Module 18 Wk 1 Flashcards

1
Q

(Intro to herd and flock health: population medicine)

What are two common issues with herd health?

A
  • Vets not having enough time to devote
  • Herd owners reluctant to invest more finances in a situation that has already had significant loss
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2
Q

What should your 5 on farm approach steps be?

A
  1. Understand the farm
  2. Investigate the problem
  3. Relate findings to the farmer
  4. Facilitate decision making
  5. Establish monitoring
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3
Q

When defining the problem in the herd what should compare the extent of the problem to?

A

Published benchmark, historical expectations, goals of the framer and performance of local farmers.

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4
Q

When identify groups for comparison what info should you collect?

A

Collect all relevent info on diseased and non-diseased groups

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5
Q

What samples can you take when dealing with herds?

A
  • blood
  • feaces
  • milk
  • soil
  • tissue
  • urine
  • feed
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6
Q

When sampling what should you consider?

A
  • Age groups
  • Management groups
  • Numbers of animals
  • Prevalence of disease
  • Cost of test
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7
Q

What are the main options for controlling disease outbreaks?

A

Management changes, mass vaccination, selective culling, and quarantine.

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8
Q

What are some key management changes to prevent disease spread?

A

Improved biosecurity, sanitation, and monitoring protocols.

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9
Q

What is the purpose of mass vaccination in disease control?

A

To build herd immunity and reduce disease transmission.

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10
Q

When is selective culling used as a disease control method?

A

When infected or high-risk animals need to be removed to prevent further spread.

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11
Q

How does quarantine help in disease control?

A

It isolates infected or exposed individuals to prevent further spread.

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12
Q

Why is follow-up necessary after an intervention?

A

To assess effectiveness, detect new cases, and adjust strategies.

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13
Q

Why is it important to manage expectations for interventions?

A

Some methods take time to show results, and complete eradication may not always be possible.

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14
Q

What role does continuous surveillance play in disease management?

A

It helps track disease trends and detect re-emergence early.

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15
Q

Why is a combination of control methods often the best approach?

A

No single method is 100% effective; a multi-faceted approach improves outcomes.

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16
Q

What are key strategies for long-term disease prevention?

A

Regular vaccinations, ongoing biosecurity measures, and education on best practices.

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17
Q

How is prevention better than a cure, how do you do this?

A

You used her health planning along with farm production data, visit regularly and take a interest!!!!

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18
Q

What is the goal of herd health?

A

Maintaining animal health and production at the most efficient level for profitability and sustainability.

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19
Q

What defines good animal health?

A

Absence of clinical and subclinical disease, and complete physical, mental, and social well-being.

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20
Q

Why is preventative medicine important in herd health?

A

It prevents disease, improves welfare, and enhances production efficiency.

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21
Q

How does herd health impact food production?

A

It ensures a steady supply of safe, high-quality animal products like milk, beef, and pork.

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22
Q

What is pre-harvest risk reduction?

A

mplementing health measures before slaughter to improve food safety.

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23
Q

How do environmental and economic efficiency contribute to sustainability?

A

They optimize resource use and maintain long-term food production viability.

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24
Q

How does herd health impact farm profitability?

A

Healthier animals lead to better production efficiency, reducing costs and increasing revenue.

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25
Q

hat is the veterinarian’s role in herd health management?

A

Advising on disease prevention, productivity, and farm business success.

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26
Q

Are farm assurance schemes and herd health plans the same?

A

No, farm assurance schemes focus on compliance, while herd health plans focus on proactive disease management.

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27
Q

What are the three key steps in herd health management?

A

1) Understanding the farm
2) Following the herd health cycle
3) Effective communication.

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28
Q

What are the problems with teh structure of agricultural food production system?

A

There are thousands of independent producers, a lack of cutomer awareness of the system and dissociation between primary producers and end consumers.

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29
Q

Who is the red tractor farm assureance diary scheme ran by?

A

Run by a board of farmers, industry leaders and vets

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30
Q

How does the farm assurance certification work?

A

all farms must be inspected and re-certified every years by an independant inspector.

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31
Q

What is the ideal herd/flock health plan?

A
  • active
  • bespoke to that farm
  • contains accurate and current data
  • key info sources appraised frequently
  • client should be chared appropriately
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32
Q

What are the three key steps in the herd health cycle?

A

plan, Do, Review – a continuous improvement process for herd management.

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33
Q

What is the main goal of the herd health cycle?

A

To enhance veterinary input, preventative medicine, and herd health planning.

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34
Q

What are the main benefits of using the herd health cycle?

A

Increased welfare, food safety, quality, and farm efficiency.

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35
Q
A
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36
Q

How does the herd health cycle support preventative medicine?

A

It promotes proactive disease prevention rather than reactive treatment.

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37
Q

Why might some farmers and vets view the herd health cycle negatively?

A

It can be seen as unnecessary paperwork or government overreach.

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38
Q

What is a common challenge with herd health plans?

A

Ensuring compliance and translating written plans into real changes on farms.

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39
Q

Why might herd health plans fail to change behavior?

A

Farmers may not see value in them, or they may not be practical for daily farm operations.

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40
Q

How does increased veterinary input benefit herd health?

A

It helps in disease prevention, improves animal welfare, and enhances productivity.

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41
Q

How can vets and advisors encourage farmers to adopt herd health planning?

A

By demonstrating economic benefits, practical applications, and long-term improvements.

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42
Q

How does the herd health cycle contribute to farm sustainability?

A

It improves efficiency, reduces disease outbreaks, and enhances long-term productivity.

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43
Q

What does a sairy fertility health herd health plan look like?

