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Cassandra's Pharmacology > Module 3 Antibiotics > Flashcards

Module 3 Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

Describe selective toxicity

A

It is the ability to enjoy target so organism without injuring other cells

Indicates ability of an antibiotic to kill or suppress microbial pathogens without causing injury to the host

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2
Q

What is the difference between bacteria cell wall and mammalian cell walls?

A

Bacterial cell walls are rigid and thick. (If It were not for the cell wall bacteria would absorb water and Burst)

Mammalian cells have no cell wall so drugs don’t affect this

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3
Q

Which drug class selectively inhibits an enzyme needed to make folic acid?

Why does in affect bacteria but not us?

A

Sulfonamides Inhibit an enzyme needed to make folic acid

Extra info: Bacteria my synthesize folic acid themselves they can’t take it from dietary sources like us

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4
Q

What 2 drug classes inhibit bacteria cell wall synthesis?

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins

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5
Q

Which Drug class causes LETHAL inhibition of bacterial proteins synthesis?

A

Aminoglycosides (gentamicin)

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6
Q

Which drug class causes NON-LETHAL inhibition of protein synthesis?

How do they differ from lethal inhibition?

A

Tetracyclines

They differ from aminoglycosides because they only slow microbial growth

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7
Q

Which three drugs inhibit bacterial synthesis of DNA and RNA?

A

Rifampin, metronidazole(flagyl) , and fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin)

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8
Q

What are anti-metabolites?

A

Drugs that disrupts specific bio chemical reactions

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides

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9
Q

What is the difference between bactericidal drugs and bacteriostatic drugs?

A

Bacteriocidal drugs are lethal and kill bacteria directly

Bacteria static drugs slow bacterial growth but elimination of bacteria is needed to be done by the host

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10
Q

What are four basic mechanisms for microbial drug-resistance?

A

They can decrease the concentration of a drug at its site of action

Alter the structure of drug target molecules

Produce a drug antagonist

Cause drug inactivation

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11
Q

What is a super infection?

A

An infection that appears during the course of treatment for a primary infection

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12
Q

What are three principal factors that must be considered when choosing or selecting an antibiotic?

A

Identify the infecting organism, drug sensitivity to the infecting orgasm, and host factors

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13
Q

What is empiric therapy in regards to abx therapy?

A

Never send a patient home with an infection because you’re waiting on lab results.

Based on knowledge and assessment give a broad-spectrum agent as initial treatment and wait for culture and sensitivity results and if you need to contact the patient, you can switch to a more selective antibiotic for the organism

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14
Q

drug levels should be how many times the minimal inhibitory concentration ?

A

4-8 times the MiC are often desirable

Antibiotics must be present at the site of infection, dosages should be adjusted to produce drug concentrations that are equal to or greater than the minimal inhibitory concentration

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15
Q

Antibiotic dosage too high can increase the risk for what?

A

Superinfection

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16
Q

What class of abx medication should not be given to infants? And why?

A

Infants should not receive sulfonamides because it can cause Kernicterus (neuro disorder cause by bilirubin displacement)

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17
Q

Which class of antibiotics causes staining to teeth or discoloration?

A

Tetracyclines

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18
Q

Gentamicin use in pregnancy can cause what?

A

It can cause irreversible hearing loss in the infant

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19
Q

Women who are taking sulfonamides while breast-feeding should know that it can cause what in infants?

A

Kernicterus Because it can enter the breast milk

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20
Q

In order for penicillins to produce antibacterial affects they must bind to what?

A

Penicillin binding proteins

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21
Q

Tell me basic facts about penicillin

A 
They are bactericidal 
They Weaken the cell wall 
Treat mainly gram-positive bacteria
Known as beta-lactam antibiotics 
In older adults decrease dose may be needed due to renal dysfunction

Safe to use in infants
Safe for pregnancy
Amoxicillin is safe to use while breast-feeding

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22
Q

Clavunolic acid Is used with amoxicillin because?

A

It helps inhibit the beta-lactamase enzyme from destroying the beta-lactam ring of the anabiotic

This is needed because of bacterial resistance

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23
Q

Which salt carriers for penicillin G are the fastest for absorption?

