Module 4.1 Staphylococcaceae and Micrococcus Flashcards

1
Q

Staphylococcus belongs to family:

A

Staphylococcaceae

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2
Q

How many species does Staphylococcus bacteria have?

A

45 species

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3
Q

How many subspecies does Staphylococcus abcteria have?

A

21

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4
Q

Three Staphylococcus bacteria most commonly seen in human infections

A
  1. S. aureus
  2. S epidermidis
  3. S. saprophyticus
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5
Q

gram staining of Staphylococcus

A

gram positive

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6
Q

diameter of Staphylococcus

A

0.5 - 1.5 um

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7
Q

motility of Staphylococcus

A

non-motile

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8
Q

T or F: Staphylococcus is a spore forming bacteria

A

false

It is non-spore forming

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9
Q

oxygen requirement of Staphylococcus

A

facultative anaerobe

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10
Q

Staphylococcus:

catalase positive or negative?

A

catalase-positive

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11
Q

temperature requirement of Staphylococcus

A

37 degrees C

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12
Q

osmotic pressure of Staphylococcus

A

halotolerant

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13
Q

T or F: Staphylococcus is fermentative

A

True

Staphylococcus is fermentative.

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14
Q

Staphylococcus:

nitrate reduction, +/- ?

A

+

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15
Q

Three additional characteristics of Staphylococcus

A

Coagulase (+)
DNase (+)
Mannitol fermenter

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16
Q

T or F: Staphylococcus is not a part of normal human microflora.

A

False

Staphylococcus is a part of normal human flora.

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17
Q

Staphylococcus is most commonly present in what part of the human body

A

anterior nares (nostrils)

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18
Q

what percentage of adults have Staphylococcus in the anterior nares

A

20-40%

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19
Q

Staphylococcus is carried by normal individuals _____ rather than chronically

A

intermittently

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20
Q

4 other sites in the human body that Staphylococcus colonize

A
  1. nasopharynx
  2. perineum
  3. axillae (armpit)
  4. vagina
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21
Q

most common mode of Staphylococcus transmission

A

contaminated hands

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22
Q

Though Staphylococcus is part of the normal human flora, it is able to cause _________ under appropriate conditions

A

opportunistic infections

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23
Q

Though Staphylococcus is part of the normal human flora, it is able to cause _________ under appropriate conditions

A

opportunistic infections

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24
Q

6 factors that predispose an individual to serious S. aureus infections.

A
  1. breaks in continuity of mucosal and cutaneous surface
  2. foreign bodies or implants
  3. prior infection (viral influenza)
  4. defect in immunity
  5. chronic diseases
  6. antimicrobial administration
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25
Q

3 kinds of diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus

A
  1. cutaneous diseases
  2. toxigenic diseases
  3. systemic diseases
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26
Q

5 cutaneous staphylococcal diseases

A
  1. Folliculitis
  2. Hidradenitis suppurativa
  3. Furuncle
  4. Carbuncle
  5. Impetigo
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27
Q

Staphylococcal infections are pus-forming or _____

A

pyogenic

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28
Q

All Staphylococcal infections are _____

A

abscesses

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29
Q

Staphylococcal infections of the skin occur through: (3)

A
  1. wounds
  2. follicles
  3. skin glands
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30
Q

What is an abscess?

A

inflamed, fibrous lesion enclosing a core of pus

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31
Q

mild inflammation of the superficial dermis that is restricted to the hair follicles

A

Folliculitis

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32
Q

term for opening of the hair follicles

A

ostia

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33
Q

folliculitis is characterized by:

A
  1. small, reddish, painful lesions

2. absence of systemic symptoms

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34
Q

If folliculitis occurs in the eyelid, it is referred to as ___

A

stye

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35
Q

If folliculitis occurs in the eyelid, it is referred to as ___

A

stye

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36
Q

It is a chronic/relapsing inflammation. It is not a primarily a staphylococcal disease, but is complicated by S. aureus

