Module 17 Wk 4 Flashcards

1
Q

When examining a skin/soft tissue tumour what should you be assessing?

A
  • Depth - dermal, subcut OR deep soft tissue, Bone
  • Location - mucocutaneous, back, digit
  • Measure size
  • Signs of ulceration
  • Mobility of tumour
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2
Q

What test should run to help diagnose skin tumours?

A
  • cytology
  • histopathology for definitive diagnosis
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3
Q

What are your differential diagnosis for skin tumours?

A
  1. hyperplastic conditions
  2. granulomatous condtitions
  3. immune-mediated conditions
  4. developmental lesions
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4
Q

What does “T” stand for in skin tumor staging?

A

Primary lesion – size and extent

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5
Q

How is the size and extent of a primary skin lesion assessed?

A

By measuring the lesion and evaluating its depth and local spread

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6
Q

What does “N” stand for in skin tumor staging?

A

Regional/Sentinel lymph node involvement

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7
Q

How are regional/sentinel lymph nodes assessed in skin tumor staging?

A

Through palpation, imaging (e.g., ultrasound), and fine-needle aspiration

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8
Q

What does “M” stand for in skin tumor staging?

A

Distant metastases

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9
Q

How is the presence of distant metastases evaluated in skin tumors?

A

Using X-ray, abdominal ultrasound (AUS), and blood tests

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10
Q

How do you treat local skin tumours?

A

Surgery + radiography

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11
Q

How do you treat local and regional skin Lymphomas?

A

surgery and or radiotherapy

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12
Q

How should you treat multifocal/diffuse skin tumours?

A

Chemo

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13
Q

Is a cutaneous histiocytoma benign or malignat?

A

Benign

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14
Q

What type of skin conditions is cutaneous histiocytosis?

A

Reactive immune-mediated

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15
Q

What kind of skin condition is systemuc histiocytosis?

A
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16
Q

What kind of skin condition is histiocytic sarcoma?

A

This is malignant histiocytosis = neoplastic

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17
Q

What kind of skin condition is haemiphagocytic histiocytic sarcoma?

A

Neoplastic

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18
Q

What is Reactive Histiocytosis?

A

A disorder involving infiltration of myeloid interstitial dendritic cells into the dermis and subcutis, affecting young dogs.

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19
Q

What are the two types of Reactive Histiocytosis?

A

Cutaneous Histiocytosis – affects only the skin
Systemic Histiocytosis – affects skin, lymph nodes, and other organs

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20
Q

Which dog breeds are predisposed to Systemic Histiocytosis?

A

Bernese Mountain Dog (BMD)
Rottweiler
Retrievers

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21
Q

How do lesions behave in Reactive Histiocytosis?

A

Lesions wax and wane but are slowly progressive over time.

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22
Q

What is the underlying cause of Reactive Histiocytosis?

A

A disorder of immune regulation.

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23
Q

What treatments may help manage Reactive Histiocytosis?

A

Some cases respond to immunosuppressive drugs, including:

High-dose corticosteroids
Cyclosporine
Tetracycline/Niacinamide

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24
Q

What is Histiocytic Sarcoma derived from?

A

Derived from myeloid interstitial dendritic cells.

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25
Q

Which markers are used to stain Histiocytic Sarcoma?

A

CD1
CD11c
MHC II
CD18
Iba-1

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26
Q

What are the three types of epithelial/epidermal solitary skin lesions?

A
  • papilloma
  • basal cell tumour
  • squamous cell carcinoma
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27
Q

What are examples of Adnexal/Dermal tumors?

A

Sebaceous and sweat gland adenoma/ACA
Hair follicle tumors (Pilomatricoma, Trichoepithelioma, Trichoblastoma)

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28
Q

What are examples of Mesenchymal/Subcutaneous Connective Tissue tumors?

A

Fibrous tissue tumors (Fibroma/Sarcoma)
Adipose tissue tumors (Lipoma/Sarcoma)

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29
Q

What age of cats/dogs is multimple epidermal papilloma common in?

A

young cats and dogs

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30
Q

What age of cats/dogs is solitary epidermal papilloma common in?

