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Pelicano 3rd Semester > Module 2 Care of the patient with an immune disorder > Flashcards

Module 2 Care of the patient with an immune disorder Flashcards

1
Q

Quality of being unaffected by a particular disease

A

Immunity

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2
Q

Name 3 functions of immune system

A

Protects body’s internal environment from invading organisms

Maintains homeostasis by removing damaged cells from circulation

Recognizes & guards against development & growth of abnormal cells

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3
Q

Considered the 1st line of Defense

A

Natural immunity

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4
Q

Provides Physical & chemical barriers to invading pathogens & protects against external environment

A

Natural immunity

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5
Q

Considered the 2nd line of defense

A

Acquired immunity

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6
Q

Also referred to as the Adaptive immunity

A

Acquired immunity

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7
Q

provides a specific reaction to invading antigens by producing specific antibodies against them

A

Acquired immunity

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8
Q

Natural immunity is the immunity that you are

A

Born with

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9
Q

Cells that engulf & destroy microorganisms

A

Macrophages

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10
Q

T cells and B cells are what type of cells

A

Lymphocytes

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11
Q

Cell that attracts macrophages to site of infection or inflammation

A

T cells

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12
Q

Cells that produce antibodies in response to antigen

A

B cells

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13
Q

What cells are affected by HIV

A

T cells

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14
Q

Cells that recognize antigens and turns immune system on

A

CD4 Helper B Cells

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15
Q

Suppressor Cells (CD8) tells….

A

immune system when to turn off

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16
Q

Cells that destroy bacteria, viruses, cancer, and causes rejection are called

A

Cytotoxic

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17
Q

Activated by B Cells; a form of immunity that responds to antigens by producing antibodies; RESPONDS SLOWLY TO 1ST EXPOSURE with rapid response to SUBSEQUENT EXPOSURES DUE TO MEMORY

A

Humoral Immunity

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18
Q

Cell mediated immunity - results when T cells are activated by an antigen

A

Cellular immunity

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19
Q

An example of Immunotherapy is

A

Allergy shots

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20
Q

Controlled exposure to disease producing pathogens; develop antibody production while preventing disease

A

Immunizations

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21
Q

Administration of increasingly large doses of offending allergens to gradually develop immunity; stimulate formation of antibodies & build tolerance with increase in S/S of allergy

A

Immunotherapy

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22
Q

For Local allergic reaction we administer

A

antihistamines

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23
Q

For Systemic allergic reactions we administer

A

Epinephrine

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24
Q

inappropriate response & excessive response of the immune system to an antigen; genetic defect that allows increased production of IgE

A

Hypersensitivity

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25
Q

Hypersensitivity is an

A

Allergy

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26
Q

Anaphylaxis is directly related to

A

Systemic reaction

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27
Q

Benadryl is used to treat a

A

Local allergic reaction

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28
Q

increased susceptibility to infection due to inadequate cellular & humoral immune response

A

Immunodeficiency disease

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29
Q

the bodys immune system attacks itself; cannot distinguish self from a foreign invader

A

Autoimmune disease

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30
Q

Presence of hives or welts in an allergic reaction caused by drugs, food, insect bites

A

Urticaria

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31
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Urticaria include (3)

A

pruritus
burning pain
scratching

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32
Q

What should we do for a person developing pruritus

A

Benadryl and cool compressors

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33
Q

A form of urticaria, but penetrates the subcutaneous tissue causing local edema of an area

A

Angioedema

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34
Q

What are 5 S/S of Angioedema

A

Lesions, Edema, Burning, Pruritus, Pain

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35
Q

What should we do for Angioedema

A

Check for airway first (patient might need epinephrine) Cool compress

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36
Q

Lacrimation is

A

Tearing

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37
Q

Also known as Hay fever

A

Allergic Rhinitis & Allergic Conjunctivitis

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38
Q

Result of antigen/antibody reaction in nasal membrane, nasopharynx or conjunctiva from inhaled or contact allergen.

A

Allergic Rhinitis & Allergic Conjunctivitis

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39
Q

What are 6 S/S of Allergic Rhinitis & Allergic Conjunctivitis

A 
Sneezing 
Congestion
Lacrimation 
Epistaxis
Blurred vision 
Otitis Media
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40
Q

What is something we can administer for Allergic Rhinitis & Allergic Conjunctivitis

A

Nasal Corticosteroids

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41
Q

Eczema is also known as

A

Atopic Dermatitis

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42
Q

Antigen / Antibody reaction associated with allergies to chocolate, eggs, wheat, OJ, Milk

A

Atopic Dermatitis

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43
Q

What are 3 S/S of Atopic Dermatitis

A

Papular and vesicular lesions
Erythema
Yellow exudate that dries

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44
Q

What is the nurses role with a patient who is experiencing Atopic Dermatitis

A

Maintain hydration of the skin

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45
Q

Reaction to latex proteins can occur within

A

minutes

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46
Q

S/S of a Latex allergy includes (5)

