Module 4 (Chapter 18/21) Flashcards

1
Q

CNS drug effects may differ long term versus short term because of what?

A

Adaptive changes that occur in response to prolonged drug exposure

beneficial responses may be delayed b/c they result from adaptive changes and not from direct effects of drugs on synaptic function; they aren’t seen until CNS has had time to modify in response to prolonged drug exposure.

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2
Q

what is the advantage and disadvantage of the blood brain barrier?

A

Advantage–it protects the brain from injury by toxic substance.

disadvantage–can be a significant obstacle for entry of therapeutic agents

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3
Q

What is this:

a dose increase is needed because a decreased response may occur with prolonged use.

A

tolerance

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4
Q

what is this:
this involves cravings for drug effects and occurs when the drug becomes necessary for the brain to function “normally” meaning the patient should be weaned from the drug slowly to prevent an abstinence syndrome.

A

physical dependence

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5
Q

seizures are initiated by what?

A

seizures are initiated by a synchronous, high-frequency discharge from a group of hypoexcitable neurons called a focus

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6
Q

what are the traditional seizure medications?
7 meds

think “CVEF PPP”

A
Carbamazepine 
Valproic acid
Fosphenytoin 
Ethosuximide 
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital
Primidone
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7
Q

What traditional anti-seizure drug treats all types of seizures (partial, complex partial. secondary generalized, tonic clonic (primary generalized),absence, and myoclonic ?

A

Valproic Acid

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8
Q

What newer anti-seizure drug treats all types of seizures?

(simple partial, complex partial, secondary generalized, tonic-clonic, absence, and myoclonic

A

Lamotrigine

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9
Q

what are 3 groups of partial seizures?

A

simple partial, complex partial, and partial seizures that evolve into secondarily generalized seizures

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10
Q

primary generalized seizures are what type?

A

tonic-clonic seizures

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11
Q

which partial seizure does not have any LOC?

A

simple partial seizure

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12
Q

Secondarily generalized seizures are in what category of seizure type and what happens?

A

secondary seizures start off as simple or complex but evolve into a generalized tonic-clonic seizure

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13
Q

what type of seizure can a person experience a hundred times a day?

A

absence seizures or Petit Mal seizures

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14
Q

Are children (age 6 months to 5 years) who experience febrile seizures at risk for developing epilepsy later in life?

A

NO

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15
Q

what are the nondrug therapy options for treatment for treating epilepsy?

A

neurosurgery, Vagus nerve stimulation, and ketogenic diet

neurosurgery has the best outcomes; Vagus used most

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16
Q

list 3 treatment options for drug selection in epliepsy?

A

initial treatment should just be ONE seizure drug

2nd option: new drug if 1st is ineffective

3rd option: new drug if 2nd is ineffective or do a combination of 2 anti-seizure drugs

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17
Q

True or false:

No drug should be considered ineffective until it has been tested in sufficiently high dosages and for a reasonable time.

A

True

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18
Q

withdrawal of anti-seizure drugs should be done how?

A

anti-seizure drugs should be slowly withdrawn for over a period of 6 weeks to several months.

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19
Q

If a patient is taking 2 anti-seizure drugs and they are to be d/c, what method should this be done in?

A

If a patient is taking 2 seizure drugs, they should be withdrawn sequentially but not simultaneously

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20
Q

which 2 drugs are likely to increase suicidality?

A

Topiramate and Lamotrigine

remember generally all anti-seizure drugs can increase thoughts of SI and behavior
pts who have depression are more at risk

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21
Q

which 8 anti-seizure medications decreases the effectiveness of birth control?

“Can everyone love Orpah pretty please real talk”

A

Carbamazepine, Eslicarbazepine, Lamotrigine, Oxcarbazepine, Phenytoin, Phenobarbital, Rufinamide, and Topiramate

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22
Q

what meds cause maternal and fetal bleeding risk?

A

phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, and primidone

b/c it decreases synthesis of vitamin K

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23
Q

What is the difference between traditional anti-seizure drugs and newer anti-seizure drugs?

A

Traditional: well established efficacy, extensive research/experience, cost less, cause troublesome side effects and extensive drug interaction owing to induction of drug metabolizing enzymes.

Newer: good but less established, less research/experience, better tolerated, little or no drug interaction, limited to induction of drug metabolizing enzymes, more expensive.

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24
Q

Phenytoin treats what type of seizures?