A
  • Calving pattern
  • heifer management
  • BCS and nutrition
  • Heat detection
  • Dealing with non-cyclers
  • geneticcs and AB practices
  • bull management
  • cow health
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44
Q

Describe incalf 4 step process

A

Step 1 = assess cureent herp repro performance
Step 2 = identify scope for improvement and assoc benefits
Step 3 = consider options for change and select best option(s)
Step 4 = implement selected management option(s)

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45
Q

What problem did the farmer approach the vets with?

A

Underperforming heifers with milk production at 70% of mature cows’ production.

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46
Q

What are the key steps in investigating heifer underperformance?

A

Early pregnancy testing (matched to mating dates)
Calculating first service conception rates
Checking milk production data
Calculating liveweight BV (genetics)

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47
Q

Why is weighing heifers regularly important?

A

Guestimates are not accurate enough
Being at target weights is critical for longevity in the herd
Helps track growth and ensure proper development

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48
Q

What is the liveweight BV (breeding value) of the heifers?

A

506 kg

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49
Q

What are the flock health planning objectives?

A
  • Health scheme
  • Farm assured
  • Hill / lowland / upland
  • Selling stores / finished
  • Organic
  • Pedigree
  • Hobby
  • Other enterprises? like beef or farm shop
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50
Q

How can you help sheep farmers record data?

A
  • abattoir feedback
  • numbers sold
  • fallen stock records
  • scanning data
  • practice records
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51
Q

Describe the sheep production calender?

A

Housing
- lambing
Turn out
- draw lambs
- weaning
- Tup in
- Tup out

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52
Q

What is the role of the vet and their input at lambing time?

A

To keep ontop of lambing records
- no of lambs alive/dead
- no of ewes lambed
- no of twin, singles etc
- no of lambs dying
- prolapses
- abortion
- caserarians

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53
Q

What is the vets role and input when turning flock out to grass?

A
  • preventive parasite control
  • record groth rates
  • investiagte any losses
  • Opportuinity for EID
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54
Q

What is the vets input at pre-breeding time?

A
  • BVC ewe
  • check genetics
  • Tup MOT
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55
Q

What the vets role at scanning time?

A
  • divide flock for feeding
  • investigate disease, nutrition and tip
  • Keep records
  • check vaccines
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56
Q

(pre-partum conditions of cattle and approach to routine calving)

What are risk factors for vaginal prolapse in cows??

A
  • breed = hereford
  • BCS = fat
  • Lax sacrotuberous ligaments/vulva
  • previous perineal trauma
  • oestrogenic pastures
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57
Q

When do vaginal prolapses occur in cows?

A

Last trimester

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58
Q

What is the 4 grade system for vaginal prolapses in cattle?

A

1.Intermittent only when cow lying down, vaginal tissue fine
2. Continuous prolapse, urinary bladder might be trapped
3. Continuous prolapse, urinary bladder trapped, tissue starts to be compromised
4. As above but include cervix, tissue infected, necrotic and sepsis/peritonitis possible

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59
Q

Describe how you would performa causdal epidural?

A
  1. Lift tail up/down – ID junction between last stationary and first moving vertebrae (sacrococcygeal space S5 – C1) or first coccygeal space (C1 – C2)
  2. Clip and surgical scrub site
  3. 18g x 1.5 inch needle (pink) for adult cow
  4. Insert needle 90 degree to skin
  5. Hanging drop OR attached syringe - should inject with no resistance
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60
Q

How do you correct a vaginal prolapse?

A
  • assess viability of tissue
  • clean and apply plenty lube
  • replace back into bag
  • buhners sticth with uterine tape
  • NSAIDS, broad spectum abs
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61
Q

What is Hydrops?

A

excessive production or accumulation of fetal fluids in the allantoic or amniotic sac.

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62
Q

What are the two types of Hydrops?

A

Hydrallantois (affecting the allantoic sac) and Hydramnios (affecting the amniotic sac).

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63
Q

Hydrallantois is associated with which condition?

A

Placental disease.

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64
Q

When does Hydrallantois typically occur?

A

In the 3rd trimester of pregnancy.

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65
Q

What are the clinical signs of Hydrallantois?

A

Acute onset
Severe abdominal distension
May show systemic illness (down, weak)
Prepubic tendon rupture possible

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66
Q

How does Hydrallantois appear on rectal examination?

A

Placentomes cannot be felt
Uterus feels enlarged and fluid-filled everywhere
Ultrasound required for diagnosis (compare with a normal cow)

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67
Q

What differentiates Hydramnios from Hydrallantois?

A

Hydramnios is chronic and less severe, while Hydrallantois is acute and severe.

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68
Q

How do you treat hydrops?

A

Elective c section or induce with PGF 2 alpha, prognosis is poor so you should put down

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69
Q

T/F all beef abortions are reportable?

A

trueeee

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70
Q

What abortions are reportable in dairy cows?

A

Aborted cows that are not screened by regular herd bulk milk samples

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71
Q

Describe the 1st stage of normal calving 0-24hrs

A
  • Uternine contractions
  • behavioural chnages
  • Tail head raises up and swishing tail
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72
Q

Describe the 2nd stage of the normal calving, 30mins-4hrs

A
  • Water bag appears
  • Abdominal contractions +++
  • Feet appear
  • Calf born
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73
Q

How long should the calve be born after appearence of the water bag?

A

should be within 1.5 hours of water bag

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74
Q

What are a few things you should check when going to calving without doing a full clin exam?

A
  • BCS
  • General demeanour
  • Udder
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75
Q

Is the cervix open or closed?

A

closed = feel closed cervix/calf through uterine wall
half open = feel ring
open = dont feel cervix, merges into vag wall and straight to calf

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76
Q

How can you tell if calf is dead or alive?

A
  • pinch toe
  • hand in mouth to test gag reflex
  • poke eye
  • anal reflex
  • feel heart/pulse
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77
Q

What are warning signs that you should not deliver the calf per vagina?

A
  • feet crossed
  • feet rotating inwards
  • no progress with delayed waterbag
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78
Q

How do you handle a calving where the head is back?