A 
Wheezing 
Dyspnea 
Feeling of faintness
laryngospasm 
Cardiac arrest
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47
Q

What should we be checking cross sensitivity to with a patient who has had a latex allergy (5)

A

Avocados, Bananas, Kiwi, Pineapples & Chestnuts

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48
Q

Autograft is

A

From one site to another person

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49
Q

Isograft is

A

transfer of tissue from identical people (twins)

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50
Q

Allograft is

A

transplant between members of the same species

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51
Q

Xenograft is

A

One species to another

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52
Q

Numbers from a Transfusion reaction must be checked by

A

2 Nurses

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53
Q

Plasma Cell Disorder, Immunodeficiency disorder

A

Multiple Myeloma

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54
Q

A malignancy which plasma cells multiply uncontrollably and infiltrate bone marrow, lymph nodes & other tissues; as these cells proliferate they replace bone marrow causing pain, fractures, and deformities.

A

Multiple Myeloma

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55
Q

Multiple Myeloma occurs more frequently in

A

African American Men after age 40

56
Q

Multiple Myeloma is a form of

A

Cancer

57
Q

Multiple Myeloma causes what CBC count to be low

A

WBC

58
Q

Multiple Myeloma patients have bones that can

A

fracture easily

59
Q

Frequent bacterial infections, Fatigue, Anemia, Weakness, Pathological fractures are all S/S of

A

Multiple Myeloma

60
Q

What can we use to diagnose Multiple Myeloma

A

Urine for Bence Jones

61
Q

Multiple Myeloma can cause Calcium and Phosphorus not to be in bone causing an increase of what in the bone

A

Blood

62
Q

If plasma cells in bone make a tumor in the bone what could be done (Multiple Myeloma)

A

Chemotherapy

63
Q

If RBC count is too low for Multiple Myeloma patients what can we do

A

Blood transfusion

64
Q

Osteoporosis is

A

Bone demineralization

65
Q

Osteoporosis is related to what immunodeficiency disease

A

Multiple Myeloma

66
Q

What is the most important teaching in a patient with Multiple Myeloma

A

Prevent Falls, bone injury

67
Q

What should patients with Multiple Myeloma be wearing

A

Red-alert bracelet

68
Q

Chronic autoimmune disorder characterized by episodes of weakness in voluntary muscles

A

Myasthenia Gravis

69
Q

Myasthenia Gravis is most common in

A

Women between 20-30

70
Q

S/S of Myasthenia Gravis (4)

A

Weakness of facial, speech and chewing muscles
Smile looks like grimace
Fine motor skills are affected
Eyelid Ptosis

71
Q

Eyelid ptosis is …. and is related to

A

droopy eyelids … Myasthenia Gravis

72
Q

How do we diagnose Myasthenia Gravis (3)

A

Check for elevated blood levels of Acetylcholine receptor antibodies

Injection of Tensilon will show dramatic improvement of muscle strength

EMG will show muscle fatigue

73
Q

In Myasthenia Gravis patients a CT Scan can show a tumor in the

A

Thymus

74
Q

EMG stand for

A

Electromyelogram

75
Q

What is the main tx for Myasthenia Gravis

A

Anticholinesterase agents

76
Q

If Anticholinesterase agents aren’t given on time what could it lead to

A

Myasthenia Crisis

77
Q

Myasthenia Crisis is

A

The inability to speak or swallow w/ dramatic muscle weakness

78
Q

Plasmapheresis can be used to tx Myasthenia Gravis. Plasmapheresis is ….

A

Removing excess antibodies

79
Q

What is the most important intervention with Myasthenia Gravis patients

A

Prevent respiratory blocking, Maintain airway

80
Q

For Myasthenia Gravis patients we should have a ________

A

Suction machine at the bedside

81
Q

Myasthenia Gravis can wear a

A

Medic Alert bracelet

82
Q

Chronic inflammatory connective tissue disease

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

83
Q

SLE stands for

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

84
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is more common in

A

Asian, Hispanic, African Women

85
Q

Production of antibodies that react with their corresponding antigen to form immune complexes, which are then deposited in the connective tissue of blood/lymphatic vessels & other tissues, inflammatory response damages the tissue AFFECTS SKIN

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

86
Q

Early S/S of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus mimic

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

87
Q

Butterfly rash is associated with

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

88
Q

How can we diagnose Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A

Antinuclear Antibody test

89
Q

Lupus can affect

A

Bone Marrow

90
Q

In patients with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus CRP and ESR levels are increased with

A

Exacerbations

91
Q

During an Anti Nuclear antibody test those with immune disorders 99% with SLE are