A

old

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31
Q

Is a basal cell tumour/carcinoma more common in - cats or dogs?

A

cats

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32
Q

Describe how a basal cell tumour/carcinoma presents?

A
  • solitary
  • discrete
  • well circumcribed
  • rasied/domed
  • can be pigmented
  • occasionally more invasive and ulcerated
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33
Q

What are the main causes of Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)?

A

Chronic exposure to UV light, especially in depigmented (white) skin areas
Papillomavirus infection – associated with Bowen’s in situ carcinoma (BISC) in cats

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34
Q

What is Bowen’s in situ carcinoma (BISC) in cats?

A

A form of squamous cell carcinoma caused by papillomavirus infection, leading to skin plaques at multiple sites in both haired and non-haired areas. It is not UV-associated.

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35
Q

How should you treat SCC nasal planum?

A

Surgical excision (nosectomy!)
Radiotherapy (external beam)
Brachytherapy (Strontium90)
Photodynamic therapy
Electrochemotherapy

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36
Q

What dogs are predisposed to SCC of the foot?

A

Black coat large breeds- lab, St poodle, Schnauzer, Rottweiler, Gordon Set, FCR

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37
Q

What clinical signs are associated with SCC of the foot?

A

Ulcerative, haemorrhagic, lame and bone destruction

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38
Q

What are three benign adnexal tumours?

A
  • sebaceous gland tumours
  • hair follicle tumours
  • meibomian gland adenoma
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39
Q

What is the most common skin tumour in older dogs?

A

sebaceous gland tumours esp cocker spanials and poodles

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40
Q

What are two types of malignant adnexal tumours?

A
  • matrical carcinomas
  • malignant sweat/sebaceous carcinomas
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41
Q

Where is aperi-anal adenoma derived from?

A

skin sebaceous gland

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42
Q

What signlement of dog is predisposed to peri-anal adenoma?

A

elderly male dogs

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43
Q

Describe how a peri-anal adenomal lesion appears?

A

Solitary, discrete, alopecic, button-like, domed in perianal skin or on anal sphincter

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44
Q

TT/F peri-anal adenomas usually regress with castration

A

True - surgical excision may be needed

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45
Q

what are the two types of malignant peri-anal tumours?

A
  • perianal adenomacarcinoma
  • anal sac adenomacarcinoma
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46
Q

Where are canine cutaneous histiocytoma located?

A
  • Head
  • Limbs
  • Feet
  • Trunk
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47
Q

How do canine cutaneous histiocytoma present visibly?

A

Rapidly growing intradermal lesion

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48
Q

What cells are canine cutaneous histiocytoma dervived from?

A

langerhans cell derived

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49
Q

are canine cutaneous histiocytomas benign or malignant?

A

benign

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50
Q

What are melanocytic tumours that have a good prognosis?

A

Cutaneous and dermal ones

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51
Q

What doe cutaneous/dermal melonocytic tumours visually look like?

A

Solitary,dermal, domed, dark mass

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52
Q

What are melanocytic tumours that have a bad prognosis?

A
  • mucocutaneous + digital
  • oral melanoma
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53
Q

What is the most common mast cell tumour in dogs?

A

skin

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54
Q

What is the most common mast cell tumour in cats?

A

visceral

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55
Q

What are the predisposition to mass cell tumours?

A
  • middle aged to older dogs
  • no sex
  • boxers, labs, GRT, weimeraners
  • pugs
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56
Q

What are problems with mast cell tumours?

A
  • variable appearance
  • variable behaviour/metastasis
  • Variable response to treatment
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57
Q

What are mast cell proliferation markers?

A
  • mitotic count
  • Ki67
  • AgNOR count
  • cKIT
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58
Q

What is the significance of mitotic count in mast cell tumors (MCT)?

A

A higher mitotic count indicates a worse prognosis:

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59
Q

What mitotic count equals a worse prognosis in cutaneous MCT?

A

> 5 mitoses/10 HPF

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60
Q

What mitotic count equals a worse prognosis in subcutaneous MCT?

A

> 4 mitoses/10 HPF

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61
Q

What does Ki67 stain for, and what is its prognostic significance in MCT?

