Module 2 Care of the patient with an immune disorder Flashcards
1
Q
Quality of being unaffected by a particular disease
A
Immunity
2
Q
Name 3 functions of immune system
A
Protects body’s internal environment from invading organisms
Maintains homeostasis by removing damaged cells from circulation
Recognizes & guards against development & growth of abnormal cells
3
Q
Considered the 1st line of Defense
A
Natural immunity
4
Q
Provides Physical & chemical barriers to invading pathogens & protects against external environment
A
Natural immunity
5
Q
Considered the 2nd line of defense
A
Acquired immunity
6
Q
Also referred to as the Adaptive immunity
A
Acquired immunity
7
Q
provides a specific reaction to invading antigens by producing specific antibodies against them
A
Acquired immunity
8
Q
Natural immunity is the immunity that you are
A
Born with
9
Q
Cells that engulf & destroy microorganisms
A
Macrophages
10
Q
T cells and B cells are what type of cells
A
Lymphocytes
11
Q
Cell that attracts macrophages to site of infection or inflammation
A
T cells
12
Q
Cells that produce antibodies in response to antigen
A
B cells
13
Q
What cells are affected by HIV
A
T cells
14
Q
Cells that recognize antigens and turns immune system on
A
CD4 Helper B Cells
15
Q
Suppressor Cells (CD8) tells….
A
immune system when to turn off
16
Q
Cells that destroy bacteria, viruses, cancer, and causes rejection are called
A
Cytotoxic
17
Q
Activated by B Cells; a form of immunity that responds to antigens by producing antibodies; RESPONDS SLOWLY TO 1ST EXPOSURE with rapid response to SUBSEQUENT EXPOSURES DUE TO MEMORY
A
Humoral Immunity
18
Q
Cell mediated immunity - results when T cells are activated by an antigen
A
Cellular immunity
19
Q
An example of Immunotherapy is
A
Allergy shots
20
Q
Controlled exposure to disease producing pathogens; develop antibody production while preventing disease
A
Immunizations
21
Q
Administration of increasingly large doses of offending allergens to gradually develop immunity; stimulate formation of antibodies & build tolerance with increase in S/S of allergy
A
Immunotherapy
22
Q
For Local allergic reaction we administer
A
antihistamines
23
Q
For Systemic allergic reactions we administer
A
Epinephrine
24
Q
inappropriate response & excessive response of the immune system to an antigen; genetic defect that allows increased production of IgE
A
Hypersensitivity
25
Hypersensitivity is an
Allergy
26
Anaphylaxis is directly related to
Systemic reaction
27
Benadryl is used to treat a
Local allergic reaction
28
increased susceptibility to infection due to inadequate cellular & humoral immune response
Immunodeficiency disease
29
the bodys immune system attacks itself; cannot distinguish self from a foreign invader
Autoimmune disease
30
Presence of hives or welts in an allergic reaction caused by drugs, food, insect bites
Urticaria
31
Signs and Symptoms of Urticaria include (3)
pruritus
burning pain
scratching
32
What should we do for a person developing pruritus
Benadryl and cool compressors
33
A form of urticaria, but penetrates the subcutaneous tissue causing local edema of an area
Angioedema
34
What are 5 S/S of Angioedema
Lesions, Edema, Burning, Pruritus, Pain
35
What should we do for Angioedema
Check for airway first (patient might need epinephrine) Cool compress
36
Lacrimation is
Tearing
37
Also known as Hay fever
Allergic Rhinitis & Allergic Conjunctivitis
38
Result of antigen/antibody reaction in nasal membrane, nasopharynx or conjunctiva from inhaled or contact allergen.