A

Partial (simple partial, complex partial, and secondarily generalized) and primary generalized seizures

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25
Q

in regards to pharmacokinetics for phenytoin, what monitoring will be needed?

A

Due to the liver’s limited capacity to metabolize, serum drug levels and troughs are used

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26
Q

in regards to dosing, what is important to know for phenytoin?

A

at low doses, the half life is short (8hrs) and at high doses the half life is prolonged (up to 60 hrs.)

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27
Q

what effect does phenytoin have on the CNS?

A

nystagmus, diplopia, cognitive impairment, sedation

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28
Q

what are 3 unique side effects of phenytoin?

A

Gingival hyperplasia (excessive growth of gum tissue)

morbilliform (measle-like rash) which can progress to SJS or TEN,

drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)

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29
Q

what does DRESS stand for?

A

Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms

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30
Q

People of what decent should not be given phenytoin because of what? and why?

A

Asian decent–b/c of a genetic association with the HLA (human leukocyte antigen)

this can cause a severe reaction in association with a morbilliform rash and SJS/TEN

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31
Q

what cardiovascular side effects does phenytoin have?

A

hypotension and cardiac dysrhythmias

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32
Q

what anti-seizure drug can cause hirsutism and vitamin D deficiency that can lead to rickets and osteomalacia?

A

Phenytoin

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33
Q

phenytoin can decrease the effects of which 3 drugs?

A

oral contraceptive, warfarin, glucocorticoids

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34
Q

what 4 drugs increase plasma levels of phenytoin?

A

diazepam, isoniazid, cimetidine, acute alcohol consumption

can cause phenytoin toxicity

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35
Q

what drugs decrease plasma levels?

A

carbamazepine, phenobarbital, and alcohol

breakthrough seizures can result

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36
Q

what interaction does enteral tube feedings have with phenytoin?

A

enteral tube feeding decrease phenytoin levels

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37
Q

what is the blackbox warning for phenytoin?

A

when administering IV at rate that exceeds 50mg/min , it can cause severe hypotension and cardiac dysrhythmias–cardiac monitoring needed

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38
Q

what is Dilantin?

A

phenytoin

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39
Q

what is cerebyx?

A

Fosphenytoin

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40
Q

what is Fosphenytoin a prodrug for?

A

Phenytoin

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41
Q

Fosphenytoin can treat what types of seizures?

A

partial and primary generalized seizures

partial–simple partial, complex partial, secondarily generalized partial

tonic-clonic

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42
Q

what adverse effect can occur during an infusion with Fosphenytoin?

A

temporary paresthesias and itching (in the groin)

this will resolve after infusion is completed

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43
Q

what is Carbatrol, Tegretol, Epitol, and Equetro’s generic name?

A

Carbamazepine

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44
Q

what type of seizures does carbamazepine treat?

A

partial (simple partial/complex partial) and tonic-clonic

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45
Q

what is the drug of choice for partial seizures?

A

carbamazepine

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46
Q

To reduce the CNS side effects of carbamazepine what should you educate the patient to do?

A

take it at nighttime or at bedtime to reduce adverse CNS effects

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47
Q

what are 4 unique side effects of carbamazepine?

A

It can induced bone marrow suppression, cause fatal aplastic anemia, cause SJS/TEN/DRESS, and hyponatremia

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48
Q

when can DRESS occur when taking carbamazepine?

A

it can occur up to 2-6 weeks after initiation of treatment

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49
Q

what effect does carbamazepine have on ADH?

A

it can cause increase secretion which promotes water retention

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50
Q

what are the 2 black box warning for carbamazepine?

A

it can cause serious skin reactions (SJS/TEN/Dress) and cause fatal aplastic anemia

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51
Q

For Asian patients that are about to take carbamazepine, what should they have done?

A

they should have genetic testing for the HLA-B1502gene (HLA)

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52
Q

carbamazepine can cause inactivation of which 2 drugs?

A

oral contraceptives and warfarin

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53
Q

phenytoin and phenobarbital have what effect on carbamazepine?

A

it induces hepatic drug metabolism of carbamazepine

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54
Q

what effect does grapefruit juice have on carbamazepine?

A

it can increase peak and trough levels of carbamazepine

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55
Q

what drug is considered first line for all partial and generalized seizures?

A

valproic acid

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56
Q

what is the major difference that valproic acid has compared to the other traditional anti-seizure drugs?