A
  • Push body back via brisket
  • Grasp mandible
  • direct head over into pelvis
  • head rope iften needed to line up head within pelvis
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79
Q

How do you handle a calving where both front legs are back?

A
  • Push heand and calf back in
  • pull legs up and into canal
  • cusp bottom of hoof
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80
Q

How do you a handle a calving where the head and 1 leg present

A
  • Dont pull
  • Treat as head only
  • Push back and pull other leg up
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81
Q

How would you handle a calving where they are presented backwards?

A
  • fully extend legs
  • rotate calf slightly
  • traction upwards
  • traction horizontal
  • when hips visible downwards traction
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82
Q

What drug should you used to relax the uterus?

A

Clenbuterol 10ml slow IV

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83
Q

Aparty from relaxing uterus what else does clenbuterol do at partutrition?

A
  • Gives space for correcting mal-presentations
  • Delays incolution and makes stitching easier when ceasering
  • Delays calving
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84
Q
A
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85
Q

(Neonatal management and colostrum feeding)

What is failure to trasfer passive immunity?

A

Calf born in an immunocompromised state

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86
Q

Why musy calfs ingest quality colostrum?

A

To develop passive immunity via colostral IgG molecule absorption across neonatal intestinal epithelial cells

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87
Q

What are the short term effects Of FTPI for farmers?

A

More deaths and sickness

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88
Q

What are the long term effects Of FTPI for farmers?

A

Production effects (growth and milk production) and animal elfare implications

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89
Q
A
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89
Q

What sitiations would leaf to FTPI?

A
  • cows not getting up to their feet
  • calves weak
  • Poor quaility colostrum
  • Not enough colostrum produced
  • High yeilding cows means dilution of the colostrum
  • Mis-mothering
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90
Q

Why is colostrum so important?

A

It provied immediate humoral immunity, local immunity and energy to calf.

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91
Q

How much IgG should be in colostrum for it to be good quality?

A
  • more than 50g/l of IgG
  • low total bacterial count
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92
Q

How much colostrum should halve recieve and when?

A

10-15% BW in colostrum (150-200g IgG) ideally in first 6-12hrs of life

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93
Q

What can a high bacteria count in colostrum interfere with?

A

Absorption of IgG

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94
Q

When does bacterial contamination of colocstrum occur?

A

At harvest, during storage and feeding

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95
Q

What methods of feeding colostrum are there?

A
  • Bucket
  • Oesophageal tube
  • Bottle
  • Gate rail teat feeders
  • Mother?
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96
Q

What are the factors that influence the quality of the colostrum produced?

A
  • Age
  • Breed
  • Volume of colostrum
  • Season
  • Nutrition pre-calving
  • Vaccination
  • Dry period length
  • Mastitis/sickness
  • Delayed collection
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97
Q

What can colostrum aid the spread of?

A
  • Johne’s Disease
  • Salmonella
  • E. Coli
  • Mycoplasma
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98
Q

What can you do if calfs own mothers colostrum is not available?

A
  • Fresh colostrum from another cow from same farm
  • Frozen colostrum from another cow from same farm
  • artificial colostrum
  • colostrum from another farm
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99
Q

(Neonatal Calf Diarrhoea)

What are the 2 priniciples of preventing calf scour?

A
  • boosting the calfs immunity and resitistance to disease
  • minimising infectious pressure
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100
Q

what is the golden period that allows the ebst absorption of colostrol antibodies?

A

first 6-12hrs

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101
Q

How often should calves be fed for the first three week and why?

A

twice daily as their stomach capacity is only 1.5-2L whihc means they wont get enough feed if fed once.

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102
Q

How should colostrum be stored?

A

Needs to be stored in a lidded drum and stirred regularly. Refirgerated or added preservatuve will help to keep colostrum fresh

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103
Q

How should housing be to minimise infectious pressures at calving?

A

Dry and draught free with good drainage and ventilation systems with solid partitions beterrn calf pens

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104
Q

Describe how stock density should be managed to minimise infectious pressures when housing calves.

A

calves need a minimium of 1.5m2. No more than 100 calves per shed and no more than 20 calves per pen

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105
Q

How far away should calf housing be from milking shed?

A

at least 20m

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106
Q

Why should bought-in animals be quarantined?

A

Bought-in animals, especially from multiple sources, pose a disease risk. They should be kept separate from farm-reared animals.

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107
Q

When should sick calves be fed?

A

Feed sick calves last and use a separate feeder if possible to prevent disease spread.

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108
Q

What should be done with sick calves?

A

Remove them promptly from healthy ones and move them to a separate shed or at least a separate pen with a solid partition.

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109
Q

What biosecurity measures should be taken when handling calves?

A

Clean boots and overalls thoroughly, and wear gloves when feeding calves to reduce disease transmission.

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110
Q

What is the mechanism of secretory diarrhea?

A

Electrolytes (Na+, Cl-) are actively secreted into the intestines, and water follows, causing watery diarrhea.

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111
Q

How does osmotic diarrhea occur?

A

Non-absorbable solutes pull water into the intestine, increasing stool water content.

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112
Q

What happens to the intestines in malabsorption diarrhea?

A

The intestinal lining is damaged, leading to reduced absorption of nutrients and water.

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113
Q

How does SIBO contribute to diarrhea?

A

Bacterial overgrowth (e.g., E. coli) ferments food, producing D-lactate, which leads to acidosis

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114
Q

What are signs of D-lactic acidosis in SIBO?

A

Confusion, ataxia, fatigue due to D-lactate accumulation.

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115
Q

Which pathogens cause secretory diarrhea?

A

Vibrio cholerae, enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC).

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116
Q

What are common causes of osmotic diarrhea?

A

Lactose intolerance, artificial sweeteners (sorbitol, mannitol).

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117
Q

What are the bacterial causes of calf scour?