A

Ki67 is a nuclear stain for cells in the cell cycle.

> 1.8% positive nuclei per total mast cells in the field is associated with worse prognosis and decreased survival.

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62
Q

What is AgNOR count and PCNA, and how do they relate to MCT prognosis?

A

AgNOR count (nuclear silver stain) and PCNA (proliferating cell nuclear antigen) are both increased in proliferating cells.

They are associated with worse prognosis but are not independent of tumor grade.

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63
Q

What is cKIT?

A

KIT is a cell surface growth factor receptor with tyrosine kinase (TK) enzyme activity

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64
Q

How can cKIT protein expression be visualized in MCT, and what patterns are associated with prognosis?

A

cKIT protein can be visualized using immunohistochemistry (IHC).

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65
Q

What cKIT pattern is assocated with normal cells or low-grade MCT that has a better prognosis

A

KIT1 (membranous)

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66
Q

What cKIT pattern is assocated with aberrant expression and a worse prognosis?

A

KIT2 (focal cytoplasmicc)

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67
Q

What cKIT pattern is assocated with aberrant expression, a worse prognosis and often seen in jigh grade MCT?

A

KIT3 (diffuse cytoplasmic)

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68
Q

what do the granules in a MCT contain?

A

histamine, heparin and vasoactive amaines

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69
Q

How do granules release their contents?

A

Spontaneous degranulation
Trauma-induced degranulation

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70
Q

What is the effect of histamine release?

A

Increases vascular permeability
Causes swelling, itching, and redness
Contributes to inflammation

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71
Q

What does heparin do?

A

Acts as an anticoagulant
Prevents blood clotting
May lead to abnormal bleeding

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72
Q

What do vasoactive amines do?

A

Cause vasodilation
Lead to low blood pressure (hypotension)
Can contribute to anaphylaxis

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73
Q

How can tumors trigger degranulation?

A

Direct invasion of granule-containing cells
Chronic inflammation
Trauma to affected tissues

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74
Q

What are the systemic effects of hyperhistamineamia?

A

Acts on H2 receptors in gastic parietal cells leading to increased acitdidty and motility which can lead to vom, anorexia and melaena and gastric ulceration.

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75
Q

What is the treatment for hyperhistaminaemia?

A
  1. Supportive therapy - fluids
  2. H2 antagonists = Cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine
  3. Gastric protectants = Sucralfate (Antepsin)
  4. Proton pump inhibitor = Omeprazole
  5. Remove /treat mast cell tumour to remove source of histamine
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76
Q

What is MCT causes hypotension?

A

Histamine and vasoactive substnaces

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77
Q

If MCT is clinically stage 1 how should you treat?

A

Surgical excision only

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78
Q

If MCT is clinically stage 2 how should you treat?

A
  • Surgery and also LN excision
  • Metastasis to LN implies higher grade so chemo
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79
Q

What is the primary treatment for low-grade (Grade I & some Grade II) tumors?

A

Wide local excision (surgery) is usually curative.

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80
Q

What should be checked after surgery for low-grade tumors?

A

Histological margins – if incomplete, consider repeat surgery or radiation therapy (XRT).

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81
Q

When should chemotherapy or TKIs be considered for low-grade tumors?

A

Only if there are warning signs of malignancy, such as:
- Nerve involvement (PNS signs)
- Bruising
- Sentinel lymph node involvement
- High mitotic rate (>5 per 10HPF)
- High Ki67 index (>1.8)
- c-Kit mutation

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82
Q

How are high-grade (some Grade II & all Grade III) tumors treated?

A

Wide or radical excision
Radiation therapy if margins aren’t clear
Chemotherapy is always needed due to high metastasis risk

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83
Q

What additional treatment may be needed for high-grade tumors?

A

Treatment for paraneoplastic signs if present.

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84
Q

What is the treatment for unresectable (inoperable) tumors?

A

Chemotherapy or TKIs (targeted therapy) are used.

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85
Q

What kind of cats are predisposed to MCT?

A
  • older cats
  • siamese
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86
Q

How many masses decrease survival time?

A

more than 5

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87
Q

How do soft tissue sarcomas behave locally?