A

Potassium and sodium

Procaine and benzathine are the slowest

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24
Q

Penicillins have a cross sensitivity to what other class of medication?

A

Cephalosporins

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25
Q

Penicillin G, penicillin V, oxacillin, dicloxacillin, Nafcillin

Are these narrow or broad-spectrum penicillin?

A

Narrow spectrum

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26
Q

Broad-spectrum penicillin’s such as ampicillin and amoxicillin Have a greater ability to treat what strain of grams?

A

Gram negative bacilli and gram-positive

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27
Q

Which broad-spectrum anabiotic is better tolerated?

Ampicillin or amoxicillin?

A

Amoxicillin

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28
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is what strain of bacteria?

A

Gram-positive bacteria

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29
Q

MRSA or staphylococcus aureus Has developed resistance against which two classes of antibiotics?

A

Penicillin and most cephalosporins

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30
Q

What is the treatment for healthcare associated MRSA?

A

Vancomycin IV or linezoid (zyvox)

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31
Q

Community associated MRSA Is treated by what anabiotic?

A

Bactrim or doxycycline

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32
Q

To eradicate MRSA in the nares , to decolonize What is the treatment?

A

Intranasal Mupirocin

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33
Q

What other class like penicillins are beta-lactam antibiotics and bactericidal?

A

Cephalosporins

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34
Q

What is the mechanism of action for cephalosporins?

A

Agents fine to penicillin binding proteins and disrupts cell wall synthesis

And

Activate autolysins (enzyme that cleave bonds in cell wall)

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35
Q

Which generation of cephalosporins is destroyed by beta lactamases?

A

First generation

Third and fourth generations are highly resistant

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36
Q

What is the rule for cephalosporins?

A

As you increase in generations, there is a higher activity of Gram negative bacteria and higher ability of distribution to reach CSF fluid

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37
Q

Ceftriaxone is largely eliminated by how?

A

The liver

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38
Q

Cross sensitivity with penicillins is less and which generations of cephalosporins?

A

Fourth and fifth generation of cephalosporins

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39
Q

What is common after several days of treatment with cephalosporins?

A

A maculopapular rash

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40
Q

What interaction do cephalosporins have with alcohol?

A

Cephalosporins block metabolism of alcohol thereby increasing acetaldehyde That can cause tachycardia flashing and nausea ( disulfiram reaction)

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41
Q

Cefotetan, cefazolin, and ceftriaxone Can cause what?

A

They can promote bleeding

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42
Q

What is one major adverse effect that providers should instruct patients to report about Cephalosporins?

A

Instruct patient reports increased in frequency because all cephalosporins can promote C. Diff infection

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43
Q

Describe Vancomycin’s mechanism of action

A

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

Bactericidal

Does not interact with penicillin binding proteins

Does not contain a beta-lactam ring

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44
Q

Clostridium Difícil is what type of bacteria?

A

Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria

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45
Q

What is a major adverse effects with Vancomycin?

A

Renal toxicity

To minimize the restaurant serum levels should be no greater than needed

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46
Q

What is the first line of choice for C.diff infection?

What is the second?

A

First line therapy is Vancomycin

Second line therapy is Flagyl or Metronidazole

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47
Q

What defines a C.Diff infection?

A

Passage of three or more unformed stools in the past 24 hours and a positive stool test for C.diff

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48
Q

Which anabiotic’s are likely to cause a C.diff infection??

4 types of classes

A

Clindamycin

Second generation cephalosporins

Third generation cephalosporins

Fluoroquinolones

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49
Q

Cefazolin, cephalexin (keflex), and cefadroxil

Are what generation of cephalosporins?

What do they usually treat?

A

First generation cephalosporins,

treat gram positive (staph and strep),

good for skin infections

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50
Q

Cefaclor, cefotetan, cefoxitin, cefprozil, cefutoxime, are apart of what Generation of cephalosporins?

What bugs do they treat?

A

Second generation cephalosporins

They treat Gram-negative and gram-positive organisms ( h.influenzae, klebsiella, pneumococci, and staphylococci)

Good for Otitis, sinusitis, and respiratory infections

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51
Q

Cefdinir, cefditoren, cefixime, cefotaxime, cefpodoxime, ceftazidime, ceftibuten, ceftriaxone (rocephin)

What generation of cephalosporins?

