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BVMS 3 > Module 16 Wk1 > Flashcards

Module 16 Wk1 Flashcards

1
Q

(Small Animal Foundation Dentistry)

What should you inspect and palpate on a conscious head exam?

A
  • Facial symmetry
  • Masticatory muscles
  • Salivary gland/lymph node
  • Ptyalism
  • Facial swelling
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2
Q

what is Ptyalism? what could it be due too?

A

It is excessive salivary secretions
Could be due to pain/toxicity/nausea

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3
Q

What is the most probable diagnosis for facial swelling under the eye?

A

Tooth abscess

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4
Q

What should you be looking for on an oral examiniation?

A
  • occlusion
  • soft tissue
  • hard tissue
  • TMJ
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5
Q

Whats the most common issue with the TMJ?

A

Arthristis in dogs and trauma in cats

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6
Q

On an unconscious oral exam what should you be examining extraorally?

A
  • Lymph nodes
  • Masticatory muscles
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7
Q

What are the 4 masticatory muscles? and there function pookie

A
  • Temporalis - closes mouth
  • Masseter - closes mouth
  • Digasticus - opens mouth
  • Pterygoids - closes mouth
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8
Q

T/F masseter is the biggest muscle in mouth?

A

false its temporalis

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9
Q

What are the names of the salivary glands that you should examine in an unconscious oral exam?

A

parotid
zygomatic
sublingual

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10
Q

What is the invasive papillae and where is it loacted?

A

It is located behind the incisors.
It connects the mouth and nose stright to the brain. So indicates to the dog if something is okay to be eaten or not

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11
Q

What is the caruncula and where is it located?

A

It is located at the base of the tongue and is where the submandibular salivary gland empties into the mouth and also connects the tongue to the base of the mouth

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12
Q

What is the most common dental disease in cats?

A

Periodontal disease and tooth resorption

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13
Q

What are SA paediatric patient dental diseases?

A

Hypo/hyperdontia
malocclusion
cleft lip/cleft palate
feline juvenile gingivitis
enamel defects

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14
Q

What is the normal dentition in dogs?

A

3142/3143

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15
Q

What can unerruption of a tooth cause?

A

a cyst

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16
Q

Should you perform surgery on a grade 1 malocclusion?

A

No, if the animal is not in pain, there is no need.

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17
Q

What is grade 2 malocclusion?

A

Discrepancy between upper and lower jaws

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18
Q

What does grade 3 malocclusion look like?

A

It is were the lower jaw is longer than the upper one

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19
Q

What can gingivitis be triggered by?

A

The eruption of the permanent dentition

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20
Q

What can juvinile gingivitis be assoc with?

A

Juvenile periodontal disease, is very painful and should be referred.

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21
Q

What systemic diseases may cause enamal defects?

A

viral infection, distemper and nutritional problems.

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22
Q

What is gingivitis?

A

The inflammation of the gums but it is reversible

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23
Q

How is periodontitis a step past periodontal disease?

A

As it involves damage to the bone and the ligament and its irreversible after bone destruction

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24
Q

What is loss of mandibular bone a sign of?

A

advanced periodontal disease

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25
Q

What is tooth resorption? and what is the most common tooth to be affected?

A

This is where the tooth is resorbed and mandibular PM3

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26
Q

Discuss tooth resorption type 1 and how it is treated

A

Tooth resorption type 1 is associated with periodontal disease and is associated with the crown and is a round lesion triggered by inflammation. Type 1 is treated via extraction.

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27
Q

Discuss tooth resorption type 2

A

Type two is idiopathic (no clue why it happens) -it occurs everywhere around the tooth and is the most commonly diagnosed via x-ray. Type 2 depends on the grade.

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28
Q

What is type 3 tooth resorption?

A

Type 3 is a combination of type 2 and type 1

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29
Q

T/F a microline fracture in a tooth is abnormal?

A

False - it is infact normal

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30
Q

what do you want to do when there is an enamal fracture?

A

x-ray it

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31
Q

what parts of the tooth are involved in an uncomplicated crown fracture?