A

They are locally infiltrative and invasive, usually subcutaneous.

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88
Q

Why is a pseudocapsule misleading in soft tissue sarcomas?

A

The pseudocapsule is a compression zone, not a true margin—tumors do not shell out!

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89
Q

What is the surgical approach for soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Radical surgery is required, but cytoreductive resection + radiotherapy may be an option for difficult sites (e.g., distal limbs).

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90
Q

How do soft tissue sarcomas metastasize?

A

Via the haematogenous route (bloodstream), with about 15% overall risk.

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91
Q

How does metastasis risk vary by grade?

A

Low/Intermediate Grade → Surgery +/- radiotherapy (local treatment)
High Grade → Requires adjunctive chemotherapy (systemic treatment)

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92
Q

When is chemotherapy used for soft tissue sarcomas?

A

For high-grade tumors with a high risk of metastasis.

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93
Q

What is the main chemotherapy drug for soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Doxorubicin-based protocols are used for most sarcomas, including haemangiosarcoma (HSA).

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94
Q

What chemotherapy drug is used for histiocytic sarcomas?

A

Lomutisne.

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95
Q

When did feline injection site sarcomas (FISS) become more common?

A

Since the 1990s in the USA.

96
Q

What vaccines are associated with FISS?

A

Rabies and FeLV, possibly linked to aluminium adjuvants.

97
Q

How should FISS be treated?

A

Advanced imaging to guide excision
Surgery +/- radiotherapy for primary tumor
Chemotherapy for metastasis

98
Q

Which species and breeds are most affected by haemangiosarcoma?

A

Older dogs (rare in cats); GSDs, Labs, Golden Retrievers are predisposed.

99
Q

What are common sites for haemangiosarcoma?

A

Spleen
Right atrium/pericardium
Muscle, subcutis

100
Q

How does haemangiosarcoma metastasize?

A

Rapidly via the blood, with transabdominal seeding (lymph nodes often remain negative).

101
Q

What are possible presentations of haemangiosarcoma?

A

Superficial soft tissue mass or haematoma
Splenic rupture → haemorrhage, collapse, pale mucous membranes, abdominal distension
Cardiac signs → muffled heart sounds, arrhythmias, right-sided heart failure

102
Q

What bloodwork findings are common in haemangiosarcoma?

A

Regenerative anaemia (blood loss)
Thrombocytopenia
Neutrophilia
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

103
Q

How is primary haemangiosarcoma treated?

A

Surgical excision for subcutaneous masses (radical excision or amputation)
Splenectomy for splenic tumors
Pericardectomy for cardiac tumors

104
Q

What chemotherapy options exist for haemangiosarcoma?

A

Doxorubicin-based protocols
VAC (Vincristine, Adriamycin, Cyclophosphamide)
Metronomic therapy

105
Q

what is the median survival time (MST) for splenic haemangiosarcoma?

A

Surgery alone: 1-3 months
Surgery + chemotherapy: 5-7 months

106
Q

What is the MST for intramuscular haemangiosarcoma with chemotherapy?

A

6-9 months

107
Q

How does prognosis differ for skin haemangiosarcoma?

A

Dermal HSA (UV-induced in thin-coated dogs) → 26-33 months with surgery alone
Subcutaneous HSA → 7-10 months (up to 39-40 months with doxorubicin)

108
Q

What is the MST for cardiac haemangiosarcoma?

A

With doxorubicin: 3-4 months
No treatment: 12 days

109
Q

(approach to mammary tumours)

What is the most common tumour type in intact female dogs?

A

Mammary tumour

110
Q

What dogs are predisposed to mammary tumours?

A
  • 7-13yrs
  • Miniature and toy breeds
  • 99% females v low prevelelnce in males
111
Q

What cats are predisposed to mammary tumours?

A
  • 10-12yrs and 9yrs in siamese
  • oriental breeds, DSH
  • 99% female v low prevelence in older males
112
Q

What are the two genetic ways that cause mammary tumours?

A
  • sporadic which is a combination of upregulated or downregulated (mutated) genes acquired through life.
  • Familial whihc is inherited from generation to generation
113
Q

Name key tumour suppressor genes involved in mammary tumours.