What do they treat?

A

Third generation cephalosporins

Treat Gram negative organisms
(Pseudomonas, neiserria gonorrhea, klebseilla, Serratia)

Preferred for use in meningitis

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52
Q

What is important to know about cephalosporins absorption in general?

A

Poor absorption in the G.I. tract

Many are usually given IM or IV

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53
Q

What type of spectrum of antibiotics or tetracyclines and are they bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

What is their mechanism of action?

A

Tetracyclines are broad-spectrum antibiotics treats gram negative and positive

They are bacteriostatic

The inhibit protein synthesis

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54
Q

Tetracycline antibiotics end in what?

A

Cycline

Main ones Tetracycline, doxycycline, and minocycline

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55
Q

What are important facts you need to know about tetracycline?

A

It doesn’t penetrate the cerebral spinal fluid or cross the blood brain barrier

It can stain teeth yellow or brown

It does cross the placenta,

should not be used in kids younger than eight, can cause teratogenic effects in the fetus.

Gastrointestinal irritation is common.

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56
Q

What superinfection needs to be of a concern for tetracyclines?

A

C.diff

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57
Q

What food interactions do you tetracyclines Have?

A

Tetracycline should not be taken with milk products,calcium supplements, iron supplements, laxatives and most anti-acids because it will decrease absorption.

(Should give one hour before two hours after ingestion)

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58
Q

What are the drug interactions with tetracyclines?

A

Tetracyclines can increase Digoxin and warfarin levels

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59
Q

Patient education and provider knowledge about tetracyclines with sun and kidney disease

A

Tetracycline increases sensitivity to the skin so avoid prolonged sun exposure

Should avoid and patients with kidney disease

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60
Q

Macrolides or what type of spectrum of anabiotic’s and Are they bactericidal or bacterial static?

what do they do?

A

Macrolides or broad-spectrum anabiotic’s that usually cover gram-positive strains

They inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

They are bacteriostatic

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61
Q

Tetracyclines

Do they pass the CSF or the blood brain barrier?

Do they cross the placenta?

A

Tetracyclines do not pass the CSF or the blood brain barrier

They do cross the placenta And can enter fetal circulation

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62
Q

Some macrolides End in what?

A

“Mycin”

Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin

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63
Q

Adverse effects of macrolides include what?

A

They can cause gastrointestinal effects such as nausea vomiting diarrhea That can be reduced if given with meals.

Can also prolonged QT when taken with CYP3 enzyme inhibitors

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64
Q

Clindamycin is what type of spectrum anabiotic?

Is it bactericidal or bacteriastatic?

What is their mechanism of action?

A

Clindamycin is a broad-spectrum gram-positive and gram-negative antibiotic

It is mostly bacteriostatic

It inhibits protein synthesis

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65
Q

What is clindamycin a drug of choice for?

A

Severe group strep A And gangrene (C.perfringes)

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66
Q

What is the most severe adverse effect of clindamycin?

A

It can cause C.diff super infection

Have the patient notify the provider if they have five watery stools a day

This can occur in the first week of therapy or up to 4 to 6 weeks after

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67
Q

What antibiotic should be used if patients are allergic to penicillin and have a cross sensitivity to Cephalosporins?

A

Macrolides such as azithromycin erythromycin

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68
Q

What do you floroquinolones mainly cover in regards to a gram strain?

What is their mechanism of action?

Are they bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

Fluoroquinolones primarily cover Gram- negative strains but do cover some positive strains

They inhibit bacterial DNA replication

They are bactericidal

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69
Q

All floroquinolones have what major adverse effect?

A

They can cause tendinitis and tendon rupture

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70
Q

What is the preferred drag for treating anthrax also called bacillus anthracis?

A

Ciprofloxacin

Which is a fluoroquinolones

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71
Q

In the pediatric population which drug class can be use for treatment of complicated UTIs and kidney infections caused by E. coli?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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72
Q

What significant adverse effects

Do fluoroquinolones have? (4)

A

Older adults can have significant risk for confusion psychosis and visual disturbances.

It can cause tendinitis or tendon rupture

Patient should be aware of phototoxicity

should not be given and patience with myasthenia gravis because it can exacerbate muscle weakness

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73
Q

When should floroquinolones be discontinued?