A
  • salmonella
  • ecoli
  • camyylobactor
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118
Q

What are the viral causes of calf scour?

A
  • rotavirus
  • Coronavirus
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119
Q

What are the parasitic causes of calf scour?

A
  • coccidiosis
  • crypto
  • worms
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120
Q

What is ecoli bacteria?

A

gram neg, facultatively anaerobic rod bacteria found in the enviroment

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121
Q

What is the pathophysiogy of e-coli bacteria?

A

It causes hypersecretion/non-absorption of fluid in distal SI

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122
Q

Once e-coli bacteria is colonised in SI where do they travel?

A

Proximally

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123
Q

What is the function of the K99 antigen in E. coli infections?

A

It helps E. coli bind to the intestinal epithelium, allowing colonization and infection.

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124
Q

In which group of patients is K99-positive E. coli commonly found?

A

Neonatal animals (e.g., calves, piglets) and sometimes human infants.

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125
Q

How does the heat-stable toxin (ST) cause diarrhea?

A

It stimulates Cl⁻ and HCO₃⁻ secretion into the intestine, causing water to follow and leading to secretory (and osmotic) diarrhea.

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126
Q

What types of diarrhea does the heat-stable toxin cause?

A

Secretory diarrhea (due to active ion secretion) and osmotic diarrhea (due to water retention).

127
Q

What is the main type of diarrhea caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)?

A

Secretory diarrhea, similar to cholera.

128
Q

What age of calfs does E.coli prodominently effect?

A

less than 5days

129
Q

What are clinical signs does a calf with E.coli present with?

A

young, sick calf
profuse foul smelling scour
- +/- blood
- +/- pyrexia
Wet mouth
Distended Abdomen

130
Q

How do calfs acquire salmonlella?

A

Frome the enviroment or mothers milk

131
Q

What is the pathophysiology of salmonella bacteria?

A

They are engulfed into intestinal Lymphoid cells, massive inflam response.

132
Q

What is the most common type of samonella in the UK

133
Q

What are the clinical signs of Salmonella in calfs?

A

Pyrexia
+/- septicaemia
Vascular necrosis
Quick death

134
Q

What age does rotavirus effect calfs?

135
Q

What is the pathology of rotavirus?

A

It invades enterocytes, replicated then kills them producing enterotoxin

136
Q

What are the clinical signs seen in calfs with rotavirus?

A
  • Older
  • White scour
  • Dehydraion
137
Q

T/F coronavirus is very similar to rotavirus

138
Q

What is the pathophysiology og rotavirus?

A

It starts in the porximal SI and then spreads and becomes intracellular

139
Q

What is the cause of death in calfs with cornoavirus?

A

DEHYDRATION

140
Q

What age range does cryptosporidium effect calfs?

A

1wk-3months

141
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Crypto?

A

Invagination of luminal membrane, villous atrophym crypt hyperplasia, increased cell permeability, apoptosis

142
Q

What kind of diarrheoa does crypto cause in calfs?

A

malsorbation/osmotic

143
Q

What are the clinical signs that a calf who has crypto may present with?

A

Dehydration

144
Q

What age range of calfs does coccidiosis effect?

A

3wks-3months

145
Q

What is the pathophysiology og coccidiosis?

A

Rupture of enterocytes

146
Q

What kind of diarrheoa does coccidiosis cause in calves?

A

malsorption/osmotic

147
Q

What are signs of coccidiosis in calves?

A
  • Older
  • Black/bloody diarrheoa
  • abdo pain
  • tenesmus
148
Q

How can you test for pathogens that might be causing calf scour?

A
  • feacal sample - culture for bac, virology for corona/rota and parasitology for cocci and crypto
  • calf side test (ELISA)
  • PM
  • Histopath
149
Q

What are treatment options for cald scours?

A

REHYDRATEEEEE via fluid therapy

150
Q

What are consequences of scouring in the calf?

A
  • Dehydration/hypovolaemia
  • Azotemia
  • electrolyte loses
  • acidosis
  • hyperkalaemia
  • cardiac arrythmia
151
Q

Why can calf scour cause cardiac arrythmias?

A

Loss of fluid and electrolytes

152
Q

How does metabolic acidosis present in the calf?

A
  • Progressive depression
  • Decreased suckle reflex
  • Weakness and incoordination
  • Inability to stand or sit up
  • Coma
  • Finally….death
153
Q

Why is metabolic acidosis common in valves with diarrhoea?

A
  • Intestinal loss of Na
  • Loss of bicarb into the gut
  • Lactic acid production in shocked tissue
  • volatile FFA production in the colon from partially digested food
154
Q

When treating a calf with scour, when should you give oral fluids?

A

Able to stand, less than 7% and no signs of acidosis.

155
Q

When treating calf scour when should you give IV fluids?

A

When calf is recumbant, 7-9% and there is slight acidosis

156
Q

When treating calf scour when should you use IVFT in combo with bicarb

A

Calf recumbant, more than 9% and mod to severe acidosis.

157
Q

For mild acidosis which fluid type should you use?

A

Lactated/acetate fluids

158
Q

For moderate acidosis what type of fluid should you use?

A

Lactated/acetate fluids PLUS 15g bicarb

159
Q

For severe acidosis what type of fluid should you use?

A

Lactated/aceteate fluids plus 35g bicarb

160
Q

Why should you not add bicarb to fluid containing calcium?

A

Because it causes precipitation

161
Q

What is the general rule about bicarb administartion in calves?

A

only admin is more than 7 days old that have failed to respond to fluids and have clear signs of acidosis

162
Q

What is the most likely reason that a strong acidosis is more severe in calves more than 7 days old than calves less than 7 days

A

May be due to an increased D-lactate concentration (a strong anion) becomes much more common as calves become older; this has been attributed to fermentation of ingested milk by Gram-positive bacteria to D-lactate because of decrease lactase activity and damaged intestinal epithelium.