A

p53: Prevents damaged cells from dividing.
PTEN: Regulates cell proliferation and survival.
E-cadherin & β-catenin: Maintain cell adhesion; mutations promote metastasis.

114
Q

Name key oncogenes involved in mammary tumours.

A

ErbB2/HER2: Drives aggressive tumour growth.
COX2: Enhances inflammation and tumour progression.
PI3K/AKT/mTOR Pathway: Increases cell survival and proliferation.

115
Q

What are SNPs, and why are they important in mammary tumours?

A

SNPs (Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms): Small genetic variations that can affect tumour characteristics.
Certain SNPs are linked to tumour grade (aggressiveness).

116
Q

What is the similarity between feline mammary carcinoma and human breast cancer?

A

Feline mammary carcinoma has a similar gene expression pattern to human triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC), which is aggressive and difficult to treat.

117
Q

What genetic mutations increase the risk of CMT in dogs?

A

BRCA1 & BRCA2 Germline Mutations: Inherited mutations in these genes significantly raise the risk of CMT.

118
Q

How do BRCA1 mutations affect other dog breeds?

A

BRCA1 mutations and decreased expression are observed in other breeds, contributing to mammary tumour risk.

119
Q

Are BRCA mutations common in cats?

A

Few germline BRCA1 & BRCA2 mutations have been reported in cats. Their hereditary risk is still being studied.

120
Q

How does the PI3K/AKT/mTOR pathway contribute to cancer?

A

This pathway promotes cell survival, proliferation, and tumour growth when overactivated.

121
Q

T/F exogenous hormones from contraceptive injections/tablets increase risk of malignant tumours?

122
Q

Why can obesity cause mammary tumours?

A

adipose tissue is the source of steroid

123
Q

What is your differential diagnosis in the dog for a mammary lump?

A

Mastitis
Duct ectasia (cysts)
Focal fibrosis
Lobular hyperplasia
Ductal hyperplasia
Gynecomastia - abnormal development of mammary system in males

124
Q

What is your differential diganosis for a mammary lump in the cat?

A

mastitis
Duct ectasia (cysts)
focal fibrosis
Ductal hyperplasia
lobular hyperplasia

125
Q

What is fibroadenomatous hyperplasia and when can it occur?

A

One or multiple glands are swollen, painful, oedematous but no milk production and can occur flowwing metoeastrus, pregnancy and administration of exogenous progestins

126
Q

What are the clinical signs of fibroadenomatous hyperplasia?

A

Anorexia, lethargy and tachycardia

127
Q

How can you diagnose fibroadenomatous hyperplasia?

A

On gross appearence and age

128
Q

Is ther anything you can use when the fibroadenomatous hyperplasia has been caused by exogenous progestins?

A

Yes - progesterone antagonist

129
Q

What are the types of benign mammary tumours in the dog?

A
  • simple adenoma - single epithelium or myoepithelium but its rare
  • complex adenoma - where both luminal, epi and myoepi cells are involved
  • mixed tumour - cart or bone always present with this tumour
130
Q

What are the types of simple carcinoma (malignant) mammary tumours found in the dog?

A
  • single epi
  • tubular
  • tuulopapillary
  • cystic-papillary
  • cribiform
  • solid
  • anaplastic
131
Q

What are the types of complex carcinoma (malignant) mammary tumours found in the dog

A
  • both luminal epith AND myoepithelial cells
  • Luminal – malignant
  • Myoepith - benign
132
Q

what are the other two malignant mammary tumours found in dogs?

A
  • carcinoma in mixed tumout form where acrtlage and bone are always present
  • carcinosarcoma
133
Q

How do solid mammary carcinomas present?

A

They are fixed, ulerated and grow rapidly

134
Q

How do anaplastic mammary cacinomas present?

A

They present ulcerated and have dermal and lymphatic invasion

135
Q

What is the definition of inflammatory carcinoma?

A

Invasion of dermal lymphatics by tumour emboli which causes local oedema

136
Q

What are your differential diagnosis for inflammatory carcinoma?