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

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37
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa usually involves areas that bear:

A

apocrine glands

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38
Q

4 sites where Hidradenitis suppurativa most commonly appear

A

axillae
groin
perineal and perianal regions

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39
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa is associated with blocked and infected____

A

apocrine sweat glands

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40
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa is associated with blocked and infected____

A

apocrine sweat glands

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41
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa is associated with presence of multiple lesions caused by blocked and infected____

A

apocrine sweat glands

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42
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa is characterized by the presence of __, __, __, and absence of __

A

local pain
swelling
erythema
systemic symptoms

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43
Q

It is a deeper seated infection of the hair follicles

A

furuncle

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44
Q

furuncle is latin for:

A

little thief

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45
Q

another term for furuncle

A

boils

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46
Q

In furuncles, the inflammation of single hair follicle/ sebaceous gland progresses into a ______

A

large, red, extremely tender abscess or pustule

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47
Q

term for when furuncles appears in clusters

A

furunculosis

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48
Q

4 common sites for furuncles

A

buttocks
breasts
axillae
back of the neck

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49
Q

larger and deeper lesion which is created by aggregation & interconnection of furunculosis

A

carbuncle

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50
Q

characteristics of carbuncle

A
  • extremely painful

- can be fatal in elderly when it gives rise to systemic disease

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51
Q

carbuncle is latin for

A

little coal

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52
Q

where are carbuncles mostly found

A

tough skin (back of the neck)

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53
Q

cutaneous disease that is not confined to follicles and skin glands

A

impetigo

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54
Q

impetigo is latin for:

A

to attack

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55
Q

characteristics of impetigo

A
  • bubble like epidermal sweeping

- can break and peel away like localized scalding skin syndrome

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56
Q

impetigo is usually present in exposed areas like:

A

face

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57
Q

impetigo may spread to other areas through:

A

autoinoculation

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58
Q

two types of impetigo

A
  1. non-bullous

2. bullous

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59
Q

impetigo that begins as single red macule (patch) or papule, which quickly becomes a vesicle that ruptures & forms an erosion

A

non-bullous

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60
Q

most common type of impetigo (70%)

A

non- bullous

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61
Q

impetigo that is a localized form of scalded skin syndrome and commonly affects neonates

A

bullous

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62
Q

impetigo where the lesion dries to form a honey-colored crusts w/ erythematous (reddish) margins

A

non-bullous

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63
Q

impetigo which has oozing yellow crust but has no surrounding erythema

A

bullous

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64
Q

impetigo that is usually found in moist intertriginous areas (diaper area, axillae, neck folds)

A

bullous

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65
Q

impetigo that may be pruritic (itchy)

A

non-bullous

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66
Q

3 types of staphylococcal toxigenic diseases

A
  1. staphylococcal food poisoning
  2. staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
  3. staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome
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67
Q

gastrointestinal illness that is caused by eating food contaminated w/ S. aureus toxin

A

Staphylococcal food poisoning

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68
Q

Staphylococcal food poisoning acute symptoms appear within _____ of ingestion

A

2-6 hours

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69
Q

Staphylococcal food poisoning recovery occurs within ___

A

24 hours

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70
Q

two symptoms of Staphylococcal food poisoning

A
  • emesis (vomiting often projectile)

- diarrhea (less frequent)

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71
Q

disease associated w/ handling or unrefrigerated custards, sauces, cream pastries, processed meats, chicken salad, ham

A

Staphylococcal food poisoning

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72
Q

T or F: Staphylococcal food poisoning cannot happen with salt preserved food.

A

False

Staphylococcus is halotolerant.

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73
Q

T or F: Staphylococcus toxins do not alter food taste or smell.