A

enamel and dentine

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32
Q

What parts of the tooth are involved in a complicated fracture?

A

enamel, dentine and pulp

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33
Q

T/F extraction of tooth is needed for a complicated crown root fracture

A

True

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34
Q

What are structurally important teeth in dogs?

A

Upper 4th premolar
Canine
Lower fourth premolar

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35
Q

What are structurally importnat teeth in cats

A

canine

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36
Q

What is stomatitis?

A

It is an inflammatory condition affecting the mucous membranes of the mouth causing lesions.

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37
Q

How would you treat stomatitis?

A

You would treat it by extracting the teeth affected by the disease along with medications such as antibiotics and antifungals.

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38
Q

should you refer an animal with stomatitis?

A

YEEE

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39
Q

What is ONF?

A

Oral nasal fistulae

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40
Q

What can ONF be caused by?

A
  • Periodontal disease
  • Malocclusion
  • Foreign body
  • Neoplasia
  • Poorly carried out tooth extraction (especially canine)
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41
Q

What should you do if there is an oral mass?

A
  • Take a pic
  • Measure it
  • Describe it
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42
Q

T/F in cats 50% of oral masses are benign and 50% malignant?

A

False - this is true for dogs but in cats its 90% malignant and 10% benign.

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43
Q

You are presented with a WHWT 6y/o MN whi has mesial pocket of 8mm - what you doing?

A

X-ray

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44
Q

You are presented with a mix breed brachy 2y/o missing its first premolar - what you doing?

A

x-ray

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45
Q

You are presented with a 10/yo FN lab with recurrent right facial swelling - what could be causing it and what you doing?

A

Tooth root abscess
Extract the tooth

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46
Q

You are presented with a DSH FN 12y/o who hase advanced tooth reabsorption - what you doing?

A

x-ray

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47
Q

(equine dentistry)

How can an overjet and overbite be decribed?

A

‘parrot mouth’ ‘overshot jaw’ ‘over bite’

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48
Q

Does overjet and over bite cause grazing issues?

A

Rarely

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49
Q

T?F overjet and overbite are not inheritable?

A

False they are

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50
Q

How might you go about treating an overbite?

A

Orthodontic treatment with biteplate or wire

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51
Q

What is a mandibular prognathism and how might else it be called?

A

It is shortened premaxilla or maxilla and can be called ‘sow mouth’ ‘undershor jaw ‘ or ‘underbite’

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52
Q

With a underbite what teeth do you get over growths with?

A

lower 06 and upper 11 overgrowths

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53
Q

where anatomically do retained deciduous incisors sit and what do they cause to permenant teeth?

A

They are usually displaced in front of permanent teeth so cause caudal displacement of permanent teeth

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54
Q

When removing lower incisors what nerve block should you use?

A

Left mental nerve block

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55
Q

When removing upper incisors what nerve block should you use?

A

infraorbital nerve block

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56
Q

What are supernumerary incisors?

A

They are additional to the 6 normal adult incisors, they have long reserve crowns

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57
Q

When is incisor trauma common?

A

In juveniles and following kicks/collisions

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58
Q

When faced with a complacated fracture what question should you ask yourself?

A

Is the pulp necrotic or still viable

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59
Q

What does endodontic treatment of fractured incisor allow?

A

The tooth to regrow

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60
Q

T/F Equine odontoclastic tooth resorption and hypercementosis is similar to Feline resorptive lesions?

A

True except the horse often lays down much more cementum subgingivally

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61
Q

T/F slope or slant mouth are mostly secondary to mild craniofacial abnormalities?

A

True - wrynose is most common, others have abnormalities of hard palate/facial bones and some have painful unilateral dental disorders.

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62
Q

What is Wry nose and what may it result in?

A

It is lateral deviation of nose to dysplastic side and may result in nasal occlusion

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63
Q

Up to how many months can Wry nose be surgically corrected?

A

up to 6months

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64
Q

What are abnormalities seen in canine teeth of horses?