A

At the first sign of a phototoxic reaction such as a burning sensation redness or rash.

Patient should stop medication at The first sign of tendon pain, swelling,or inflammation in regards to possible tendon rupture.

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74
Q

Any aluminum, magnesium containing acids for iron or zinc salts, sucralfate should be taken how long before or after taking ciprofloxacin (Fluoroquinolone)?

A

should be taken at least 6 hrs prior or 2 hrs after cipro.

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75
Q

Which two floroquinolones are approved for children?

A

Ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin

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76
Q

What ending do fluoroquinolones have?

A

“Oxacin”

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77
Q

Ciprofloxacin can cause toxicity and what drugs?

A

Theophylline and warfarin

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78
Q

Flagyl or Metronidazole is Primarily effective against what type of Gram strain Bacteria and is it anaerobic or aerobic?

A

Flagyl is primarily lethal to anaerobic organisms and mostly Gram negative

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79
Q

Is Flagyl or metronidazole bactericidal or Bacteriostatic?

What infections do they treat?

A

They are bactericidal

They treat protozoal infections

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80
Q

What is a black box warning for Metronidazole?

A

It is associated with increased carcinogenic risk in mice. Unnecessary use should be avoided

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81
Q

Daptomycin also called Cubicin Is active against what type of strain of bacteria?

Is it Bactericidal or Bacteriostatic?

A

It is active it only against gram-positive anaerobic and aerobic bacteria

It is bactericidal

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82
Q

What is one notable side effect of daptomycin?

A

Muscle injury or myopathy

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83
Q

What are the approved uses for daptomycin?

A

A country bloodstream infection caused by staphylococcus aureus and complicated skin infections

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84
Q

What drug interaction should be avoided in these patients on daptomycin?

A

Simvastatin or cholesterol lowering medication because it can cause myopathy

Stop taking these meds when using daptomycin

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85
Q

What are Sulfonamides mechanism of action?

Are they bacteriostatic or bactericidal ?

What type of Bacterial strain do they cover?

A

Sulfonamides are Bacteriostatic drugs

They are active against broad-spectrum gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli

Sulfonamides inhibit a derivative of folate needed for cell synthesis

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86
Q

What is the primary causative agent in urinary tract infections?

A

E. coli

87
Q

Do sulfonamides cross the placenta?

A

Yes they are not indicated or should be used in pregnancy

88
Q

Sulfonamides should be discontinued if what happens?

A

A skin rash develops or is observed because it could be an indicator of Steven Johnson syndrome

89
Q

What are the 4 major adverse effects of sulfonamides?

A

Hyper sensitivity with phototoxicity can occur

Can cause hemolytic anemia—If patient report fever pallor or jaundice

Kernicterus in newborns

Can Have renal damage Because of crystalline form if Not adequately hydrated

90
Q

Sulfasalazine is used to treat what?

A

Ulcerative colitis

91
Q

Sulfonamides should not be given to infants younger than how old?

A

Two months

92
Q

Sulfonamides can intensify which three meds?

A

Warfarin, phenytoin, and sulfonylura hypoglycemics

93
Q

Sulfacetamide is used for what?

A

Seborrheic dermatitis, acne vulgaris, and rosacea

94
Q

Silver sulfadiazine and mafenide Are used to suppress back to your colonization and patience with second and third-degree burns but should not be used on what?

A

The face because it can cause blue, green or gray discoloration

95
Q

Trimethoprim has what mechanism of action?

A

It’s a process bacteria synthesis of DNA and RNA

96
Q

Is trimethoprim bactericidal and Bacteriostatic?

A

Depending on the side of infection it can be either

97
Q

Trimethoprim treats which strain of bacteria?

A

Enteric Gram negative bacilli

98
Q

What are Trimethoprim’s major adverse reaction?

A

Most common is itching and rash

Megaloblastic anemia can occur in patient’s you already have a folate deficiency such as alcoholics, pregnant woman and nursing home patients

Hyperkalemia is common because it reduces renal excretion of potassium

99
Q

Patients who are taking an ARB, ACEI, aldosterone antagonist while on trimethoprim Should be monitored for what adverse reaction?

A

Hyperkalemia

100
Q

Does trimethoprim cross the placenta and is it safe to use while breast-feeding?