A

True

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74
Q

T or F: Staphylococcal food poisoning is a food-borne infection

A

False

food intoxication

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75
Q

causes widespread erythema and separation of the dermis from the epidermis which results into exposure of large areas of denuded and raw skin

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome

76
Q

another term form Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome

A

Ritter’s disease

77
Q

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome is usually seen in

A

neonates (less than a month old) children less than 5 years

78
Q

appears as bullous lesions over large areas of the body

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome

79
Q

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome symptoms wane over ____

A

5-7 days

80
Q

resembles sunburns followed by skin desquamation and involvement of multiple organ systems

A

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

81
Q

symptoms of Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

A

initially flu-like
fever
hypotension
skin rash

82
Q

desquamation occurs in Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome after __

A

1-2 weeks

83
Q

some symptoms associated with Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome

A
vomiting
diarrhea
renal failure
headache, chills
sore throat
conjunctivitis
84
Q

diseases associated w/ use of high-absorbency tampons

A

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome

85
Q

most common pattern of staphylococcal infections

A

focal

local cutaneous to other sites

86
Q

three kinds of miscellaneous systemic infections caused by staphylococcus

A
  1. osteomyelitis
  2. pneumonia
  3. bacteremia
87
Q

Bone infection caused by staphylococcus

A

Osteomyelitis

88
Q

staphylococcus infection that usually occurs after influenza viral infections

A

pneumonia

89
Q

three consequences of bacteremia

A

Endocarditis
Arthritis
Meningitis

90
Q

promotes colonization of, spread in, or damage to host tissues, enhance survival within cells

A

Virulence factors

91
Q

consists of polysaccharides which mediates attachment to host cells or tissues

A

microcapsule

92
Q

inhibits phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear leukocytes unless specific antibodies are present

A

microcapsule

93
Q

can only be visualized through electron microscope

A

microcapsule

94
Q

microcapsule has how many serotypes

A

11

95
Q

microcapsule serotype which is responsible for majority of infections

A

type 5 and type 8

96
Q

tagging of foreign pathogens using opsonin for elimination by phagocytes, without which negatively charged pathogen and phagocyte would repel each other

A

opsonization

97
Q

bacterial surface protein found in some S. aureus strains which prevents opsonization

A

protein A

98
Q

mechanism of protein A

A

a. protein A binds to Fc portion of IgG
b. IgG is no longer capable of binding to Fc receptor on phagocyte
c. no opsonization

99
Q

blocks complement fixation

A

protein A

100
Q

inactivates toxic hydrogen peroxide and free radicals

A

catalase

101
Q

primary killing mechanism of phagolysosome

A

myeloperoxidase system

102
Q

forms toxic hydrogen peroxide & free radicals

A

myeloperoxidase system

103
Q

coats the bacterial cells, hiding their antigenic surface, thus protecting them from phagocytosis and immune response.

A

fibrin

104
Q

promotes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin causing plasma to clot

A

coagulase

105
Q

hydrolyzes DNA, facilitating the spread of bacteria by liquefying abscess materials.

A

DNase

106
Q

known as the “spreading factor

A

hyaluronidase

107
Q

hydrolyzes the intercellular

matrix of acid mucopolysaccharides in tissue, spreading the organism to adjacent areas

A

Hyaluronidase

108
Q

hydrolyzes lipids

A

lipase

109
Q

helps spread the organism in cutaneous and

subcutaneous tissues.

A

lipase

110
Q

plasminogen activator

A

Staphylokinase

111
Q

dissolves fibrin clot (fibrinolysis) which might aid in the spread of infection to contiguous tissues

A

Staphylokinase

112
Q

makes tissues more susceptible to damage and destruction through complement activation

A

Phosphatidylinositol-specific phospholipase C

113
Q

under plasmid-control and transmitted through transduction and conjugation

A

β-lactamase

114
Q

provides resistance to β-lactam antibiotics such as penicillin, penicillin derivatives (penams), and cephalosporins.