A

it causes minimal sedation and cognitive impairment

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57
Q

what are the most common effects for valproic acid?

A

GI effects: n/v, indigestion

enteric formulation can help improve this SE or minimized if given with food

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58
Q

what are the 2 major adverse events that can occur with valproic acid that make it black box warnings?

A

life threatening pancreatitis and hepatic/liver failure

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59
Q

in what trimester is valproic acid highly teratogenic?

A

1st trimester

can cause atrial septal defect, cleft palate, cognitive impairment

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60
Q

what is the rule for children and valproic acid?

A

don’t use any other drugs in children younger than 2 years old

61
Q

what drug interaction does valproic acid have with phenobarbital?

A

valproic acid decreases the rate at which phenobarbital is metabolized–dosage in phenobarbital may need to be reduced

62
Q

Combining topiramate with valproic acid cause a risk for what?

A

Hyperammonemia

think of hepatic encephalopathy s/s

63
Q

what interaction does valproic acid have with carbapenem antibiotics?

A

it can reduce plasma levels of valproic acid and breakthrough seizures can occur

increase dosage may be needed or avoid those abx

64
Q

what is the generic name for zarontin?

A

ethosuximide

65
Q

what is the therapeutic use for ethosuximide?

A

it is ONLY indicated for absence seizure and is the drug of choice

66
Q

what is special about ethosuximide?

A

only traditional drug used for absence seizures
has a long half life
lacks significant adverse effects

67
Q

what are the adverse effects of ethosuximide?

A

dizziness, drowsiness, lethargy but diminish with continued use

68
Q

phenobarbital can treat which type of seizures?

A

partial (simple and complex) and tonic-clonic seizures

69
Q

what is important to know about phenobarbital?

A

can cause physical dependence
has a long half life
can cause respiratory depression in overdose

70
Q

phenobarbital can interfere with the metabolism of what vitamins?

A

vitamin D which can cause rickets and bone marrow suppression

vitamin K which can lead to bleeding

71
Q

phenobarbital can cause what side effects?

A

nystagmus, ataxia if taken excessively, in OD it can respiratory depression and death.

72
Q

what drug interactions does phenobarbital have ?

A

it decreases effectiveness with oral contraceptives and warfarin

73
Q

what drug interaction does phenobarbital have with valproic acid?

A

valproic acid increases levels by competing with phenobarbital in which the doses would have to be reduced

74
Q

what paradoxical reaction can occur in the use of phenobarbital in children and adults?

A

children and adults can become irritable and hyperactive

can induce confusion and cognitive deficits

75
Q

what is the generic drug name for Mysoline?

A

primidone

76
Q

what chemical structure is primidone similar to?

A

phenobarbital

77
Q

what are the uses of primidone and how is it used to treat seizures ?

A

It can help treat partial (simple/complex) and primary generalized (tonic-clonic)

usually taken with another anti-seizure drug (phenytoin and carbamazepine)

78
Q

what effects does primidone have?

A

similar to phenobarbital

can cause ataxia, sedation, dizziness
can cause paradoxical reaction in older people and children

79
Q

what is the one seizure med children can’t take?

A

Eslicarbazepine

80
Q

what are the 2 preferred anti-seizure drugs for breastfeeding mothers? b/c they are protein bound

A

valproic acid and phenytoin

81
Q

what anti-seizure meds are on the beers list?

A

carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, and phenobarbital

inappropriate for 65 years and older

Phenobarbital is a high risk medication for 56 years and older

82
Q

which med of the newer anti-seizure drugs induce drug metabolizing enzymes?

A

Oxcarbazepine

83
Q

what newer anti-seizure drugs are approved for monotherapy? 7 drugs

A

Eslicarbazepine, Felbamate, Lacosamide, Lamotrigine, Oxcarbazepine, topiramate, and vigabatrin

84
Q

what is the generic drug name for Oxtellar and Trileptal?

A

Oxcarbazepine

85
Q

what is Oxcarbazepine a derivative of or similar to?

A

Carbamazepine

86
Q

is oxcarbazepine approved for monotherapy or adjunctive therapy?

A

its approved for both types of therapies

87
Q

how old is monotherapy approved for oxcarbazepine ?

A

approved for children above ages 4 and older

88
Q

how old is adjunctive therapy approved for oxcarbazepine?

A

it is approved in children above 2 years of age

89
Q

what drug’s side effects does oxcarbazepine have a cross sensitivity with ?