163
Q

What is the simple rule of thumb for rate of admin of inotonic Na bicarb

A

10% BW over a peiod of several hours

164
Q

What are cautions with Bicarb?

A
  • IV Na bicarb should NOT be administered to calves w sevre resp issues
  • Co2 production may exacerbate hypercapnia and resp acisosis and decrease cerebrospinal fluid pH
  • avoid admin to calves with resp distress
165
Q

What are the 4 aspects of oral fluid therapy?

A
  1. Replacement of fluid to the circulating plasma volume and interstitium
  2. Provision of alkalinising agents to improve the buffering capacity of the blood.
  3. Increasing the strong ion difference by replacing lost sodium and potassium
  4. Maintaining blood glucose levels
166
Q

Should you mix electrolytes with milk?

A

No it could interfere with casein coagulation in the abomasum

167
Q

What is treatment beyond fluids for calf scour?

A
  1. Treat/prevent septicaemia/bacteraemia
  2. Decrease number of coliforms (SIBO)
  3. Encourage immunity/resistance
  4. Provide nutrition
  5. Control pain
168
Q

Why should you use antimicrobials to treat calf scour?

A
  • Systemic signs (pyrexia, decreased app, lethargy- Ecoli)
  • Blood/mucosa present
  • Suspect Salmonella or Ecoli
169
Q

Why are steriods not recommended to treat calf scour?

A

diarrheoa calfs already have high steroid levels

170
Q

(other calf diseases)

What does rge umbilicous in the calf consist of?

A
  • urachus attaching to vestigal part of bladder apex
  • Umbilical vein attaching to round ligature of liver
  • Umbilical artery attaching to lateral ligature of bladder
171
Q

what does calf navel ill lead too?

A

Multiple abcesses in liver

172
Q

What does omphalitis mean?

A

infection in umbilicus

173
Q

What does omphaloarteritis mean?

A

Infection in umbilical artery

174
Q

What does impahophlebitis mean?

A

Infection in umbilical vein

175
Q

How does an umbilical infection occur?

A
  • Infection gains access while stump is still wet as open access to bloodstream
  • poor management of umbilicus
  • dirty enviro
  • passive transfer failure
176
Q

What are clinical signs that there is an umbilicus infection?

A
  • Hot/swollen/painful umbilicus (US)
  • +/- pus
  • +/- lameness
  • +/- intermittent purulent discharge
  • +/- systemic signs –dull, illthrifty, inappetent
  • +/- urinary signs, persistent urachus (urinalysis)
177
Q

How do you treat an umbilical infection?

A
  • Systemic antibiotics for 2-3week durations
  • If septicaemic use fluids/NSAIDs
178
Q

What might a umbilical hernia lead too?

A
  • abscessation
  • septicaemia
  • joint ill, polyarthritis
  • liver abscess or cystitis
  • hypopon antertei chamber of the eye
179
Q

How do you prevent umbilical infections?

A
  • strong iodine
  • colostrum
  • clean enviro
180
Q

What is an umbilical hernia the main diagnosis for?

A

Umbilical infection

181
Q

What are common compliactions of umbilical hernias?

A
  • adhesions
  • bowel strangulations
182
Q

How do you treat umbilical hernias in calves?

A
  • leave alone
  • surgical repair open or closed
  • DONT BREED
183
Q

Is there any hear or pain with a hernia?

184
Q

What is septic arthristis a consequence of?

A

umbilical infection or othe rinfections

185
Q

Is septic arthritis irreverisble or reversible destruction of the articular catilage?

A

irreversible

186
Q

What are the common pathogens involoved in septic arthritis?

A
  • Trupurella pyogenes
  • Streptococcus spp
  • E. coli
  • Staphyloccus spp
  • Mycoplasma
187
Q

What are the clinical signs of septic arthritis?

A
  • One/multiple joint swellings (carpus/stifle)
  • Lameness, pyrexia
  • +/- swollen navel
  • Down
  • Loss of joint movement
  • Joint capsule inflamed= loss of mobility
  • Contraction of flexor tendons
188
Q

How do you diagnose septic arthritis?

A
  • clinical signs
  • Arthrocentesis, fluid aspiration, radiograph, US
189
Q

How do you treat septic arthritis?

A
  • 3wks broad sep abs
  • NSAIDs
190
Q

What is septicaemia?

A

Systemic disease associated with the presence od pathogenic microorganism or their toxins in the blood

191
Q

What are the sources of infection that cause seoticaemia?

A
  • enviro
  • colostrum/milk
  • uterus
192
Q

What age of calves does septicaemia usulayy effect?

A

Calves less than 2 weeks old with FPT and/or exposure to bacterial pathogens

193
Q

Describe the process of how septicaemia occurs

A
  1. pathogen enters blood
  2. calf immune response unable to clear
  3. systemic immune response
  4. cascade into adverse immune response
  5. shock
  6. organ failure
195
Q

What are the clinical signs of septicaemia?

A
  • Early signs are very non-specific like depression and reduced sucking
  • Fever or hypothermia
  • sustained tachycardia
  • hyperaemia of MM and scleral injection
  • progressive shock
  • Localized infection like artheritis, hypopyon, meningitis, pneumonia
196
Q

What kind of anitbiotics do you use to treat septiceamia in calves?

A

IV, preferably, Gam negative or broad-spec initially

197
Q

Why wouls you use NSAIDs to help treat septiceamia in calves and what ones?

A

To counter pathogenic effects of inflammatory response and endotoxaemia

Flunixin meglumine

198
Q

What is the definition of meningitis?

A

Inflammation of one or more of the three covering layers of the meninges in the CNS

199
Q

How do you diagnose meningitis in a calf?

A

CS and/or CSF

200
Q

How do you treta meningitis in the calf?