A

β-lactamase

115
Q

four-atom ring that is common to the molecular structure of some antibiotics

A

β-lactam

116
Q

the β-lactamase breaks the β-lactam ring open through:

A

hydrolysis

117
Q

lyse red blood cells by disrupting their cell membranes

A

hemolysins

118
Q

damage cell membranes of neutrophils and macrophages, causing them to lyse.

A

Leukocidins

119
Q

Hemolysins and Leukocidins are together referred to as:

A

Blood Cell Toxins

120
Q

toxins that help incapacitate the host’s phagocytic line of defense

A

Blood Cell Toxins

121
Q

5 blood cell toxins

A
⍺ (alpha)-Hemolysin
β (beta)-Hemolysin
δ (delta)-Hemolysin
γ (gamma)-Hemolysin
Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL)
122
Q

heterogeneous protein which forms pores on target cell membrane so monovalent cations pass leading to osmotic swelling and cell rupture

A

⍺ (alpha)-Hemolysin

123
Q

potent toxin which lyses RBCs

and damages monocytes, macrophages, lymphocytes, skeletal muscle, heart, and renal tissue

A

⍺ (alpha)-Hemolysin

124
Q

active against thrombocytes (platelets)

A

⍺ (alpha)-Hemolysin

125
Q

contribute to septic thrombotic

events during S. aureus bacteremia.

A

⍺ (alpha)-Hemolysin

126
Q

protein exotoxin that acts as sphingomyelinase degrading

sphingomyelin in the cell membrane

A

β (beta)-Hemolysin

127
Q

toxic for many kinds of cells

A

β (beta)-Hemolysin

128
Q

β (beta)-Hemolysin is also referred to as

A

“hot-cold”

129
Q

its hemolytic properties are enhanced by subsequent exposure of RBCs to low temperatures.

A

β (beta)-Hemolysin

130
Q

encodes β (beta)-Hemolysin

A

lysogenic bacteriophage

131
Q

β-hemolysin is cytotoxic not only to human erythrocytes but as well as to:

A

monocytes

132
Q

Cell death from β-hemolysin result from disruption of host cell’s __

A

plasma membrane fluidity

133
Q

β-hemolysin is said to

be inactive against : 3

A

granulocytes
lymphocytes
fibroblasts.

134
Q

small peptide that acts primarily as a surfactant or a detergent-like molecule

A

δ (delta)-Hemolysin

135
Q

interacts with cell membranes and forms channels resulting in slow leakage of cellular contents.

A

δ (delta)-Hemolysin

136
Q

It may have a role in S. aureus diarrheal diseases.

A

δ (delta)-Hemolysin

137
Q

leukocidin that lyses WBCs and composed of two proteins

A

γ (gamma)-Hemolysin

138
Q

two proteins of γ (gamma)-Hemolysin

A

S and F

139
Q

Affected cells undergo degranulation of the cytoplasm, cell swelling, and lysis.

A

γ (gamma)-Hemolysin

140
Q

leads to massive release of inflammatory mediators which are responsible for necrosis and severe inflammation.

A

γ (gamma)-Hemolysin

141
Q

cells affected by γ (gamma)-Hemolysin undergoes

A

degranulation of the cytoplasm
cell swelling
lysis

142
Q

produced by lysogenized strains

of S. aureus

A

Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL)

143
Q

active against neutrophils and

causes tissue necrosis

A

Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL)

144
Q

also consists of S and F proteins that act on WBC

A

Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL)

145
Q

Three pore-forming blood cell toxins

A

⍺ (alpha)-Hemolysin
γ (gamma)-Hemolysin
Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL)

146
Q

superantigen found in about 20%

of S. aureus isolates.

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1)

147
Q

epidermolytic toxins that cause the intraepithelial splitting of cellular linkages seen in SSSS

A

Exfoliative toxins (or exfoliatins)

148
Q

the dissolution of this part of the skin results in the manifestation of SSSS

A

mucopolysaccharide matrix of the stratum granulosum in the epidermis

149
Q

two distinct proteins of the same

molecular weight

A

Exfoliative toxin A (ET-A)

Exfoliative toxin B (ET-B)

150
Q

Exfoliative toxins that is plasmid-mediated.