A

carbamazepine, they have very similar side effects

90
Q

what is the drug interaction between oxcarbazepine and phenytoin?

A

oxcarbazepine increases phenytoin’s drug levels while

phenytoin lowers oxcarbazepine’s drug levels

91
Q

what drugs raise levels of oxcarbazepine?

A

phenytoin, Perampanel, and Eslicarbazepine

92
Q

what drugs lowers levels of oxcarbazepine?

A

phenytoin, valproic acid, phenobarbital

93
Q

what is the generic name for lamictal?

A

Lamotrigine

94
Q

what is lamotrigine approved for ?

A

adjunctive therapy of partial seizures, tonic clonic (primary generalized) seizures, and Lennox-Gastaut syndrome in adults/children over 2 years.

approved for monotherapy of partial seizures in pts at least 16 years of age who are converting from another seizure med

also can be used in absence seizures

95
Q

what newer anti-seizure drug is used for all types of seizures?

A

lamotrigine

96
Q

what is an adverse effect for lamotrigine that can be worse if taken with valproic acid concurrently?

A

Stevens Johnson syndrome, TEN, Dress

97
Q

what is the trade name for neurotonin?

A

Gabapentin

98
Q

what is gabapentin approved for in relation to seizures?

A

adjunctive therapy of partial seizures (simple partial, complex partial, with or w/out secondary generalization)

99
Q

how does food affect the absorption of gabapentin?

A

it does not get affected by absorption

100
Q

what are the side effects of gabapentin?

A

usually well tolerated; common SE: somnolence, dizziness, ataxia, fatigue, nystagmus, and peripheral edema

101
Q

what are the drug interactions with gabapentin?

A

there is a lack of significant drug interactions; gabapentin is suited well for combined use with other anti-seizure drugs.

102
Q

what is the generic name from Lyrica?

A

pregabalin

103
Q

what are the indications for pregabalin?

A

4 approved uses: neuropathic pain associated with diabetic neuropathy post-herpetic neuralgia, adjunctive therapy for partial seizures, and fibromyalgia

104
Q

Pregabalin has the adverse effect of blurred vision, what education should the patient know?

A

blurred vision may develop early in therapy but resolves with continued drug use

also can cause angioedema and muscle injury

105
Q

in regards to fertility what effect does pregabalin have?

A

pregabalin decreases sperm counts and motility, it has male mediated teratogenicity. can cause fetal abnormalities

106
Q

what abuse potential does pregabalin have?

A

it can cause euphoria

107
Q

how slowly should you discontinue pregabalin?

A

should be discontinued slowly over 1 week

108
Q

what interactions does pregabalin have?

A

its not an inhibitor or inducer; have no effect on oral contraceptives

109
Q

what is the brand name for keppra?

A

Levetiracetam

110
Q

what is levetiracetam approved for ?

A

approved for adjunctive therapy for:

myoclonic seizures in adults/adolescents older than 12 years

partial seizures in children 4 years and older

primary generalized (tonic clonic) in children/adults 6 years and older

111
Q

what are the major side effects of Keppra (levetiracetam) ?

A

neuropsychiatric symptoms: agitation, anxiety, depression, psychosis, and asthenia

112
Q

what is the generic name for Topamax?

A

Topiramate

113
Q

what are the approved uses for topiramate?

A

approved for adjunctive therapy:

in pts 2 years and older with partial seizures, generalized (tonic-clonic), and seizures associated with Lennox-gastaut syndrome

approved for monotherapy: in pts 10 years and older with partial seizures or primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures

114
Q

what are some adverse effects with topiramate?

A

it can cause blurred vision, kidney stones, metabolic acidosis, hypohidrosis (lack of sweating)

115
Q

what 2 seizure drugs decrease topiramate?

A

phenytoin and carbamazepine

topiramate can increase levels of topiramate

116
Q

when topiramate is taken with valproic acid what is the risk?

A

risk for Hyperammonemia

117
Q

what is Gabitril’s generic name?

A

Tiagabine

118
Q

what is tiagabine approved for?

A

adjunctive therapy of partial seizures in pts at least 12 years old

119
Q

what 3 traditional anti-seizure drugs decrease Tiagabine’s levels?

A

phenytoin, carbamazepine, and phenobarbital

120
Q

what is the generic name for zonegran?

A

Zonisamide

121
Q

what is Zonisamide approved for?