A

positive

92
Q

In diagnosing Systemic Lupus Erythematosus we must find how many S/S in order to call it Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A

4 (Looking for positive ANA with 3 other criteria)

93
Q

Anti-DNA can be used to diagnose

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

94
Q

How do we tx Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A

Since there is no cure, we can only decrease inflammation and teach patient to avoid injury

95
Q

In Systemic Lupus Erythematosus patients we must teach them to avoid Sodium because

A

Reacts with Corticosteroids

96
Q

In Systemic Lupus Erythematosus we should encourage to wear

A

Medic-alert bracelet

97
Q

in 1981 Aids was identified among HOMOSEXUAL MEN who had developed opportunistic diseases such as

A

PCP and Kaposi’s Sarcoma

98
Q

Jiroveci is also known as

A

PCP

99
Q

HIV/AIDS are more common in

A

Homosexual African American Men

100
Q

HIV is described as a _______ because it reproduces in a backward manner

A

Retrovirus

101
Q

Virus enters the blood and attaches to CD4 + T4 helper cells

A

HIV

102
Q

The virus could remain inactive for years; during this stage. B-cell antibodies are produced in a process known as

A

Seroconversion

103
Q

Best way to prevent HIV is

A

Condoms

104
Q

HIV from Mother to fetus is called

A

Vertical Transmission

105
Q

HIV is found in all orifices in the body except (3)

A

Saliva, Tears, and Sweat

106
Q

What is the main test used to check for HIV

A

ELISA test

107
Q

After 2 positive ELISA tests a ________ is done

A

Western blot

108
Q

Western blot is the only

A

Definitive test for HIV

109
Q

What is the CD4 norm

A

800-1200 mm3

110
Q

HIV + CD4 less than 200 (or an opportunistic infection) =

A

AIDS

111
Q

Used to check level of virus in blood; can predict disease progression & LT clinical outcome

A

Viral Load Monitoring

112
Q

The 6 main opportunistic diseases of HIV are

A 
PCP
Kaposis Sarcoma 
Herpes Simplex Virus 
Candida Albicans 
Varicella Zoster Virus (Shingles)
Tuberculosis
113
Q

The most common opportunistic infection of HIV ( S/S are fever, night sweats, SOB, cough )

A

PCP (Jiroveci)

114
Q

Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia is also known as

A

PCP

115
Q

opportunistic disease where tumors develop in the lining of small blood vessels, causing reddish-purple lesions on the skin & mucous membranes

A

Kaposis Sarcoma

116
Q

We can only diagnose Kaposi’s Sarcoma with

A

Biopsy

117
Q

opportunistic disease where vesicular eruptions in oral cavity & perineal area, blurred vision, retinal necrosis

A

HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus)

118
Q

opportunistic disease where patient can experience Rash, Pain, Pruritus, and Ocular lesions

A

Varicella Zoster Virus (Shingles)

119
Q

Weight loss of 10% associated with HIV/Aids is called

A

Wasting Syndrome

120
Q

Antiretroviral therapy is used to

A

reduce ability of HIV to replicate by interfering with enzymes

121
Q

Highly Active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) combines how many drugs

A

3 or 4 Antiviral drugs

122
Q

For a HIV/Aids patient it is important to teach them to see there

A

Dentist a lot

123
Q

3 Fun facts about HIV/Aids

A

Avoid Cat feces
Liquids must be pasteurized
Avoid foods that can cause infection

124
Q

In using bleach we should tell patient to use _____ for blood

A

1 cup

125
Q

1 part bleach is

A

10 parts water

126
Q

How to protect during sex (3)

A

Use latex condoms
Use lubes not oil based
If allergic to latex use (Polyurethane)

127
Q

For a patient with HIV who has diarrhea what food should we teach them to avoid

A

Raw fruits and vegetables

128
Q

Main 2 S/S of SLE are

A

Joint edema and tenderness

129
Q

For a patient that has Kaposi’s Sarcoma before entering room we should dawn

A

Gown and gloves

130
Q

What is a common symptom that anaphylaxis is occurring

A

Wheezing

131
Q

A patient who has Allergic Rhinitis that is not compliant with tx regimen is at risk for developing

A

Sinusitis

132
Q

If a patient reports of becoming very sick because of an antibiotic in the past what should we do

A

Do not give antibiotic

133
Q

If patient develops anaphylactic reaction to IV penicillin what should be nurses first action

A

TURN OFF IV

134
Q

Angioedema differs from urticaria because

A

Angioedema has a deeper and more widespread edema

135
Q

Viral load testing should be done every

A

3 months

136
Q

Men who are Circumcised are _____ likely to get HIV

A

Less

137
Q

What drug class reduces symptoms of muscle weakness from myasthenia gravis

A

Anticholinesterase drugs

Pelicano 3rd Semester (6 decks)

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