A

Because it crosses the center of what it’s routine use

it is excreted in milk which can interfere with folic acid utilization by the nursing infant

101
Q

What is Bactrim made up of?

TMP/SMZ

What do these two drugs do together?

A

It is made up of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

They potential each other’s affects

102
Q

What is the microbial spectrum for trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactria)?

A

It is active against a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

103
Q

Adverse effects of Bactrim or a combination of sulfonamides adverse reactions and trimethoprim adverse reaction, name a few

A

Hypersensitivity reaction such a Steven Johnson syndrome, blood dyscrasia such as hemolytic anemia, Kernicterus in neonates, Hyperkalemia, and Renal damage

104
Q

Bactrim taken with methotrexate can cause what in patients?

A

It can intensify bone marrow suppression

105
Q

Lower urinary tract infections involves what organ parts?

A

The bladder and urethra

106
Q

What organ do upper urinary tract infection involve?

A

The kidneys

107
Q

What are the 2 types of urinary Tract infections?

A

Complicated or uncomplicated

108
Q

Uncomplicated UTIs usually occur and what population?

A

Women of childbearing age with no predisposition

109
Q

What are predisposing factors that complicated UTIs?

A

Calculi, prosthetic hypertrophy, and wine catheters, obstruction to urine flow

110
Q

Urinary tract infections that are associated community acquired are caused by what pathogen what is the strain?

A

E.coli and it’s gram negative

111
Q

Hospital acquired UTIs are caused by what common pathogens?

A

Klebseilla, Proteus, and Tara factor, Pseudomonas, staphylococci, and enterococci

112
Q

Single dose therapy and short course therapy are utilized for what population?

A

They are for uncomplicated, community associate infection and women who are not pregnant and symptoms that began less than seven days prior to treatment

113
Q

What are the first line drugs for uncomplicated acute cystitis?

List in order

A

Bactrim, nitrofuratonin, fosfomycin

For a patient you are not pregnant with symptoms less than seven days

114
Q

What is the second class medication for acute cystitis uncomplicated?

A

The floroquinolones

Ciprofloxacin And levofloxacin

115
Q

Complicated urinary tract infections What are the drugs in order?

A

Bactrim, Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin, amoxicillin or Augmentin, And cephalexin

116
Q

For treatment of complicated urinary tract infections, how long would conventional therapy be?

A

At least 7 to 14 days

117
Q

Nitrofuratonin Also known as Macrobid is used in what instance?

A

Only use for lower urinary track infections, prophylaxis, and reoccurring infections

118
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Macrobid or nitrofurantoin?

A

It injures bacteria by damaging their DNA

That low concentration it is Bacteriastatic and at high concentrations it bactericidal

119
Q

What are the four major side effects associated with nitrofuratonin?

A

G.I. disturbances such as nausea vomiting diarrhea

**Can cause pulmonary reaction such as shortness of breath, chest pain, chills, fever, cough and alveolar infiltrates

Can cause hematologic a fact such as megaloblastic anemia

Can cause peripheral neuropathy

120
Q

Nitrofuratonin (macrobid)is contraindicated in what 2 populations?

A

It is contraindicated in patients less than one month old

and

in patients with renal impairment (geriatrics)

121
Q

Nitrofuratonin is contraindicated in what trimester pregnancy?

A

In the third trimester

122
Q

For infants what 2 anabiotic’s can be used in infants for UTIs?

A

Ampicillin and gentamycin

123
Q

What two antibiotics are safe in pregnancy?

A

Penicillins Such as Augmentin and cephalosporins

124
Q

Women who are breast-feeding and taking the floroquinolones for a urinary tract infection, they should wait how long before breast-feeding?

A

They should wait 4 to 6 hours after a does before breast-feeding

125
Q

Methenamine hippurate (similar to nitrofuratonin) It’s approved for children between what age?

A

Six and 12 years of age

It can also be used in children of six years of age and younger

126
Q

What are Sulfonamides mechanism of action?

Are they bacteriostatic or bactericidal ?

What type of Bacterial strain do they cover?

A

Sulfonamides are Bacteriostatic drugs

They are active against broad-spectrum gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli

Sulfonamides inhibit a derivative of folate needed for cell synthesis

127
Q

What is the primary causative agent in urinary tract infections?