A
  • antibiotics that cross BBB and broad spec for 14days
  • NSAID, sedation
201
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a calf with selenium deficiency?

A

Decreased immune response ans white muscle disease

202
Q

What is teh clinical presentation of a calf with iodine deficiency?

A

Decreased metabolic rate, inability to stand and goitre

203
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a calf witha vitamin a definiency?

A

Blindness, stillborn/weak calves

204
Q

What are the causes of pneumonia in calves?

A

aspiration via tube feeding and meconium
also via broken ribs from delivery and being stood on by cow

205
Q

What is ruminal drinking?

A

It is a rumen dysfunction caused by milk entering the rumen instead of the abomasum.

206
Q

What are the two types of ruminal drinking?

A

Sporadic – Single milk feed entering the rumen.
Chronic – Persistent issue, also called a ruminal drinker.

207
Q

What structure normally prevents milk from entering the rumen?

A

The oesophageal groove, which acts as a bypass directing milk to the abomasum.

209
Q

What are the causes of oesophageal groove failure?

A

Inconsistent milk feeding regime
Poor quality CMR (Calf Milk Replacer) or compound feeds
Tube feeding milk

210
Q

What are the clinical signs of oesophageal groove failure?

A
  • bloat
  • failure to thrive
  • poor grwoth rates
  • pot bellies appearence
  • reduced appetite
  • acidosis
  • fluid splash
211
Q

How do you treat oesophageal groove failure?

A
  • If you can pull off the milk altogether and feed good quality hay and concentrates- recovery in a couple of weeks
  • If too young to pull off milk, try to reinstate oesophageal groove - alter feeding and add bicarb/electrolytes
212
Q

What are the clinical signs of abomasitis and abomasal bloat?

A
  • rapid onset of abdo distension
  • Depression attitude
  • occasionally signs of colic
  • Teeth grinding and salivation
  • Diarrhoea
213
Q

What are keye risk factors of abomastitis?

A

Enviro that promotes an anaerobbic enviroment and presence of bacteria

214
Q

What are the main causes of abomasitis in calves?

A
  • erratic feeding schedules
  • contaminated milk or colostrum
  • High incidence of FPT
  • Inadequate water
  • Hyperconcentrated or inadequate milk replacer mixing
215
Q

(Bovine Respiratory Disease in youngstock I: The sick individual animal)

What are the major risk periods of BRD?

A
  • Up to first 24 months of life
  • Housed dairy calves
  • suckled calves at housing
  • Flowwing transport/market
216
Q

What are the potential pathogens can lead to BRD?

A
  • Viruses
  • Bacteria
  • Mycoplasma
  • Parasites
217
Q

What eniromental aspects can lead to BRD?

A
  • in adequate nutrition
  • in adequate housing
  • Inadequate air quality
  • inadequate stock density
  • inadequate weather conditions
  • inadequate transport of calfs
  • inadequate mixing of herd
218
Q

What are subjectibe clinocal signs of a cow with BRD?

A
  • Dull/depressed
  • BCS
  • Increased resp rate
  • Increased resp effort
  • ocular discharge
  • mouth breathing
  • coughing
219
Q

What are objectibe clinical signs of a cow with BRD?

A
  • increased temp
  • harsh lung sounds
  • noise from URT
220
Q

What are viral agents that cause primary BRD?

A
  • IBR (Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis)
  • PI3 (Parainfluenza virus)
  • RSV (Respiratory syncytial virus)
  • (BVD) (Bovine Viral Diarrhoea Virus)
221
Q

What are bacterial agents that can cause BRD?

A
  • Mannheimia haemolytica
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Histophilus somni
  • Mycoplasma dispar
  • Mycoplasma bovis
222
Q

For grazing cattle what two things other than the bacterial and viral agents can cause BRD?

A
  • parasitic - dictyocaulus viviparus
  • Fog fever
224
Q

What are the pneumonia classifiactions/syndromes as diagnosis for BRD?

A
  • Chronic cuffing pneumonia
  • Enzootic pneumonia
  • Infectious BOving rhinotracheitis
  • Pneumonic pasteurellosis
  • Parasitic Bronchitis
  • Fog fever
  • Chronic suppurative pneimonia
225
Q

What low grade mycoplasmas cause chronic cuffing pneumonia?

A
  • Mycoplasma dispar
  • Mycoplasma bovirhinis
  • Ureaplasma diversum
226
Q

What clinical signs do you see with chronic cuffing pneumonia?

A
  • occasional cough
  • Tachypnoea
227
Q

What clinical signs do you see in severe chronic cuffing pneumonia?

A
  • Frequent cough
  • Tachypnoea
  • Hyperpnoea
  • Decrease in excerise tolerence
  • Decrease in growth rate
  • adeventitious sounds over cranioventral lung feilds
  • Pyrexia
228
Q

Why is mycoplasma bovis pneumonia the lesions are more circular and friable than foci of necrosis?

A

due to mannheimia haemolytic or histophilus somni

229
Q

What are the clinical signs of acute enzootic pneumonia?

A
  • dull
  • anorexic
  • tachypnoeic
  • hyperpnoeic
  • pyrexia
  • nasal discharge
  • frequent coughing
  • fluid sounds and crackles
230
Q

When is pasteurallosis ie shipping fever most common?

A
  • weaned suckled calves
  • sep-dec
  • within 4weeks of housing due to stress
231
Q

Where is Mannheimia haemolytica present in healthy carriers?

A

nasal cavity

232
Q

How do you treat and control pneumonic pasteurellosis?

A

Treat like normal pneumonia, control via decreasing stress, specific vaccination and viral vaccines.

233
Q

what management factors aid with pneumonia in cattle?

A
  • adequate colostrum
  • housing design and management
  • cleaning and disinfection
  • vaccination
234
Q

What causes fog fever?