A

Acute mastitis or dermatitis

137
Q

What are the 3 grades for mammary tumours?

A

1 - low - well differentiated
2 - intermediate - moderately differentiates
3- high - porrly differentiated

138
Q

What additional pathological findings influenece prognosis of mammary tumours?

A
  • surrounding stromla invasion
  • vascular or lymphatic invasion
  • lymph node involvement
139
Q

What grade are feline simpe carcinomas?

140
Q

How can you confirm the diagnosis of a mammary mass via FNA?

A
  • suck out some cells
  • look at them and usually diagnositic if there is uniform carcinoma
  • can also rule out non-mammary tumours
141
Q

How does biobsy of a mammary mass compare to FNA?

A

Gives way more info than FNA

142
Q

State the diameteres for T1-T4 on the who system in dogs

A

T1 = less than 3 cm
T2 = 2-5cm
T3 = more than 5cm
T4 = any size/inflammatory

143
Q

T/F size of primary tumour is importnat independent of LN status?

144
Q

State the diameteres for T1-T4 on the who system in cats

A

T1 = less than 2cm
T2 = 2-3cm
T3 = more than 3cm

145
Q

What is the main treatment of mammary tumours?

146
Q

What is nodulectomy/lumpectomy used to treat?

A

Unfixed lesions less than 0.5cm - more of a biopsy procedure

147
Q

What is a simple mammectomy used for?

A

centrally positioned lesions, fixed or unfixed, that are 0.5-1cm in diameter

148
Q

What is a partial/regional mastectomy and what is it used for?

A
  • It is where the gland plus other adjacent glands which drain from it are removed
  • Used for most lesions in dogs
149
Q

How should you treat a local reacurrece of mammary tumour?

A
  • submit for histiopathology
  • check surgical margins
  • further/bilateral surgery?
  • removal of lymph nodes?
150
Q

why should you spay at the same time if not already when performing a mastectomy on a benign tumour?

A
  • reduces risk of growth of further benign tumours
  • will prevent pyometra
  • prevent the need for progestins
151
Q

should you spay at the same time if not already when performing a mastectomy on a malignant tumour?

A
  • its not been proven to have effect on time to metastasis and overall survival time
  • better just to do mammary strips
152
Q

What histological types of tumors in dogs are associated with a good prognosis?

A

Tubular, papillary

153
Q

What histological types of tumors in dogs are associated with a poor prognosis?

A

Solid, anaplastic

154
Q

What is the prognosis for dogs with a low histological grade (Grade I)?

A

Good prognosis

155
Q

What is the prognosis for dogs with a high histological grade (Grade III)?

A

Poor prognosis

156
Q

What is the prognosis for dogs with a tumor size less than 3 cm in diameter?

A

Good prognosis

157
Q

How does tumor clinical stage impact the prognosis in dogs?

A

Prognosis depends on the stage, as per the Bioscore system (2019), which combines stage and grade

158
Q

Does being spayed affect prognosis in female dogs with tumors?

A

Not spayed (more likely ER positive) = better prognosis

159
Q

What histological grade is associated with a good prognosis in cats?

A

Low grade (Grade I), but it is less common

160
Q

What is the prognosis for cats with a high histological grade (Grade III)?

A

90-100% dead within 1 year

161
Q

What is the prognosis for cats with a tumor size less than 2 cm in diameter?

162
Q

What is the prognosis for cats with a tumor size greater than 3 cm in diameter?

163
Q

What is the prognosis for cats with Stage 1 tumors?

164
Q

What is the prognosis for cats with Stage IV tumors?

165
Q

How does the extent of surgery affect prognosis in cats with mammary tumors?

A

aggressive surgery is best to prevent recurrence, including a bilateral mammary strip down to a clean fascial plane

166
Q

(Lumps and poisoning of farm animals)

What are the differences between SA/Equine and farm animal neoplasia?

A
  • FA dont live long enough to develop classic old age neoplasia
  • Juvenile neoplasia is uncommon
  • other than US and FNA nothing else really performed and there is no staging
  • chemo/radio never an option just surgery
167
Q

What setting should the rectal probe be when US a lump on FA?