A

ET-B

151
Q

Exfoliative toxins produced by lysogenized strains of S. aureus;

A

ET-A

152
Q

heat-stable exotoxins which are responsible for the clinical features of staphylococcal food poisoning.

A

Enterotoxins A-E, G-J, K-R, U, V

153
Q

heat requirement to inactivate staphylococcal enterotoxins

A

100oC for at least 30 minutes

154
Q

Clothes and bedding that may cause reinfection should be dry-cleaned at what temperature

A

70°C or higher

155
Q

used in showering for adults to increase the bactericidal activity of the skin

A

chlorhexidine or hexachlorophene

156
Q

used for persons found to be a source of an outbreak

A

nasal creams(mupirocin, neomycin, and bacitracin)

oral therapy (rifampin, ciprofloxacin)

157
Q

effective in surgical procedures such as hip and cardiac valve
replacements

A

Chemoprophylaxis

158
Q

given during and shortly

after surgery to reduce intraoperative infection and minimize superinfection

A

Methicillin
a cephalosporin
vancomycin

159
Q

The most commonly encountered staphylococcal species

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

160
Q

S. epidermidis characteristics different to S. aureus

A

Coagulase(-)
DNase(-)
Non-mannitol fermenter

161
Q

Comprises 99% of the normal flora of the skin

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

162
Q

Considered opportunistic pathogens, but are substantially less virulent than S. aureus

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

163
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis is associated mainly with

A

nosocomial infections due to contaminated medical devices

164
Q

associated with prosthetic heart valves; also pacemaker wires, implanted defibrillators, and vascular grafts

A

Endocarditis

165
Q

associated with prosthetic joint, or hip implant

A

Arthritis

166
Q

associated with indwelling urinary catheters

A

Urinary tract infection (UTI)

167
Q

associated with IV catheters

A

Bacteremia

168
Q

pathogenesis of Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

adherent slime forming biofilm on prosthetic devices

169
Q

characteristics of S. saprophyticus that are dofferent from S. aureus

A
  • Coagulase(-)
  • DNase(-)
  • Urease (+)
  • Mannitol fermentation (variable)
170
Q

primary site of S. saphrophyticus colonization in humans

A

gastrointestinal tract (primarily the rectum)

171
Q

S. saprophyticus is alao part of the normal flora of :

A
genitourinarinay tract (urethra cervix)
perineum
172
Q

most common cause of community acquired UTI in young sexually active females

A

E. coli

173
Q

second most common cause of community acquired UTI in young sexually active females

A

S. saprophyticus

174
Q

pathogenesis of S. saprophyticus

A

production of adherent slime and urease

175
Q

an enzyme that hydrolyzes urea in urine resulting in the formation of ammonia and ammonium carbonate, making the urine alkaline and favoring bacterial growth

A

urease

176
Q

often resemble and ,therefore, are easily confused with staphylococci.

A

Micrococcus

177
Q

habitat of micrococcus

A

free-living environments such as air, soil, various extreme environments and food

178
Q

extreme environments that serve as habitats for Micrococcus

A

marine sediment
deep sea mud
activated sludge

179
Q

most common foods where S. saprophyticus is present

A

fermented seafood

180
Q

Micrococcus is considered a normal microbiota of the human ___

A

skin
mucosa
oropharynx

181
Q

micrococcus infections likely involve :

A

endogenous strains

182
Q

not generally identified to species level in clinical laboratories because they are rarely clinically significant

A

micrococci

183
Q

gram staining of micrococci

A

gram positive

184
Q

morphology of micrococci

A

tetrads

185
Q

size of micrococci

A

0.5 -3.5 µm

186
Q

micrococci that produces yellow colonies which may be mistaken for S. aureus

A

M. luteus

187
Q

micrococci that produce reddish colonies

A

M. roseus