A

E. coli

128
Q

Do sulfonamides cross the placenta?

A

Yes they are not indicated or should be used in pregnancy

129
Q

Sulfonamides should be discontinued if what happens?

A

A skin rash develops or is observed because it could be an indicator of Steven Johnson syndrome

130
Q

What are the 4 major adverse effects of sulfonamides?

A

Hyper sensitivity with phototoxicity can occur

Can cause hemolytic anemia—If patient report fever pallor or jaundice

Kernicterus in newborns

Can Have renal damage Because of crystalline form if Not adequately hydrated

131
Q

Sulfasalazine is used to treat what?

A

Ulcerative colitis

132
Q

Sulfonamides should not be given to infants younger than how old?

A

Two months

133
Q

Sulfonamides can intensify which three meds?

A

Warfarin, phenytoin, and sulfonylura hypoglycemics

134
Q

Sulfacetamide is used for what?

A

Seborrheic dermatitis, acne vulgaris, and rosacea

135
Q

Silver sulfadiazine and mafenide Are used to suppress back to your colonization and patience with second and third-degree burns but should not be used on what?

A

The face because it can cause blue, green or gray discoloration

136
Q

Trimethoprim has what mechanism of action?

A

It’s a process bacteria synthesis of DNA and RNA

137
Q

Is trimethoprim bactericidal and Bacteriostatic?

A

Depending on the side of infection it can be either

138
Q

Trimethoprim treats which strain of bacteria?

A

Enteric Gram negative bacilli

139
Q

What are Trimethoprim’s major adverse reaction?

A

Most common is itching and rash

Megaloblastic anemia can occur in patient’s you already have a folate deficiency such as alcoholics, pregnant woman and nursing home patients

Hyperkalemia is common because it reduces renal excretion of potassium

140
Q

Patients who are taking an ARB, ACEI, aldosterone antagonist while on trimethoprim Should be monitored for what adverse reaction?

A

Hyperkalemia

141
Q

Does trimethoprim cross the placenta and is it safe to use while breast-feeding?

A

Because it crosses the center of what it’s routine use

it is excreted in milk which can interfere with folic acid utilization by the nursing infant

142
Q

What is Bactrim made up of?

TMP/SMZ

What do these two drugs do together?

A

It is made up of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

They potential each other’s affects

143
Q

What is the microbial spectrum for trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactria)?

A

It is active against a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

144
Q

Patients with age should not use Bactrim because of why?

A

They have a high incidence of adverse effects

145
Q

Adverse effects of Bactrim or a combination of sulfonamides adverse reactions and trimethoprim adverse reaction, name a few

A

Hypersensitivity reaction such a Steven Johnson syndrome, blood dyscrasia such as hemolytic anemia, Kernicterus in neonates, Hyperkalemia, and Renal damage

146
Q

Bactrim taken with methotrexate can cause what in patients?

A

It can intensify bone marrow suppression

147
Q

Lower urinary tract infections involves what organ parts?

A

The bladder and urethra

148
Q

What organ do upper urinary tract infection involve?

A

The kidneys

149
Q

Herpes simplex virus causes what

A

Infection of the genitalia, mouth, face and other sites

150
Q

Herpes zoster is what?

A

Shingles, it’s a painful condition resulting from reactivation of varicella that has been dormant within the sensory nerves

151
Q

Varicella zoster is what

A

The chickenpox

152
Q

Describe Zovirax (Acyclovir)

A

It is the first drag a choice for most infections caused by herpes simplex virus and varicella

Serious side effects or uncommon

Cheap drug, it is needed to be taken more often though—compliance issue

153
Q

Acyclovir mechanism of action

A

It inhibits viral replication by suppressing the synthesis of viral DNA

154
Q

What is the drug of choice for varicella zoster infection in immunocompromised patients?

A

Acyclovir

155
Q

Acyclovir Is approved for children as young as how old?

A

As young as three months of age

156
Q

Valacyclovir is approved for children how old?

A

Two years of age

157
Q

Is foscarnet recommended in pregnancy?

A

No it is not, there was a normal development of tooth enamel an animal students

158
Q

Are Acyclovir and Valacyclovir in the secreted in the breast milk?