A

early/late pregnancy depending on size of lump

168
Q

If the ultrasound of the lump is black, what does this indicate, and what type of lump could it be?

A
  • Fluid
  • Seoma/haematoma
169
Q

If the ultrasound of the lump is white, what does this indicate?

A

The lump is a mass

170
Q

If the ultrasound of the lump is black/white, what does this indicate about the lump?

A

Abscess/organising seroma or haematoma

171
Q

Will an abscesses walls be thick or thin?

172
Q

What gauge of needle do need when doing an FNA of lump on a large animal?

A

18g, but it might need to be thicker 14g

173
Q

when inserting the FNA needle into the lump what shoudl you do?

A

Feel consistency

174
Q

If blood is seen on FNA what does this indicate the lump is?

175
Q

If clear fluid is seen when performing an FNA what does this indicate the lump is?

176
Q

If pus is seen when performing and FNA what does this indicate the lump is?

177
Q

How should you go about treating a tumour in large animals?

A
  • In a cow report to APHA
  • Leave or surgical resection
178
Q

How should you go about treating a seroma in large animals?

179
Q

How should you go about treating a haematoma in large animals?

180
Q

How should you go about treating a abscess in large animals?

A

Lance, fluhs and aim to keep open

181
Q

How should you go about treating a lymph node in large animals?

A

Depends on cause so should treat primary lesions first

182
Q

Is enzootic bovine leukosis in cattle notifiable?

183
Q

What is enzootic bovine leukosis caused by?

A

Bovine leukaemia virus which is a oncogenic retrovrus

184
Q

How is enzootic bovine leukosis transmitted and at what age?

A

Any age, animal to animal

185
Q

T/F animals infected with enzootic bovine leukosis are infected for life?

186
Q

Even though enxootic bovine leukosis is mainly sub-clinical where might tumour types may develop?

A

Abomasum, heart and lymphnodes

187
Q

T/F lymphocytosis can be seen with enzootic bovine leukosis?

188
Q

What is Sporadic Bovine Leukosis (SBL)?

A

A rare lymphoproliferative disease in cattle under 4 years old with an unknown cause and low prevalence.

189
Q

What are the three forms of sporadic bovine leukosis?

A

cutaneous
thymic
multicentric

190
Q

What are the main features of the Cutaneous Form of SBL?

A

Skin lesions that resemble ringworm, dermatophilosis, skin TB, urticaria, or actinobacillosis.

191
Q

What are the key clinical signs of the Thymic Form of SBL?

A

Space-occupying lesion (SOL) effects, jugular vein occlusion, increased respiratory rate, and bloat.

192
Q

What is a major differential diagnosis for the Thymic Form of SBL?

A

Congestive heart failure.

193
Q

What characterizes the Multicentric (Juvenile) Form of SBL?

A

Enlargement of multiple lymph nodes, resembling tuberculosis (TB).

194
Q

What is the prognosis for cattle diagnosed with SBL?

A

Poor, as there is no effective treatment.

195
Q

What kind of cattle does sporadic Bovine leukosis effect?

A

dairy and beef

196
Q

Describe what a suspected animal thats been infected with enzootic bovine leukosis presents like?

A
  • Swollen, painless lymph nodes or tumourous chnages
  • Haematological examination indiacted lymphocytes count for a infected animla
  • Any other test has indicated the possible precence of infection with bovine leukosis virus.
197
Q

What predisposes farm animals to squamous cell carcinomas?

A
  • Non-pigmented, white faced breeds
  • Older animals
198
Q

How do farm animals with squamous cell carcinomas present?

A
  • Occular and peri-occular
  • Plaque -> keratoma -> papilloma -> carcinoma
  • often bilateral
199
Q

What are secondary effects to SCC?

A

+/i mets to LN and lungs

200
Q

How do you treat SCC in farm animals?

A

Local and excise or enucleation or cryptherapy

201
Q

What age of cattle are papillomas common in?

202
Q

What are papillomas caused by in cattle?

A

Bovine papilloma virus

203
Q

What are your treatment options for papillomas in cattle?

A

Simple local/scalpel removal or surgical or leave alone

204
Q

What are the clinical signs of granulosa cell tumors in cattle?

