module 3 - Communicable Diseases Flashcards
1
Q
T or F
Infectious diseases are responsible for a quarter to a third of all deaths worldwide.
A
TRUE
2
Q
Types of Communicable Diseases (6 items)
A
Bacterial
Viral
Vector borne
Food & water borne
Nosocomial infection
Sexually transmitted disease
3
Q
T or F
Infectious diseases account for more than half of all deaths in children under the age of 10.
A
FALSE
Infectious diseases account for more than half of all deaths in children under the age of 5.
4
Q
Of the top ten causes of death compiled by the World Health Organization, five are due to ——.
A
iNFECTIOUS dISEASES
5
Q
The top single-agent killers are —, —–, and —-. The other top killers are lower respiratory infections and diarrheal diseases, which are caused by a variety of agents.
A
HIV/AIDS
Malaria
Tuberculosis
6
Q
First to discover BACTERIA
A
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
7
Q
FATHER OF MICROBIOLOGY
A
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
8
Q
Established that high maternal mortality was due to failure of doctors to wash hands after post-mortems
A
Ignaz Semmelweiss (1818- 1865)
9
Q
He introduced the PRACTICE OF HANDWASHING
A
Ignaz Semmelweiss (1818- 1865)
10
Q
He introduced the PRACTICE OF HANDWASHING
A
Ignaz Semmelweiss (1818- 1865)
11
Q
The FATHER OF BACTERIOLOGY
A
Louis Pasteur (1822- 1895)
12
Q
Louis Pasteur (1822- 1895)
A
Proved that bacteria can cause infection -
The GERM THEORY of diseas
13
Q
FIRST DISINFECTANT FOR SURGERY
A
Joseph Lister
14
Q
Concerned about infection of compound fractures and post-operative wounds
A
Joseph Lister
15
Q
FOUNDER OF MODERN MICROBIOLOGY
A
Robert Koch
16
Q
Grew bacteria in culture medium
Showed which bacteria caused particular diseases
A
Robert Koch
17
Q
Disease can be: (4 items)
A
Genetic
Biological
Physical
Chemical
18
Q
a pathological condition of body parts or tissues characterized by an identifiable group of signs and symptoms.
A
DISEASE
19
Q
disease caused by an infectious agent such as a bacterium, virus, protozoan, or fungus that can be passed on to others.
A
INFECTIOUS DISEASE
20
Q
occurs when an infectious agent enters the body and begins to reproduce; may or may not lead to disease.
A
INFECTION
21
Q
an infectious agent that causes disease.
A
PATHOGEN
22
Q
an organism infected by another organism.
A
HOST
23
Q
the relative ability of an agent to cause rapid and severe disease in a host.
A
VIRULENCE
24
Q
The ability of an organism to cause a disease to the host
A
PATHOGENICITY
25
developed four criteria to demonstrate that a specific disease is caused by a particular agent
Koch’s Postulates .
26
Koch’s Postulates
(4 items)
1. The specific agent must be associated with every case of the disease.
2. The agent must be isolated from a diseased host and grown in culture.
3. When the culture-grown agent is introduced into a healthy susceptible host, the agent must cause the same disease.
4. The same agent must again be isolated from the infected experimental host.
27
T or F
Most infectious agents that cause disease are microscopic in size and thus, are called MICROBES or MICROORGANISMS.
TRUE
28
These are simple single-celled organisms (Prokaryotes)
Has no nucleus or membrane bound organelles
BACTERIA
29
These are particles of RNA and DNA living organisms that do not need nutrients
VIRUSES
30
This are eukaryotic organisms
Has an enclosed nucleus
PROTOZOA (PROTISTS)
31
Multicellular organisms
FUNGI
32
Parasitic worms (i.e. hookworm & whipworm)
HELMINTHS (ANIMALS)
33
How Infectious Agents Cause Disease.
Production of poisons, such as toxins and enzymes, that destroy cells and tissues.
34
TYPES OF TOXINS MICROBES PRODUCE (2 items)
ENDOTOXIN
EXOTOXIN
35
These toxins are secreted by the bacteria into host tissues to make a pathogenic change
EXOTOXIN
36
Even with the absence of bacteria these toxins can still remain and still could cause diseases
EXOTOXIN
37
These toxins are part of the cell wall of the bacteria
ENDOTOXIN
38
The toxin is released into the host tissues when the bacteria dies
ENDOTOXIN
39
AGENTS THAT ARE EXOTOXIC
VIRUSES
PROTOZOA &
FUNGI
40
T or F
ExOTOXIN INFECTIONS are slowly killed; they do not die fast; do not release toxins fas
FALSE
ENDOTOXIN INFECTIONS are slowly killed; they do not die fast; do not release toxins fas
41
They replicate themselves in the plasma membranes of the cells and even alter the physiology of the organ
VIRUSES
42
They release toxins meaning they are exotoxic; These enzymes released destroy the home tissue
PROTOZOA
43
White or greenish yellowy frothy musty odorous
discharge; vaginal itching and soreness, painful
urination
TRICHOMONIASIS
44
There is no known cure and the virus stays with you for
the rest of your life; Sexually spread; Can cause cervical
lesions, and possibly cervical cancer
HIV
45
Sores on genitals, lips, arms, etc; rashes.