A
  • Displaced
  • Incompletely erupted
  • Long? – Do not reduce
  • Calculus (“tartar”)
  • EOTRH / resorptive lesions
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65
Q

How would you deal with calculus on canines?

A

Break off with forceps

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66
Q

How would you deal with a canine resorption lesion?

A

Either extract tooth or just leave it in to be fully resorbed

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67
Q

What will lower wolf tooth cause and should they be extracted?

A

Yes they should be - they are likely to cause a bitting problemo

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68
Q

Describe the procedure for extracting a wolf tooth?

A

Sedate
Local Anaesthetic
Burgess Punch for Mucosa only
Slowly Elevate all Sides of Tooth
Lever against 06s last

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69
Q

What are the normal occlusal angles and what can the go up to?

A

10-15 degrees up to 35

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70
Q

What are the different developmental cheek teeth disorders?

A
  • Retained deciduous
  • Diastemata
  • Rostral positioning
  • Displacements
  • Supernumerary
  • Oligodontia
  • Maleruption
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71
Q

What are the different aquired cheek teeth disorders?

A
  • Sharp enamel points
  • Periodontal disease
  • Fractures
  • Tumours
  • Periapical infections
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72
Q

What are caps?

A

the remnants of deciduous teeth

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73
Q

When are caps normally shed?

A

During eruption of permenant teeth

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74
Q

What can retained caps cause?

A

Buccal/oral pain and may delap cheek teeth eruption and cause eruption cyts

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75
Q

What is a possible sequelae of diastema?

A

Food trapping decending periodonatl disease

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76
Q

In severe cases of diastema what can happen?

A
  • periapical abscessation or
  • oro-sinus fistula
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77
Q

What is the treatment protocol for diastema?

A
  • Removal of impacted food
  • Filling diastemata with impression material
  • Partial or Full widening of diastema
  • Reduction of excessive transverse ridges (ETR) opposite diastema
  • Dietary modification
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78
Q

What three things are needed when cleaning the diastema with right angles diastema forceps?

A
  • A well sedated horse
  • IV anti- imflammatories
  • Topical anaesthetics
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79
Q

What kind of substance can cause dramatic improvements in diastemas?

A

Firm substances between adjacent teeth

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80
Q

What is the downside to using firm substances over putty-like ones between teeth?

A

May cause severe buccal/Tongue trauma

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81
Q

What is distema widening useful for?

A

Valve conformation

82
Q

What type of cheek teeth displacement are more severe?

A

Developmental

83
Q

What teeth are usually effected by developmental displacement?

A

09 and 10s

84
Q

What teeth are usually effected by acquired displacement?

A

lower 10s and 11s

85
Q

What can dental displacements cause?

A

Overgrowths and peridontal disease

86
Q

How should you manage dental displacement in horses?

A

Treat the peridontal disease and remove overgrowths every 6 months if mild and if more severe extract full tooth and deep peridontal disease

87
Q

What are cinsequences of supernumeracy cheek teeth in horses?

A
  • Malocclusion, overgrowths and periodontal disease result
  • Treat Periodontal disease
  • Remove overgrowths
  • If severe periodontal disease -extract tooth
88
Q

What is oligodontia?

A

Absence of normal number of teeth

89
Q

What other defects can oligodontia be associated with?

A

defective enamel and ectodermal formation

90
Q

What does oligodontia result in?

A

Drifting from adjacent cheek teeth

91
Q

What is step mouth?

A

Step Mouth: A horse’s teeth have uneven heights, with one tooth being much taller than the rest, creating a “step.” This happens when a tooth is missing or not worn down properly.

92
Q

What is wave mouth?

A

Wave Mouth: A horse’s teeth form a wavy pattern, with some teeth being too tall and others too short. This makes chewing harder for the horse.

93
Q

What are cingulae?

A

large vertical ridges on maxillary cheek teeth

94
Q

What is the involvement of pulp in a simple dental fracture?

A

NON

95
Q

What is the pulp involvement of a complicated dental fracture?

A

The pulp is exposed

96
Q

What age of horse are fractures involving madibular cheek teeth most common in?

