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MICROBIOLOGY > MODULE 2 MULTI-CHOICE > Flashcards

MODULE 2 MULTI-CHOICE Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. The toxic portion (endotoxin) of the outer membrane of the gram-negative wall is

(a) phospholipid
(b) porin proteins
(c) teichoic acid
(d) isoprenoid
(e) lipid A

A

(e) LIPID A

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2
Q
  1. The cytoplasmic membrane could best be described as _________________

(a) an impermeable barrier
(b) a passive conduit for intracellular transport.
(c) a highly selective permeability barrier.
(d) slightly permeable to water but impermeable to metabolic solutes

A

(c) A HIGHLY SELECTIVE PERMEABILITY BARRIER.

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3
Q
  1. The periplasm is a

(a) part of the outer membrane of gram-negative organisms.
(b) part of the cytoplasmic membrane of gram-negative organisms.
(c) region between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria.
(d) alternate name for the cytoplasm of any prokaryotic cell

A

(c) REGION BETWEEN THE CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE AND THE OUTER MEMBRANE OF GRAM NEGATIVE BACTERIA.

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4
Q
  1. Bacteria stain as gram-positive or gram-negative because of differences in the cell

(a) wall
(b) cytoplasm
(c) nucleus
(d) genome
(e) membrane

A

(a) WALL

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(a) Fimbriae are generally shorter and more numerous than flagella.
(b) Fimbriae probably function in surface adhesion
(c) Pili serve as receptors and facilitate genetic exchange between prokaryotic cells.
(d) All of the above are true

A

(d) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE TRUE

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6
Q
  1. Bacterial fimbriae function in

(a) motility
(b) attachment
(c) nutrient uptake
(d) protection against cell lysis
(e) protection against phagocytosis.

A

(b) ATTACHMENT

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a structure for survival in prokaryotes?

(a) Cysts
(b) Cilia
(c) Glycogen
(d) Endospores
(e) Inorganic polyphosphate inclusions

A

(b) CILIA

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8
Q
  1. The terms “run” and “tumble” are generally associated with

(a) cell wall fluidity
(b) cell membrane fluidity
(c) taxis movements of the cell
(d) cilia in protozoa
(e) clustering properties of certain rod-shaped bacteria

A

(c) TAXIS MOVEMENTS OF THE CELL

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9
Q
  1. What is the biological function of endospores?

(a) They are bacterial reproductive structures.
(b) They enable organisms to endure extremes of temperature, drying and nutrient depletion
(c) They are formed as invaginations of the bacterial cell walls
(d) All of the above are endospore functions.

A

(b) THEY ENABLE ORGANISMS TO ENDURE EXTREMES OF TEMPERATURE, DRYING AND NUTRIENT DEPLETION

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10
Q
  1. Although the inner layer of the gram-negative outer membrane contains phospholipids, the outer layer of the outer membrane contains

(a) pseudomurein
(b) lipoteichoic acids.
(c) poly-β-hydroxybutyrate
(d) lipopolysaccharide
(e) glycolipids

A

(d) LIPOPOLYSACCHARIDE

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11
Q
  1. What is the name of a bacterium that is nearly visible to the human eye?

(a) Pelagibacter ubique
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Deinococcus radiodurans
(d) Thiomargarita namibiensis
(e) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

(d) THIOMARGARITA NAMIBIENSIS

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12
Q
  1. ____________ are associated with genetic exchange in bacteria.

(a) capsules
(b) fimbriae
(c) flagella
(d) pili

A

(d) PILI

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13
Q
  1. One of the many types of proteins found in the cytoplasmic membrane is involved in the chemotactic response and is called a

(a) hydrolytic enzyme
(b) cheoreceptor
(c) binding protein
(d) porin

A

(b) CHEMORECEPTOR

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14
Q
  1. A slime layer or capsule helps a cell to _______________.

(a) prevent osmotic lysis
(b) transport nutrients
(c) disperse in a liquid environment
(d) make a biofilm
(e) all of the above

A

(d) MAKE A BIOFILM

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15
Q
  1. What is the typical length of most bacteria?

(a) 5 – 10 nm
(b) 0.5 – 5 µm,
(c) 10 – 30 µm
(d) 5 – 10 mm

A

0.5 - 5 UM

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16
Q
  1. Which is an example of an inclusion body found in a bacterial cell?

(a) the nucleoid
(b) ribosomes
(c) a plasmid
(d) polyphosphate
(e) periplasm

A

(d) POLYPHOSPHATE

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17
Q
  1. Sulfur globules are an example of inclusion bodies that may be found in some bacterial cells. What is their use?