A

Amino acid L-T from grass converted by ruman bacteria to a subsatnace called 3-methylindole and this is toxic to avleoar cells

235
Q

What pasture is fog fever seen with?

A

lush pasture after 2weeks

236
Q

What are the clinical signs of fog fever?

A
  • (dyspnoea)
  • Coughing
  • Frothing at mouth
  • Cattle do not normally run a fever
  • Anxiety (separation from group)
  • Collapse
  • Death
237
Q

What is the treatment options for fog fever?

A

Corticsteroids have some effect in practice but bad prognosis

238
Q

(Bovine Respiratory Disease in youngstock 2: The herd-approach)

What dhould a BRD investigation compose of?

A
  • HIstory
  • Current and prev medicines and vaccine use
  • colostrum management
  • housing and enviro
  • define disease patterns
  • summerise findings
  • suggestions for farmer
239
Q

What things can you gather in the history for BRD?

A
  • farm disease status
  • Source of calves - are they bought in?
  • treated/vaccinated on arrival?
  • previous disease outbreaks?
  • current problem?
  • housed, recently housed, outside?
  • routine management practice?
240
Q

How can you check colostrum status in frist week of life?

A
  • blood total protein
  • brix refractometry
241
Q

What is good ventilation?

A

uniform airflow irrespective of external conditions that removes moisture, heat, pathogens and gases.

242
Q

are door good air inlets?

A

no - too drafty and too variable

243
Q

Why is concreate and metal bad housing for alves?

A

They are efficient heat conductors but poor insulators

244
Q

What is the LCT for calves less than a month?

A

10 degrees

245
Q

What are some ways to keep calves warm?

246
Q

Why is it not efficent to have calves at LCT all the time?

A

It means they use more energy, become more stressed and then there is an increased risk of disease

247
Q

What vaccination stratagies is there for BRD?

A
  • Bespoke
  • Surecalf for already-vaccinated animals pre-sale
248
Q

What are the two vaccination types for BRD?

A
  • intra-nasal
  • intra-muscular
249
Q

how long does immunity last with intranasal BRD vaccine?

250
Q

how long does immunity last with intra-muscular BRD vaccine?

A

6months but give twive 4-6weeks apart

251
Q

(Complicated calving and post-partum conditions of cows)

When does a twisted uterus generally occur?

A

In the first stage of labour generally before cervix has opened

252
Q

When there is a twisted uterus what way does it tend to twist?

A

anti-clockwise

253
Q

When internally examining acow with a twisted uterus what can it feel like?

A

a tight band or wholly closed and palpable vaginal folds

254
Q

How do you diagnose a cow in calf with a uterus twist?

A
  • history - calving long time, dosent feel right, cant feel calf
  • Distinctive vaginal and rectal exmaination
  • if cow has presented as sick mid preg
255
Q

What are the ways to try roll calf if you can feel it?

A
  1. hold onto calf and rock back back and forward to start momentum, then flio over in opposite direction of twist.
  2. gyn stick
256
Q

what are the ways to correct a uterus torsion when you cant feel the calf?

A
  • Cast and roll in the direction of the twist
257
Q

What are the risk factors that contribute to uterus twists?

A
  • cows are more prone than heifers
  • big calves
  • male calves
  • hypocalcaemia
  • excessive foetal movement
258
Q

T/F the calf isoften dead after twisted uterus calving

259
Q

What is the other name for cervical stenosis?

260
Q

T/F ring womb is more common in cattle than sheep?

A

NO - sheep dumb ass

261
Q

What are ways to aid an animal giving birth who has ring womb?

A
  • manually dilate via cone shape with hands
  • drugs - prostaglandin and oxytocin
262
Q

What prior problem is ring womb commonly after?

A

twisted uterus

263
Q

What is the treatment of vulval stenosis?

A

epidiotomy

264
Q

How should you go about dealing with dead, emphysematous or rotton calves?

A
  • Traction but dont damage cow
  • LOTS of lube yum
  • If really rotton, they will fall apart so thoroughly check you have all the bits
  • Embryotomy is a treatment option
265
Q

If there is traction you should not progress, what might this be caused by?

A
  • Malpresentation not corrected
  • calf too big - c section this
  • Deformed calve - c section so cow not damaged
266
Q

what is shistosoma reflexes?

A

A rare, fatal fetal disorder observed in ruminants and other species. Defining features include spinal inversion, exposure of abdominal viscera, and limb abnormalities.

267
Q

How do you treay shishtoma refluxus?

A

embryotomy or c sec

268
Q

What is polymelia?

A

extra limbs

269
Q

What are indications for embryotomy?

A
  • dead calf
  • unable to calve with manipulation and traction or hip lock/stuck at hips
270
Q

What drugs should you use when presented and have to perform a hip lock embryotomy?

A

Epidural and nsaids

271
Q

Describe the procedure of a hip lock embryotomy?

A
  • First try rotation or sharp turn of calfs to cows flank
  • Traction to get as mcuh of calf out as possible
  • cut tissue behind the ribs then enbryotomy wire through spine
  • pass wire dorsally over back, between legs then alont ventrum
  • thread wire onto embryotomy or pipe
  • attach wire to handles
  • muscles
  • once cut right through grab 2hind quarters and remove one at a time
272
Q

How should you manage cow post ebryotomy?

A

Down cow protocol
- cont NSAIDs
- broad spec abs
- Fluids

273
Q

What is your first step when calve first comes out?

A

umbilicus for haemorrhage

274
Q

How should you resuscitate calf after being born?

A
  • Ensure airway open and clear fluid
  • Put into sternal recumbency and extend neck
  • Water in ears, straw up nose
  • Rubbing chest, FL and HL meeting
  • Hang over gate by back legs ONLY if fluid in lung? (10 sec max)
275
Q

In terns of drugs what can aid resuscitation of calf?