Can they be use while breast-feeding?

A

It is present in breastmilk, it is recommended that women who are taking systemic drugs for herpes simplex virus and varicella zoster should avoid breast-feeding

159
Q

Describe valacyclovir (Valtrex)

A

It is a pro drug form of acyclovir

It has greater bioavailability than acyclovir

More expensive than acyclovir
Dosage frequency is less

160
Q

Describe Docosanol cream (abreva)

A

Unlikely to promote resistance

Drag available over the counter
And they created for herpes labialis (oral)

161
Q

Famciclovir Is a pro drug for?

A

Penciclovir

162
Q

What is the dosing for acyclovir In a Herpes simplex virus breakout?
Give dosage

A

Treatment for HSV is 200 mg five times daily for 7 to 10 days.

Or 400 mg three times a day for 7 to 10 days

(1000-1200mg in a day)

163
Q

What is the treatment for herpes zoster (shingles) when using acyclovir? Give dosage

A

800 mg five times a day for 7 to 10 days

164
Q

What are side effects for antiviral medication’s for herpes simplex, herpes zoster (shingles), and herpes varicella?

A

Headache nausea vomiting

165
Q

Acyclovir can help with what in shingles

A

Can help post herpetic neuralgia

166
Q

Valtrex dosage for orolabial breakout

A

2g twice a day for one day

167
Q

Valtrex dosage for herpes zoster (shingles) and varicella (chicken pox)

A

1 g three times a day for 5 to 7 days or until lesions have crusted

Varicella minimum 5 days and Zoster full 7 days

168
Q

Valtrex dosage in Mucutaneous herpes simplex

A

1 g twice a day for 7 to 10 days

Or until lesions have healed

169
Q

What is the first line of medication for treating chlamydia trichomonas? What is the second?

A

Azithromycin 1 g PO once

or

doxycycline 100 mg PO two times a day for seven days

170
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhea urethritis, cervicitis, prostatitis, and pharyngitis?

A

Ceftriaxone (rocephin) 250 mg IM once and 1 g of azithromycin

171
Q

What is the treatment for non-Gonococcal urethritis?

A

Azithromycin 1 g PO once

Or

Doxycycline hundred milligrams PO twice a day For seven days

172
Q

What is the treatment for primary syphilis, secondary syphilis, early latency syphilis?
Give dosage

A

Benzathine penicillin G

2.4 million units IM once

173
Q

What is Daily suppressive dosage therapy for acyclovir?

A

400 mg PO two times a day

174
Q

What is the daily suppressive therapy dosage for Valacyclovir?

A

500 mg PO once a day

Or

1 g PO once a day

175
Q

What is the first line drug for streptococcus pneumonia?

What is the second line?

Class wise

A

First line is penicillin or amoxicillin—penicillin class

Second line is azithromycin—macrolides

176
Q

What is the first time medication neisseria meningitis?

What is the second line?

A

First sign is a third-generation cephalosporin

Second generation is penicillin

177
Q

What is the first sign medication for staphylococcus aureus?

A

First line amoxicillin/ Augmentin

Second line is a cephalosporin

178
Q

What is the first and second line for bacillus anthrax?

A

First sign of ciprofloxacin—fluoroquinolone

Second line is gentamicin or a tetracycline

179
Q

Bordetella pertussis also known as whooping cough, what is the first and second line treatment for it?

A

First line treatment is azithromycin— Macrolides

Second line is Bactrim

180
Q

For shigella what is the first sign and second line treatment?

A

First line floroquinolone

Second line is Bactrim or Ampicillin.

181
Q

Salmonella treatment

What is first line and second line?

A

First line treatment is a cephalosporin

Second line treatment is Bactrim or a penicillin

182
Q

Community associated MRSA is treated how?

Name first line and second line

A

First line is Bactrim

Second line is doxycycline

183
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis

First line and second line treatment

A

First line is Flagyl

Second line is topical clindamycin or metronidazolep

184
Q

Klebsiella

First line

Second line

A

First line is azithromycin

Second line is doxycycline then Bactrim

185
Q

H influenza in a upper respiratory infection

What is the first line and second line?