(a) Carbon source storage
(b) Energy source storage
(c) Provide buoyancy
(d) They assist in membrane synthesis

A

(b) ENERGY SOURCE STORAGE

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18
Q
  1. Which region contains the chromosome in the bacterial cell?

(a) Nucleus
(b) Nucleoid
(c) Plasmid
(d) Prophage
(e) Inclusion body

A

(b) NUCLEOID

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19
Q
  1. How are plasmids different than chromosomes?

(a) Plasmids are always small, linear pieces of DNA.
(b) Plasmids are composed of single-stranded DNA.
(c) Plasmids can contain genes that are not essential for cellular growth and replication
(d) Plasmids carry unimportant genes that are of little significance for the ecology and
metabolism of an organism.
(e) Plasmids cannot replicate themselves

A

(c) PLASMIDS CAN CONTAIN GENES THAT ARE NOT ESSENTIAL FOR CELLULAR GROWTH AND REPLICATION

20
Q
  1. A bacterium in an hypertonic environment will:

(a) Burst
(b) Plasmolyse
(c) Not be effected
(d) Take water into the cell

A

(b) PLASMOLYSE

21
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about peripheral membrane proteins?

(a) All are on the outside of the membrane bilayer.
(b) All are on the inside of the membrane bilayer.
(c) They are loosely attached to the membrane bilayer
(d) They span the membrane bilayer and act as channels for solute
(e) Any of the above

A

(c) THEY ARE LOOSELY ATTACHED TO THE MEMBRANE BILAYER

22
Q
  1. A mutation that readily reverses to restore the original parental type would most likely be due to a(n)

(a) deletion
(b) insertion
(c) point mutation
(d) lethal mutation

A

(c) POINT MUTATION

23
Q
  1. The mutagens 2-aminopurine and 5-bromouracil are examples of

(a) alkylating agents
(b) nucleotide base analogs
(c) intercalating agents
(d) chemicals that destroy DNA
(e) None of the answers are correct

A

(b) NUCLEOTIDE BASE ANALOGS

24
Q
  1. A nonsense mutation results in:

(a) No protein being produced
(b) A normal protein produced
(c) An incomplete protein produced
(d) A faulty protein produced
(e) None of the above

A

(c) AN INCOMPLETE PROTEIN PRODUCED

25
Q
  1. F- strains of Escherichia coli

(a) do not have an F plasmid
(b) have the F plasmid integrated into the chromosome
(c) have numerous F plasmids
(d) transfer their F plasmid to another E.coli strains

A

(a) DO NOT HAVE AN F PLASMID

26
Q
  1. Each adenine-thymine base pair has ________ hydrogen bonds, while each guaninecytosine base pair has ________ hydrogen bonds.

(a) two / one
(b) two / three
(c) three / two
(d) four / three

A

(b) TWO / THREE

27
Q
  1. How does active transport differ from passive transport?

(a) It moves substances from a high to a low concentration
(b) It requires the cell to expend energy to transport material across the cytoplasmic membrane
(c) It uses integral membrane proteins, whereas passive transport does not.
(d) It only works on macromolecules.

A

(b) IT REQUIRES THE CELL TO EXPEND ENERGY TO TRANSPORT MATERIAL ACROSS THE CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE

28
Q
  1. Which of the following do not require special transmembrane proteins for the movement of molecules across the cytoplasmic membrane?

(a) simple diffusion
(b) nonspecific facilitated diffusion
(c) specific facilitated diffusion
(d) active transport

A

(a) SIMPLE DIFFUSION

29
Q
  1. In osmosis, what happens if the concentration of salts outside the cell is higher than inside?

(a) Water will move out of cell and it will swell.
(b) Water will move into the cell, and it will burst
(c) Water will move out of the cell and it will plasmolyse
(d) Water will move into the cell and it will be unchanged

A

(c) WATER WILL MOVE OUT OF THE CELL AND IT WILL PLASMOLYSE

30
Q
  1. Transposable elements are

(a) segments of DNA that move from one site to another in the chromosome
(b) transcribed genes
(c) segments of RNA that are involved in transposing DNA into proteins
(d) proteins that aid in the secretion of enzymes out of the cell

A

(a) SEGMENTS OF DNA THAT MOVE FROM ONE SITE TO ANOTHER IN THE CHROMOSOME

31
Q
  1. High concentration of diaminopimelic acid is unique to what bacterial structure?

(a) flagella
(b) pseudomurein of Archaea
(c) core and cortex of endospore
(d) peptidoglycan of Gram positive bacteria
(e) peptidoglycan of gram negative bacteria