Late stage symptoms include: insanity, blindness,
paralysm, impotency
SYPHILIS
46
Symptoms in women include: green/ yellow discharge,
painful urination, unusual bleeding. Symptoms in men
include: thick discharge & painful urination. If left
untreated, symptoms in women include: PID-symptoms;
in men includes: swollen/ tender testicles.
GONORRHEA
47
Ulcer (painful, tender, erythematous papule, erodes
over several days, forms sharply demarcated superficial
lesion)
CHANCROID
48
You have been splashed in the face with the blood of a
patient with hepatitis C. After washing your face and
eyes with water for at least 10 minutes, you are required to:
a) Mandate that the patient pay for your medical expenses if you get Hepa C
b) Report the incident to a supervisor or the infection control officer
c) Fill out a reporting form
d) Request prophylaxis medications from the receiving emergency department
B. Report the incident to a supervisor or the infection
control officer
49
R.L. a 45 y/o patient who was complaining of the ff: he
always feels tired, his temperature at around 2-6pm is
always at 37-37.5C. He is not feeling well for the last 2
weeks and coughs with greenish excretions.
The patient presents with a (+) diagnostic test, what is
the appropriate test for the patient?
Mantoux test
50
The infectious disease stage in which the antigen is
present but no antibody is detectable is the __?__
stage.
Window period
***The window period refers to the time after infection
and before seroconversion, during which markers of
infection (p24 antigen and antibodies) are still absent or
too scarce to be detectable
51
A patient suffering from pneumonia experiencing
confusion, 80/50 mmHg, 20CP, (+) Staphylococcus
Aureus, acquired 82 hours post medical admittance.
What pharmacotherapeutics are applicable to the
patient?
Clarithromycin & Flucloxacillin
52
Which among the following is a bacterial infection:
a) leptospirosis
b) epidemic parotitis
c) rabies
d) anthrax
Anthrax
53
Disease caused by S. Aureus EXCEPT:
a) Necrotizing fasciitis (fascia = covering ng tissue;
necrosis = death of body tissue)
b) Osteomyelitis (bone inflammation)
c) Pharyngitis
d) endocarditis
c.) Pharyngitis
54
A 70 y.o. patient who got community acquired
pneumonia presents with RR: 35 COM and a drop in
diastolic pressure. Drug of choice for the patient is:
Co-amoxiclav 1.2g & Clarithromycin 500mg
55
Oral medication used in multibacillary Hansen’s
disease:
Supervised: Rifampicin, Dapsone, and Lamprene
56
Drug of choice for leptospirosis:
625mg penicillin
57
Drug of choice for typhoid fever
Chloramphenicol
58
STD characteristics by Ulcer (painful, tender,
erythematous papule, erodes over several days) is
treated with what medication?
Ceftriaxone 500 BID
59
Common bacteria in nosocomial infection acquired
through food:
Salmonella
60
R.L. a 45 y/o patient who was complaining of the ff: he
always feels tired, his temperature at around 2-6pm is
always at 37-37.5 deg Celsius that he is feeling for the
last 2 weeks and coughs with greenish excretions.
In what stage is the patient already in
Infection stage
61
Metronidazole is the drug treatment for what disease?
Trichomoniasis
62
The vulnerability or weakness to a specific pathogen is
known as:
Susceptibility
63
Diagnostic criteria for Pneumonia EXCEPT:
a) Cough, which may be dry at first, but eventually
produces phlegm
b) Night chills lasting for three days
c) Rapid breathing and heartbeat
d) Nausea, vomiting, and muscle aches
Nausea. Vomiting, and muscle aches
64
Fungal infection in AIDS, causing infection to the mouth,
esophagus and vagina, appearing as a white thick,
cottage cheese like exudates, and oral thrush.
Candida albicans
64
Emergency SSx of pneumonia EXCEPT:
a) BP of 140/1000mmHg
b) HR with 140bpm
c) 39.5-40.5 deg. Celsius of fever
d) RR of 25 with tachypneic characteristics
d) Respiratory rate of 25 with tachypneic (fast, shallow
breathing) characteristics
***since heavy, labored breathing dapat
65
R.L. a 45 y/o patient who was complaining of the
following, he always feels tired, his temperature at
around 2-6pm is always at 37-37.5 deg Celsius that he
is feeling for the last 2 weeks and coughs with greenish
excretions.
