
  • cAMP activates enzyme action
  • Different cell have difference responses
39
Q

What are the effects of the adrenaline? (4)

A
  • Increases heart rate
  • Stimulates glycogenolysis
  • Vasoconstriction of digestive system & vasodilation of muscles in liver
  • Erector pili muscles contract
40
Q

What are the two trophic hormones released from the anterior pituitary? (2)

A
  • Corticotropin releasing hormones (CRH)
  • Thyrotropin (TRH)
41
Q

What is the role of CRH? (2)

A
  • Stimulates the release ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic)
  • Increases the rate of metabolism
42
Q

What is the role of TRH? (2)

A
  • Stimulates the release of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
  • Increases the releases of thyroxine which increases the rate of metabolism
43
Q

How is the pace of the heart rate controlled? (3)

A
  • Pace altered by cardiovascular centre in medulla oblongata
  • Atrial & ventricle are controlled by SAN
  • Myogenic
44
Q

What is the role of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves in altering the frequency of contractions? (2)

A
  • Sympathetic nerve (accelerants) increases heart rate
  • Parasympathetic nerve (vagus) decreases heart rate
45
Q

How is the nervous system involved in controlling the heart rate? (3)

A
  • Stimuli is detected by baroreceptors and chemoreceptors
  • Impulses are sent to the medulla through the nerves which secretes neurotransmitters which binds to receptors on the SAN
  • SAN which controls the contractions of the heart will alter the pace the heart rate
46
Q

What are the baroreceptors and chemoreceptors? (2)

A
  • Baroreceptors are stretch/pressure receptors & detects changes in blood pressure
  • Chemoreceptors are chemical receptors & detect changes in O2 levels
47
Q

What are the nerves that impulses are sent through to reach the medulla and what are their roles? (2)

A
  • Accelerant nerve = secretes noradrenaline
  • Vagus nerve = secretes acetylcholine
48
Q

How do the neurotransmitters affect the SAN? (2)

A
  • Noradrenaline increases heart rate
  • Acetylcholine decreases heart rate
49
Q

What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system? (2)

A
  • Increases heart rate
  • Dilates pupils
50
Q

What is the role of the parasympathetic nervous system? (4)

A
  • Decreases heart rate
  • Constricts pupils
  • Lowers ventilation rate
  • Increases digestion
51
Q

What are the differences between the sympathetic (S) and parasympathetic (P) nervous system? (6)

A
  • S has many neurones whilst P has a few
  • In S ganglia is positioned outside the CNS whilst in P it is within effector tissue
  • In S the preganglionic neuron is short whilst in P it is long
  • In S the postganglionic neuron is long whilst in P it is short
  • S use noradrenaline whilst P use acetylcholine
  • S increases activity whilst P decreases it
52
Q

What are the structures of skeletal muscles? (8)

A
  • Compromised of large bundles of long cells called muscles fibres
  • Sarcolemma cell membrane
  • Sarcoplasm cytoplasm
  • Transverse (T) tubules
  • Sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • Lots of mitochondria
  • Multinucleate
  • Myofibrils
53
Q

What are T tubules? (2)

A
  • Bits of sarcolemma that fold inwards and stick to the sarcoplasm
  • They help spread electrical impulses across all parts of muscle fibre
54
Q

What is sarcoplasmic reticulum? (2)

A
  • Internal membranes
  • Store and release calcium ions
55
Q

What are myofibrils? (3)

A
  • Long cylindrical organelles
  • Specialised for contraction
  • Consists of two filaments
56
Q

What are the two filaments of myofibrils? (2)

A
  • Thick myosin filaments
  • Thin actin filaments
57
Q

Thick myosin filaments? (2)

A
  • Made of myosin
  • Dark bands under microscope
58
Q

Thin actin filaments? (2)

A
  • Made of actin
  • Light bands under microscope
59
Q

What do myofibrils look under a microscope? (4)

A
  • Short units called sarcomeres
  • Ends of sarcomere is Z-line
  • Middle of sarcomere is M-line
  • Around M-line is H-zone which only contains myosin fibres
60
Q

What is the Sliding Filament Theory? (3)