A

(e) PEPTIDOGLYCAN OF GRAM NEGATIVE BACTERIA

32
Q
  1. Which of the following arrangements is (are) lophotrichous?

(a) a single polar flagellum
(b) polar flagella at both ends of the cell
(c) multiple polar flagella at one end of the cell
(d) multiple flagella arranged around the entire cell surface

A

(c) MULTIPLE POLAR FLAGELLA AT ONE END OF THE CELL

33
Q
  1. Which of the following arrangements is (are) peritrichous?

(a) a single polar flagellum
(b) polar flagella at both ends of the cell
(c) multiple polar flagella at one end of the cell
(d) multiple flagella arranged around the cell surface

A

(d) MULTIPLE FLAGELLA ARRANGED AROUND THE CELL SURFACE

34
Q
  1. What is taxis?

(a) random movements
(b) movement toward a stimulus, such as a light or a chemical
(c) movement away from a stimulus, such as light or a chemical
(d) movement parallel to a stimulus, such as light or a chemical

A

(b) MOVEMENT TOWARD A STIMULUS, SUCH AS A LIGHT OR A CHEMICAL

35
Q
  1. How do bacterial flagella move?

(a) They undulate like a whip
(b) They rotate either clockwise of counterclockwise
(c) Rotate clockwise continually
(d) Randomly in a back then forward motion
(e) All of the above

A

(b) THEY ROTATE EITHER CLOCKWISE OR COUNTERCLOCKWISE

36
Q
  1. What protein is the flagellum made of?

(a) filamin
(b) filamentin
(c) fibrinin
(d) flagellin
(e) all of the above

A

(d) FLAGELLIN

37
Q
  1. What is the difference between Gram positive and Gram negative arrangement of
    the flagellum?

(a) In G+ bacteria, the flagellum is anchored to both the inner and outer membranes
(b) In G- bacteria, the flagellum is anchored to both the inner and outer membranes
(c) In G+ bacteria, the flagellum is anchored to the cell wall
(d) In G- bacteria, the flagellum is anchored only to the plasma membrane

A

(b) IN G- BACTERIA, THE FLAGELLUM IS ANCHORED TO BOTH THE INNER AND OUTER MEMBRANES

38
Q
  1. Which structure confers buoyancy on a cell and allows it to float up and down in a
    water column?

(a) flagella
(b) magnetosome
(c) polyphosphate
(d) gas vesicle

A

(d) GAS VESICLE

39
Q
  1. Look at the electron micrograph below and identify the hair-like structure that
    connect the two cells.

(a) flagellum
(b) fimbriae
(c) pilus
(d) capsule
(e) cilia

A

(c) PILUS

40
Q
  1. Mycolic acids are characteristically found attached to the cell walls of:

(a) Bacillus
(b) Mycobacterium
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Streptococcus
(e) Deinococcus

A

(b) MYCOBACTERIUM

41
Q
  1. A major distinguishing characteristic of archaeal phospholipids in the presence of

(a) ester linkages
(b) ether linkage
(c) hydrophobic acids
(d) polar head group

A

(b) ETHER LINKAGE

42
Q
  1. An example of extrachromosomal DNA is the __________

(a) basal body
(b) transposon
(c) nucleoid
(d) plasmid

A

(d) PLASMID

43
Q
  1. The molecules that link the repeating units of peptidoglycan chains are

(a) carbohydrates
(b) fatty acids
(c) peptides
(d) proteins
(e) isoprene

A

(c) PEPTIDES

44
Q
  1. Which is a common genus of bacteria that forms endospores?

(a) Escherichia
(b) Staphylococcus
(c) Clostridium
(d) Streptococcus
(e) Mycobacteria

A

(c) CLOSTRIDIUM

45
Q
  1. Sporulation in endospore-forming bacteria occurs most often when
    _____________?

(a) key nutrient used by the organism becomes depleted
(b) the organism experiences competition
(c) the organism is exposed to antibiotics
(d) the environment surrounding the organism becomes very moist
(e) all of the above

A

(a) KEY NUTRIENT USED BY THE ORGANISM BECOMES DEPLETED

46
Q
  1. Endospores survive a variety of harsh conditions in part because of the presence of

(a) hopanoids.
(b) mycolic acid.
(c) teichoic acid
(d) dipiolinci acid
(e) diaminopimelic acid

A

(d) DIPICOLINIC ACID

47
Q
  1. The DNA of the endospore is found in the __________

(a) core
(b) coat
(c) cortex
(d) nucleus
(e) exosporium

A

(a) CORE

MICROBIOLOGY (14 decks)

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