In the given case above, you conclude that the patient
has:
a) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
b) Pulmonary Tuberculosis
c) Leptospirosis
d) Pertussis
Pulmonary Tuberculosis
66
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for
developing chronic hepatitis after being exposed to
hepatitis B?
a) A 15-year-old male
b) A 5-year-old male
c) A newborn baby boy
d) A 30-year-old male
c) Newborn baby boy
67
The interval between exposure to an agent and the first
appearance of symptoms is the:
a) Disease period
b) Incubation period
c) Latent phase
d) Window phase
Incubation period
68
The following are drug treatment for chancroid EXCEPT:
a) erythromycin
b) azithromycin
c) ciprofloxacin.
d) clarithromycin
Clarithromycin
69
Which of the following is considered a first-line defense
against infection for the human body?
a) Skin
b) White blood cells
c) Inflammatory response
d) Antibodies
a) Skin
70
Criteria for diagnosis of nosocomial pneumonia
a) NOTA
b) (+) for H. influenzae 72 after medical admittance
c) (+) for P. Carinii for HIV+ patient
d) (+) sputum smear test for S. Aureus 48 hours of
admission
d) (+) sputum smear test for S. Aureus 48 hours of
admission
71
Males who have contracted chlamydia may experience:
Development of lesions on penis
72
The following are portal of exit in the chain of infection
EXCEPT:
a) Sputum (thick type of mucus made in lungs)
b) Stool
c) Blood
d) Skin break
d) Skin break
***puro body fluids/ mga nilalabas natin
73
Gonorrhea is an STD caused by a:
a) Bacteria
b) Parasite
c) Virus
d) Fungus
Bacteria
74
The ff. are etiologic agents for PTB EXCEPT.
a) Mycobacterium bovis
b) Mycobacterium falcifarum
c) Mycobacterium aves
d) Mycobacterium africanum
b) Mycobacterium Falcifarum
**Feel ko Falcifarium? Since nagpapakita lang toh sa
Malaria??!??! Plasmodium Falcifarium nga lang tawag;
koreeek , tamaa
75
Drug of treatment for patient with nosocomial
pneumonia confined in the icu:
Piperacillin
76
Treatment of PCP EXCEPT:
a) Pentamadine
b) Atovaquone
c) Clindamycin
d) Clarithromycin
Clarithromycin
77
Catarrhal stage: URI symptoms (1-2 weeks)
Paroxysmal stage: short, rapid cough brought followed
by high-pitched crowing, “whoop” o gasp 4-6 weeks
cyanosis may occur during episode & convalescent
stage: decrease in intense sound
pertussis
78
No fever, headache, malaise, sore throat, rash, pink
maculopapular rash starts on face that is not itchy
chickenpox/ varicella
79
Affect lungs, CNS, skin (first indication of disseminated
infection
Cryptococcus neoformans
80
Intensely pruritic rash in groin
Tinea cruris
81
Yeast switches to hyphae form and invades stratum
corneum, causing inflammation, scaling, and
melanocyte dysfunction
Malassezia spp
82
Nail infection with hyperkeratosis and distortion of nail
plate
Tinea unguium
83
Foot infection, itching, scaling, fissure
Tinea pedis
84
Transmission type:
- Gown and gloves only
- Meningitis
- Tuberculosis
- Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococcus
- Herpes Simplex
Gown and gloves only = CONTACT
Meningitis = DROPLET
Tuberculosis = AIRBORNE
Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus = CONTACT
Herpes Simplex = CONTACT
85
Chain of infection:
- Humans
- Droplet
- Mucous membrane
- Body fluid
Chain of infection:
- Humans = Mode of Trasnmission
- Droplet = Portal of Entry
- Mucous membrane = Reservoir
- Body fluid = Portal of Exit
86
Hypo or hyper pigmented scaling plaques on upper
groin and trunk
Tinea corporis
87
Prevention: supportive during hospitalization with
suction, humidity, careful oral feeding, hydration
medications include erythromycin, azithromycin,
clarithromycin
Pneumococcal infection
88
Prodromal state: fever, malaise, coryza, cough,
conjunctivitis, koplik spots on mucosa, rash appears on
day 3 or 4 of illness, fever, runny nose, cough, red eyes
Rubeola infection
89
Direct contact from droplets, incubation: 14-21 days,
communicable: 5-7 days before and 7 days after rash
German measles
90
W
91
URI like symptoms: “bull’s neck”, white or gray mucous membranes, fever and cough
diphtheria
92
Enlargement of one or more parotid gland, earache
aggravated by chewing
Epidemic parotitis (mumps)
93
5 GROUPS OF AGENTS THAT CAUSE DISEASES
INCUBATION PHASE
PRODROMAL PHASE
CLINICAL PHASE
DECLINE PHASE
RECOVERY PHASE
94
time between infection and the appearance of signs and symptoms.
INCUBATION PHASE
94
time between infection and the appearance of signs and symptoms.
INCUBATION PHASE
95
mild, nonspecific symptoms that signal onset of some diseases.
PRODROMAL PHASE
96
mild, nonspecific symptoms that signal onset of some diseases.
PRODROMAL PHASE
97
invasive phase or acute phase; a person experiences typical signs and symptoms of disease.
CLINICAL PHASE
98
height of battle between pathogen and immune system
Acme
99
subsidence of symptoms.
DECLINE PHASE
100
convalescent phase; symptoms have disappeared, tissues heal, and the body regains strength.
RECOVERY PHASE
101
Develops and runs its course quickly.
ACUTE
102
Develops more slowly and is usually less severe, but may persist for a long, indefinite period of time.
Harder to treat
CHRONIC
103
Characterized by periods of no symptoms between outbreaks of illness.
LATENT