A

approved for only adjunctive therapy of partial seizures in Adults

122
Q

what adverse effects can Zonisamide have? list 5

A

can cause severe psychiatric effects and trigger hypersentivitiy reactions (SJS, TEN, fulminant hepatic necrosis), kidney stones/nephrolithiasis, metabolic acidosis, and hypohidrosis

123
Q

ST. John’s wart, phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, have what effect on zonisamide?

A

those drugs are induces of CYP3A4 and can accelerate the metabolism of Zonisamide

124
Q

Grapefruit juice, azole antifungal agents (Ketoconazole) and protease inhibitors have what effect on Zonisamide ?

A

it slows the metabolism of Zonisamide and prolongs intensity of its effects

125
Q

What is the generic name for felbatol?

A

Felbamate

126
Q

what is felbamate approved for?

A

approved for both adjunctive and monotherapy in adults with partial seizures

also approved as adjunctive therapy for children with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

127
Q

What is the drug interaction between felbamate and valproic acid?

A

valproic acid increases levels of felbamate

128
Q

what is the drug interaction between felbamate and phenytoin or carbazmazepine?

A

levels of felbamate are reduced

129
Q

What is the major black box warning for felbamate?

list 2

A

can cause aplastic anemia and liver failure

130
Q

what is vimpat’s generic name?

A

Lacosamide

131
Q

what is the therapeutic use of lacosamide?

A

it is indicated for add-on therapy of partial onset seizures in patient 17 years and older
also used for monotherapy

132
Q

what are the adverse effects of lacosamide?

A

it can prolong the PR interval

133
Q

what is a major caution to consider when prescribing patients lacosamide?

A

Lacosamide should be used in caution in patients taking other drugs that prolong PR interval

beta blockers
calcium channel blockers

134
Q

what drug interaction can Lacosamide have with carbamazepine, Fosphenytoin, phenytoin, and phenobarbital?

A

it can decrease serum concentration of Lacosamide

135
Q

what is important to know about Rufinamide?

A

it is approved for add-on therapy for seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

can reduce QT interval therefore it should not be given with digoxin

reduces BC effectivness

136
Q

what is Vigabatrin (Sabril) approved for? list 2

A

its approved for add-on therapy of complex partial seizures in adults’

monotherapy of infantile spasm in children ages 6 months to 2 years

137
Q

what is a major side effect of vigabatrin (Sabril)? and what should occur if that happens?

A

it can cause irreversible damage to the retina which narrows the vision field (results in tunnel vision)

if vision loss is detected, discontinue the medication.

138
Q

IN patients taking vigabatrin there is an increased risk for retinal damage if this drug is taken with what other drugs? list 3 types of meds/class

A

hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil), glucocorticoids, tricyclic antidepressants

139
Q

what is the black box warning of Vigabatrin?

A

it can cause permanent loss of peripheral vision

vision should be tested at baseline, then at 4 weeks then every 3 months as therapy continues

140
Q

what is important to know about Ezogabine?

A

its for adjunctive therapy of partial onset seizures
potential for abuse
can cause urinary retention
can lead to vision loss
long term use can cause blue, gray-blue discoloration
can cause urine to be red-orange in color–this is harmless and unrelated to urinary retention

141
Q

What is the blackbox warning for Ezogabine?

A

it can cause retinal abnormalities

142
Q

what is important to know about Eslicarbazepine (Aptiom)?

A

it is approved for management of partial seizures and can be used as either monotherapy or adjunctive therapy

143
Q

what drugs can Eslicarbazepine reduce? list 3

A

it can lower the levels of statins, hormonal/contraceptives, and warfarin

144
Q

what is important to know about Perampanel (Fycompa)?

A

it is approved for adjunctive therapy for both tonic-clonic seizures and partial seizures

145
Q

who can not use Perampanel (Fycompa)?

A

children under 12 years of age

146
Q

what is the black box warning for Perampanel (Fycompa)?

A

it is associated with serious psychiatric reactions (anger, aggression, hostility, violence, and even homicidal ideation)

147
Q

what is important to know about Brivaracetam?

A

approved for management of partial onset of seizures in patients aged 4 years and older
can be used as monotherapy or adjunctive therapy
shares the same general risk as older anti-seizure meds

148
Q

describe complex partial seizures

A

can last 45 seconds-90 seconds
impaired consciousness with a period of motionless with a fixed gaze
lip smacking and hand wringing