Allergic Rhinitis & Allergic Conjunctivitis
39
What are 6 S/S of Allergic Rhinitis & Allergic Conjunctivitis
```
Sneezing
Congestion
Lacrimation
Epistaxis
Blurred vision
Otitis Media
```
40
What is something we can administer for Allergic Rhinitis & Allergic Conjunctivitis
Nasal Corticosteroids
41
Eczema is also known as
Atopic Dermatitis
42
Antigen / Antibody reaction associated with allergies to chocolate, eggs, wheat, OJ, Milk
Atopic Dermatitis
43
What are 3 S/S of Atopic Dermatitis
Papular and vesicular lesions
Erythema
Yellow exudate that dries
44
What is the nurses role with a patient who is experiencing Atopic Dermatitis
Maintain hydration of the skin
45
Reaction to latex proteins can occur within
minutes
46
S/S of a Latex allergy includes (5)
```
Wheezing
Dyspnea
Feeling of faintness
laryngospasm
Cardiac arrest
```
47
What should we be checking cross sensitivity to with a patient who has had a latex allergy (5)
Avocados, Bananas, Kiwi, Pineapples & Chestnuts
48
Autograft is
From one site to another person
49
Isograft is
transfer of tissue from identical people (twins)
50
Allograft is
transplant between members of the same species
51
Xenograft is
One species to another
52
Numbers from a Transfusion reaction must be checked by
2 Nurses
53
Plasma Cell Disorder, Immunodeficiency disorder
Multiple Myeloma
54
A malignancy which plasma cells multiply uncontrollably and infiltrate bone marrow, lymph nodes & other tissues; as these cells proliferate they replace bone marrow causing pain, fractures, and deformities.
Multiple Myeloma
55
Multiple Myeloma occurs more frequently in
African American Men after age 40
56
Multiple Myeloma is a form of
Cancer
57
Multiple Myeloma causes what CBC count to be low
WBC
58
Multiple Myeloma patients have bones that can
fracture easily
59
Frequent bacterial infections, Fatigue, Anemia, Weakness, Pathological fractures are all S/S of
Multiple Myeloma
60
What can we use to diagnose Multiple Myeloma
Urine for Bence Jones
61
Multiple Myeloma can cause Calcium and Phosphorus not to be in bone causing an increase of what in the bone
Blood
62
If plasma cells in bone make a tumor in the bone what could be done (Multiple Myeloma)
Chemotherapy
63
If RBC count is too low for Multiple Myeloma patients what can we do
Blood transfusion
64
Osteoporosis is
Bone demineralization
65
Osteoporosis is related to what immunodeficiency disease
Multiple Myeloma
66
What is the most important teaching in a patient with Multiple Myeloma
Prevent Falls, bone injury
67
What should patients with Multiple Myeloma be wearing
Red-alert bracelet
68
Chronic autoimmune disorder characterized by episodes of weakness in voluntary muscles
Myasthenia Gravis
69
Myasthenia Gravis is most common in
Women between 20-30
70
S/S of Myasthenia Gravis (4)
Weakness of facial, speech and chewing muscles
Smile looks like grimace
Fine motor skills are affected
Eyelid Ptosis
71
Eyelid ptosis is .... and is related to
droopy eyelids ... Myasthenia Gravis
72
How do we diagnose Myasthenia Gravis (3)
Check for elevated blood levels of Acetylcholine receptor antibodies
Injection of Tensilon will show dramatic improvement of muscle strength
EMG will show muscle fatigue
73
In Myasthenia Gravis patients a CT Scan can show a tumor in the
Thymus
74
EMG stand for
Electromyelogram
75
What is the main tx for Myasthenia Gravis
Anticholinesterase agents
76
If Anticholinesterase agents aren't given on time what could it lead to
Myasthenia Crisis
77
Myasthenia Crisis is
The inability to speak or swallow w/ dramatic muscle weakness
78
Plasmapheresis can be used to tx Myasthenia Gravis. Plasmapheresis is ....