A

Not detected in oestrus (NDO) or nymphomania.

205
Q

What ultrasound finding is characteristic of granulosa cell tumors?

A

Thick-walled ovary with a honeycomb pattern.

206
Q

What is the main differential diagnosis for a granulosa cell tumor?

A

Ovarian cyst.

207
Q

What are the treatment options for granulosa cell tumors in cattle?

A

Surgical ovariectomy (risk of bleeding, uncertain oestrus return) or culling at the end of lactation.

208
Q

Is cutaneous actinobacillosis a neoplasm?

A

No, it is NOT a neoplasm.

209
Q

What are two differential diagnoses for cutaneous actinobacillosis?

A

Cutaneous lymphoma (SBL) and cutaneous tuberculosis (rare).

210
Q

What is ovine pulmonary adenocarcinoma?

A

Contagious lunch cancer of sheep

211
Q

what is ovine pulmonary adenocarcinoma caused by?

A

It is caused by the Jaagsiekte Sheep Retrovirus (JSRV), which induces the transformation of lung epithelial cells, leading to tumor formation in the lungs.

212
Q

What are clinical signs of ovine pulmonary adenocarinoma?

A
  • weight loss
  • dyspnea
  • nasal discherge
  • coughing
  • wheel barrow test it and fluid pour out then yes
213
Q

What are the most common types of poisoning seen in farm animals?

A
  • nephrotoxic or hepatotoxic
214
Q

What kind of poisoning, acute or chronic, is harder to diagnose?

215
Q

Why are young farm animals more likely to get poisoned?

A

more inquisitive

216
Q

What should you try to rule out in history of a potentially poisoned patient (unless obv poisoning)?

A
  • infectious cause
  • nutritional cause
  • Husbandaru issue
217
Q

What are non specific med used in farm animals to treat poisoning?

A

Fluids or charcoal

218
Q

For neuro signs with poisoning ie seizures what can be used?

219
Q

How should you manage a poisoning case after treating?

A
  • remove the source
  • offer alternative feeding
220
Q

What are other considerations you should take into account when analysing a poisoning case?

A
  • Could this be insurance case ie animals escaped?
  • Could this be a litigation case ie feed company
  • Couls this be malicious ie family/neighbour feud
221
Q

What does Yew poisoning cause?

A

Cadriotoxic effects and sudden onset of death

222
Q

What farm animals do you see rhododendron poisoning in?

223
Q

What are clinical signs of rhododrendrom poisoning?

A

GIT. teeth grinding, salivation and abdo pain

224
Q

How should you treat rhodendron poisoning?

A

Supportive, NSAIDs, broad spec abs

225
Q

What species is ragwort poisoning most common in?

226
Q

What are the hepatotoxic clinical signs of ragwort poisoning?

A

Jaundice, oeadema

227
Q

What are the Neurotoxic clinical signs of ragowort poisoning?

A

Apparent blindness, hepatic encephalopathy

228
Q

What are the GIT clinical signs of regwort poisoning?

A

Abd pain, dehydrates, weight loss and ascites

229
Q

What is lead poisoning caused by in farm animals?

A

dumped batteries ans lead paint

230
Q

What are the clinical signs caused by lead poisoning in farm animals?

A
  • neurologically = M fasciculation, staggering, apparent blindness
  • GIT = frothing at mouth, colic, teeth grinding and rumen stasis
231
Q

How do you treat lead poisoning in farm animals?

A
  • supportive
  • sedate
  • Ca disodium edetate
  • report to food standard agency
232
Q

What are the causes of copper poisoning in farm animals?

A

Over supplementation and wrong feeding

233
Q

What is copper poisoning more common in, cattle or sheep?

A

sheeppiesss

234
Q

Is the coppor poisoning is acute what is the result?

235
Q

What is the outcome of chronic copper poisoning?

A

Sick, jaundiced, anaemia and haemoglobunuria

236
Q

(Cytotoxic safety and Chemo administration)

What is chemo?

A

The use of cytotoxic drugs to treat cancer

237
Q

How do chemo drugs intefere with normal cells?