A

First line is Bactrim

Second line is a cephalosporin or Augmentin

186
Q

H influenza infection of the meningitis, epiglottitis, arthritis

What is the treatment?

A

Cephalosporins

Cefotxime and ceftriaxone

187
Q

What is the treatment for Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

1st and 2nd line

A

First line is erythromycin or a macrolide

Second line is penicillin G

188
Q

listeria, First line and second line treatment?

A

First line treatment is ampicillin or penicillin G with or without gentamycin

Second line is Bactrim

189
Q

Klebseilla Pneumonia what is the first line and secondly treatment?

A

First line is cephalosporins

Second is carbapenems

190
Q

For Mycoplasma pneumonia

What is the first line and second line treatment?

A

1st line Erythromycin or a macrolide

Second line it’s a fluoroquinolone

191
Q

H pylori infection

First line and second line?

A

First line is clarithromycin and amoxicillin along with Esomeprazole

Second line is a Tetracyclines with Flagyl

192
Q

Cholerae

First line and second line treatment?

A

First line tetracycline

Second line Bactrim

193
Q

What is the first line drug for streptococcus pneumonia?

What is the second line?

Class wise

A

First line is penicillin or amoxicillin—penicillin class

Second line is azithromycin—macrolides

194
Q

What is the first time medication neisseria meningitis?

What is the second line?

A

First sign is a third-generation cephalosporin

Second generation is penicillin

195
Q

What is the first sign medication for staphylococcus aureus?

A

First line amoxicillin/ Augmentin

Second line is a cephalosporin

196
Q

What is the first and second line for bacillus anthrax?

A

First sign of ciprofloxacin—fluoroquinolone

Second line is gentamicin or a tetracycline

197
Q

Cholerae

First line and second line treatment?

A

First line tetracycline

Second line Bactrim

198
Q

H pylori infection

First line and second line?

A

First line is clarithromycin and amoxicillin along with Esomeprazole

Second line is a Tetracyclines with Flagyl

199
Q

For Mycoplasma pneumonia

What is the first line and second line treatment?

A

1st line Erythromycin or a macrolide

Second line it’s a fluoroquinolone

200
Q

Klebseilla Pneumonia what is the first line and secondly treatment?

A

First line is cephalosporins

Second is carbapenems

201
Q

listeria, First line and second line treatment?

A

First line treatment is ampicillin or penicillin G with or without gentamycin

Second line is Bactrim

202
Q

Bordetella pertussis also known as whooping cough, what is the first and second line treatment for it?

A

First line treatment is azithromycin— Macrolides

Second line is Bactrim

203
Q

What is the treatment for Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

1st and 2nd line

A

First line is erythromycin or a macrolide

Second line is penicillin G

204
Q

H influenza infection of the meningitis, epiglottitis, arthritis

What is the treatment?

A

Cephalosporins

Cefotxime and ceftriaxone

205
Q

H influenza in a upper respiratory infection

What is the first line and second line?

A

First line is Bactrim

Second line is a cephalosporin or Augmentin

206
Q

Klebsiella

First line

Second line

A

First line is azithromycin

Second line is doxycycline then Bactrim

207
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis

First line and second line treatment

A

First line is Flagyl

Second line is topical clindamycin or metronidazolep

208
Q

Community associated MRSA is treated how?

Name first line and second line

A

First line is Bactrim

Second line is doxycycline

209
Q

Salmonella treatment

What is first line and second line?

A

First line treatment is a cephalosporin

Second line treatment is Bactrim or a penicillin

210
Q

For shigella what is the first sign and second line treatment?

A

First line floroquinolone

Second line is Bactrim or Ampicillin.

211
Q

Very proficient for complete murder and death

What are these medications for bactericidal drugs?

A

Vancomycin, penicillins, fluoroquinolone, Cephalosporins, metronidazole, daptomycin

212
Q

To slow the microorganism carefully

Bacteriostatic drugs what are these medications?

A

Tetracycline, Sulfonamides, trimethoprim, macrolides, Clindamycin

213
Q

What treatment for uncomplicated UTI is approved for a single does therapy?

A

Fosfomycin (monurol)

214
Q

Which cephalosporin medication can be given in large doses without harming the kidneys?

A

Ceftriaxone

Cassandra's Pharmacology (14 decks)

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