A
  • doxapram
  • oral stim - energy , minarals, caffeine
  • IV bicarb
276
Q

T/F all calfs have a degree of rep acisosis at birth?

277
Q

What happens to calves where resp is delayed?

A

There is low o2 causing anaerobic acidosis which means lactic acid is produced causing metabolic acidosis

278
Q

What are consequences of acidosis in calves?

A

REDUCED
- resp function
- cardiac function
- calf vigour
- suck reflex
- IgG absorption

279
Q

What is the normal pH and acidotic pH?

A

Norm = 7.4
Acidotic = 7.2

280
Q

What are clinical signs of acidosis in calves?

A
  • No/reduced resp
  • No suck reflex
  • Time Sternal Recumbency (TSR) > 3 mins (9 mins = risk of death)
  • Time to standing > 15-30 mins
  • Dull
  • HYPERreflex
  • Scleral/conjunctival haemorrhage
281
Q

How do you treat calf with acidosis?

A

50-100ml Bicarb solution slow IV

282
Q

What is the basic rule of thumb for first colostrum intake?

283
Q

Apart from colostrum what are other vital things calves need?

A
  • iodine navel
  • clean enviro
  • NSAIDs
284
Q

How do you treat broken legs, ribs and jaws in calves?

A

Cast/repair depending on where

285
Q

How do you treat femoral nerve paralysis in calves?

A

NSAID and time

286
Q

How do you treat glossal oedema that impairs feeding in calves?

A

NSAID and time

287
Q

How do you treat umbilical haemorrhage in calves?

A

Clip/clamp immediately then suture closed

288
Q

How do you treat umbilicus that has been torn off short?

A

Umbilicus hernia surgery if develops

289
Q

What NSAID should you avoid post calving and why?

A

Flunixin due to RFM risk

290
Q

When is use of abs indicated post calving?

A

If there are any tears, dead calf, faecal/environmental contamination

291
Q

How long do cows have to live if they have a vaginal or pudendal artery haemorrhage?

292
Q

how do you deal w vaginal or pudendal artery haemorrhage?

A
  • epidural
  • strip away fat around vessel
  • place large clamp or pack vag
  • blood transfusion
293
Q

How do you manage a uterine haemorrhage?

A
  • epidral
  • pack uterus + buhner stitch
  • oxytocin
  • +/- blood tranfusion
294
Q

Describe how you would deal with a uterine prolapse?

A
  • epidural
  • clean uterus and remove/trim placenta
  • asses the tissue for viability
  • if there is a tear in uterus use everting stitch
  • hold up and push in one cotyledon at a time
295
Q

If the obturator nerve is damaged post calving what are the Cx?

A

Unable to adduct so cow does splits

296
Q

If the peroneal nerve is damaged post calving what Cx do you see?

A

unable to extend fetlock so knuckle

297
Q

How do you treat nerve damage post calving?

A
  • NSAID or steroids
  • Nursing
297
Q

If the sciatic nerve is damaged post calving what are the Cx?

A

unable to rise

298
Q

(Reproductive Surgery of the Adult Ruminant)

What are the indications for a caesarean section?

A
  • calf too big
  • cow too small
  • deformed calf
  • twisted uterus unable to correctt
  • dead/emphysematous calf
299
Q

What is the point of no return when calving a cow where you can perform a ceaser?

A

head and shoulders through the pelvis

300
Q

How should you prepare for a ceaser?

A
  • suitable place and restrain cow
  • light
  • need sedation? 0.5ml xylazine IM
  • warm clean water
  • clip and prep LEFTTTT
  • admin local and other drugs
  • open and organise kit
301
Q

When should you use an epidural when performing a ceaser?

A

If the cow is straining but be careful as could go down

302
Q

What other drugs should you use when performing a ceaser?

A
  • broad spec ab
  • NSAIDs
  • clenbuterol
  • local ana
303
Q

Local should be inseretd close or far away from incision site?

304
Q

Describe the layers going in on the left for a ceaser and how you manipulate them?

A
  • skin - scalpel
  • external abdo oblique - scalpel
  • Internal abdo oblique - scalpel or blunt dissesction and sissors
  • transversus - blunt disect then extend w sissors
  • peritoneum - pick up with forceps, small sharp incision then extend with scissors.
305
Q

Describe how, once in, you perform a ceaser?

A
  • locate uterus - in, right, down
  • grasp metatarsal or hock with one hand and hoof with other and pull foot towards wound
  • hook hock end of wound
  • incise right over hoof and up to hock
  • incise placenta
  • give farmer foot to hold above metatarsal
  • gently pull calf caudal and dorsally
  • watch umbilicus
  • trim placenta
  • close up uterus
  • scoop fluid from abdomen
  • close up abdo wall
306
Q

what drugs should you use post ceaser?

A
  • oxytocin - to reverse clenbuterol
  • topical silver spray
  • maybe Ca
  • ab
307
Q

what are normal things post ceaser?

A

wound swelling
emphysema

308
Q

how does the amount of local differ in c-sectioning sheep?

309
Q

are muscle layers thinner or thicker in sheep compared to cows?

310
Q

what are the main indiactions for performing a vasectomy?

A
  • for teasers
  • mainly tups
311
Q

What sheep are vasectomys common in?

A

healthy entire males, younger

312
Q

How would you go about performing a vasectomy?

A
  1. vertical skin incision about 4cm
  2. digital dissection to isolate the spermatic cord
  3. Hook cord over finger or with pair of forceps
  4. Locate deferent duct
  5. Secure between thumb and forefinger
  6. Make a nick in the vaginal tunic to expose deferent duct
  7. exteriorise at least 3cm of duct and clamp at each end and ligate at either end
  8. cut between forceps
  9. skin sutures
  10. repeat
    8.
313
Q

What can go wrong with vasectomy?

A
  • usually infections, haemorrhage
  • remove wrong tissue
  • deferent duct re-anastomosis