A
  • Myosin and actin filaments slide over each other to make the sarcomere contract
  • Simultaneous contraction of many sarcomeres = myofibrils and muscle fibres contract
  • Sarcomeres shorten in length
61
Q

Myosin filaments? (2)

A
  • They have globular heads that are hinged to move back and forth
  • Myosin heads have binding sites for actin and ATP
62
Q

Actin filaments? (2)

A
  • Actin-myosin binding sites for myosin heads
  • Tropomyosin and troponin are between actin filaments
63
Q

Tropomyosin and troponin proteins? (2)

A
  • Proteins that are attached to each other in actin filaments
  • Help myofilaments move past each other
64
Q

Role of tropomyosin? (2)

A
  • When resting Actin-myosin binding site is blocked by tropomyosin
  • Myofilaments can’t slide past each other as myosin head can’t bind to actin filaments
65
Q

How is muscle contraction triggered? (2)

A
  • Action potential
  • Triggers influx of Ca2+
66
Q

What are the steps in muscle contraction? (9)

A
  • Sarcolemma depolarises
  • T tubule depolarises
  • Sarcoplasmic reticulum depolarises
  • Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases stored Ca2+
  • Ca2+ bind to troponin and changes its shape
  • Troponin pulls tropomyosin out of actin-myosin binding site
  • Myosin head binds to actin-myosin binding site and cross bridge forms
  • Myosin head pulls actin filament in a rowing motion
  • Myosin head reattaches to different binding site and cycle repeats
67
Q

Role of Ca2+ in muscle contraction: (3)

A
  • Ca2+ bind to troponin to change its shape
  • Ca2+ activate ATPase which breaks down ATP to provide energy
  • Cycle will continue as long as Ca2+ are present
68
Q

Role of ATP in muscle contraction: (2)

A
  • ATP moves myosin head and pulls actin filament along in a rowing motion
  • ATP breaks the cross bridge and detaches myosin head from actin-myosin binding site
69
Q

How is ATP synthesised? (3)

A
  • Aerobic respiration
  • Anaerobic respiration
  • ATP-Creatine Phosphate (CP) System
70
Q

Aerobic respiration for ATP synthesis: (2)

A
  • Oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria
  • Good for long periods of low intensity exercise
71
Q

Anaerobic respiration for ATP synthesis: (5)

A
  • Glycolysis
  • End product is pyruvate
  • Pyruvate –> lactate
  • Lactate build-up = muscle fatigue
  • Good for short periods of hard exercise
72
Q

ATP-Creatine Phosphate (CP) System for ATP synthesis: (7)

A
  • Phosphorylating ADP
  • ADP + CP = ATP + Creatine
  • CP is stored in cells and generate ATP quickly
  • CP runs our after a few seconds
  • Good for short bursts of vigorous exercise
  • Anaerobic
  • Alactic
73
Q

What are the neuromuscular junctions? (2)

A
  • Synapses between neurones and muscles
  • Uses acetylcholine which bind to nicotinic cholinergic receptors
74
Q

Type of muscles: (3)

A
  • Skeletal
  • Involuntary
  • Cardiac
75
Q

Voluntary/Skeletal muscle? (6)

A
  • Controlled consciously
  • Many muscle fibres
  • Many nuclei
  • Has cross-striation
  • Some contract quickly for speed and strength but fatigue quickly
  • Some contract slowly for endurance and posture and fatigue slowly
76
Q

Involuntary/Smooth muscle? (7)

A
  • Unconsciously controlled
  • No striped appearance
  • Found in walls of hollow internal organs
  • Contract for peristalsis
  • One nucleus
  • Spindle-shaped
  • Contract slowly and don’t fatigue
77
Q

Cardiac muscles? (8)

A
  • Myogenic
  • Found in walls of heart
  • Made of muscle fibres connected by intercalated discs
  • Low electrical resistance
  • Branched for spread of nerve impulse quickly
  • One nucleus
  • Some cross-striation
  • Contract rhythmically and don’t fatigue
78
Q

What is an electromyography? (3)

A
  • Attached electrodes to three muscles, one control
  • Electrical signals detected by electrodes
  • Generated reading is called electromyogram