Removing excess antibodies
79
What is the most important intervention with Myasthenia Gravis patients
Prevent respiratory blocking, Maintain airway
80
For Myasthenia Gravis patients we should have a ________
Suction machine at the bedside
81
Myasthenia Gravis can wear a
Medic Alert bracelet
82
Chronic inflammatory connective tissue disease
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
83
SLE stands for
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
84
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is more common in
Asian, Hispanic, African Women
85
Production of antibodies that react with their corresponding antigen to form immune complexes, which are then deposited in the connective tissue of blood/lymphatic vessels & other tissues, inflammatory response damages the tissue AFFECTS SKIN
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
86
Early S/S of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus mimic
Rheumatoid Arthritis
87
Butterfly rash is associated with
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
88
How can we diagnose Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Antinuclear Antibody test
89
Lupus can affect
Bone Marrow
90
In patients with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus CRP and ESR levels are increased with
Exacerbations
91
During an Anti Nuclear antibody test those with immune disorders 99% with SLE are
positive
92
In diagnosing Systemic Lupus Erythematosus we must find how many S/S in order to call it Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
4 (Looking for positive ANA with 3 other criteria)
93
Anti-DNA can be used to diagnose
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
94
How do we tx Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Since there is no cure, we can only decrease inflammation and teach patient to avoid injury
95
In Systemic Lupus Erythematosus patients we must teach them to avoid Sodium because
Reacts with Corticosteroids
96
In Systemic Lupus Erythematosus we should encourage to wear
Medic-alert bracelet
97
in 1981 Aids was identified among HOMOSEXUAL MEN who had developed opportunistic diseases such as
PCP and Kaposi's Sarcoma
98
Jiroveci is also known as
PCP
99
HIV/AIDS are more common in
Homosexual African American Men
100
HIV is described as a _______ because it reproduces in a backward manner
Retrovirus
101
Virus enters the blood and attaches to CD4 + T4 helper cells
HIV
102
The virus could remain inactive for years; during this stage. B-cell antibodies are produced in a process known as
Seroconversion
103
Best way to prevent HIV is
Condoms
104
HIV from Mother to fetus is called
Vertical Transmission
105
HIV is found in all orifices in the body except (3)
Saliva, Tears, and Sweat
106
What is the main test used to check for HIV
ELISA test
107
After 2 positive ELISA tests a ________ is done
Western blot
108
Western blot is the only
Definitive test for HIV
109
What is the CD4 norm
800-1200 mm3
110
HIV + CD4 less than 200 (or an opportunistic infection) =
AIDS
111
Used to check level of virus in blood; can predict disease progression & LT clinical outcome
Viral Load Monitoring
112
The 6 main opportunistic diseases of HIV are
```
PCP
Kaposis Sarcoma
Herpes Simplex Virus
Candida Albicans
Varicella Zoster Virus (Shingles)
Tuberculosis
```
113
The most common opportunistic infection of HIV ( S/S are fever, night sweats, SOB, cough )
PCP (Jiroveci)
114
Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia is also known as
PCP
115
opportunistic disease where tumors develop in the lining of small blood vessels, causing reddish-purple lesions on the skin & mucous membranes
Kaposis Sarcoma
116
We can only diagnose Kaposi's Sarcoma with
Biopsy
117
opportunistic disease where vesicular eruptions in oral cavity & perineal area, blurred vision, retinal necrosis
HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus)
118
opportunistic disease where patient can experience Rash, Pain, Pruritus, and Ocular lesions
Varicella Zoster Virus (Shingles)
119
Weight loss of 10% associated with HIV/Aids is called
Wasting Syndrome
120
Antiretroviral therapy is used to
reduce ability of HIV to replicate by interfering with enzymes
121
Highly Active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) combines how many drugs
3 or 4 Antiviral drugs
122
For a HIV/Aids patient it is important to teach them to see there
Dentist a lot
123
3 Fun facts about HIV/Aids
Avoid Cat feces
Liquids must be pasteurized
Avoid foods that can cause infection
124
In using bleach we should tell patient to use _____ for blood
1 cup
125
1 part bleach is
10 parts water
126
How to protect during sex (3)
Use latex condoms
Use lubes not oil based
If allergic to latex use (Polyurethane)
127
For a patient with HIV who has diarrhea what food should we teach them to avoid
Raw fruits and vegetables
128
Main 2 S/S of SLE are
Joint edema and tenderness
129
For a patient that has Kaposi's Sarcoma before entering room we should dawn
Gown and gloves
130
What is a common symptom that anaphylaxis is occurring
Wheezing
131
A patient who has Allergic Rhinitis that is not compliant with tx regimen is at risk for developing
Sinusitis
132
If a patient reports of becoming very sick because of an antibiotic in the past what should we do
Do not give antibiotic
133
If patient develops anaphylactic reaction to IV penicillin what should be nurses first action
TURN OFF IV
134
Angioedema differs from urticaria because
Angioedema has a deeper and more widespread edema
135
Viral load testing should be done every
3 months
136
Men who are Circumcised are _____ likely to get HIV
Less
137
What drug class reduces symptoms of muscle weakness from myasthenia gravis
Anticholinesterase drugs