A

Young horses

97
Q

T/F Premature removal of fractured teeth is dangerous

A

true hehe

98
Q

What are Latrogenic dental fractures?

A

man made dental fractures

99
Q

What might latrogenic dental fractures be caused by?

A
  • During attempted tooth removal (extraction or repulsion)
  • During dental overgrowth (“hook”) removal
  • Use of inappropriate examination equipment (Swale’s gag)
  • More likely during procedures on inadequately restrained horses
100
Q

(Imaging of the GI Tract, Liver and Pancreas)

What are the pros and cons of radiology as a diagnostic tool for GI?

A
  • Pros = widely available. Good to visualise position, changes in size/diameter, gas/mineral opacities
  • Cons = loss of serosal detail can hinder interpretation, so multiple views are required. .
101
Q

What is used in contrast radiology?

A

Barium/iodine based contrast

102
Q

What is the most common diagnostic tool used in first opion practices to image GI?

A

Ultrasound

103
Q

Where is the liver generally contained?

A

Within the caudal ribs

104
Q

What shape is the liver on a lateral view radiograph and how should it appear?

A

Triangular shaped with sharp margins caudoventrally with an even, soft tissue opacity appearance.

105
Q

What is falciform fat?

A

Fat opacity tissue, ventral to liver on lateral views

106
Q

What presents if there is a true hepatomegaly?

A

Rounding or “blunting” of the caudal ventral liver margins.

107
Q

What is hepatomegaly?

A

An enlarge liver

108
Q

what is microhepatia

A

abnormally small liver

109
Q

Do you get enlarged or small liver with PSS or herniation?

A

Yes

110
Q

When ultrasounding a liver what should you look for and see?

A
  • Generally contained within the costal arch, with sharp margins
  • Architecture – parenchyma, portal veins (hyperechoic walls), hepatic veins
  • Gall bladder
111
Q
A
112
Q

When scanning the liver and its hyperechoic what do you see and what can this indicate?

A

Loss of clarity of portal vessels. Steroid hepatopathy (cushings, medication-related), Chronic hepatitis, Fatty liver, Fibrosis

113
Q

When scanning the liver and its hypoechoic, what do you see and what can this indicate?

A

Increased contract with portal vessels. acute inflammation, oedema, lymphoma, congestion

114
Q

What are vascular liver abnormalities?

A

Venous congestion with RSHF and PSS

115
Q

What animal is gall bladder sludge found on a US most important in, cats or dogs?

A

Cats as it indicates cholestasis or cholangitis

116
Q

What can cause loss of serosal detail on an US?

A
  • decreased fat
  • Increased soft tissue opacity in/around mesentery
  • Free fluid
  • Peritonitis
  • Carcinomatosis
117
Q

How long should you starve a patient for before a stomach ultrasound?

A

4hrs

118
Q

Describe a normal stomach us?

A

Cart-wheel appearence, often small and incidental amount of gas present that block visualistation of part of the gastric wall.

119
Q

What might be gastric lesions?

A
  • ulcers
  • masses
  • outflow obstruction
120
Q

What is the normal diameter of the canine SI on radiograph?

A

1 x height of L5 vertebral body

121
Q

What is the normal diameter of the feline SI on radiograph?

A

12mm

122
Q

Why cant we reliably assess Gi thickness on radiographs?

A

Due to the fluid/soft tissue content being the same opacity as the intestinal walls. The presence of said contents might give the impression that the walls are thickened when in reality they just contain normal fluid content.

123
Q

When there is a SI mechanical obstruction what would be seen?

A

Single or few dilated or thickened loops – compare with L5 (dogs); cats <12 mm wide

124
Q

Why might the illeus dilation be functional?

A

Peritonitis, GDV, Dysautonomia

125
Q

what do intestinal tumours look like on a radiograph?

A

Diffuse to mild thickening of intestinal diameter

126
Q

What is the gravel sign and what does it indicate

A

Collection of mineralised material immediately above partial, chronic GI obstruction and indicates chronic partial obstruction

127
Q

Where shoud you place the ltrasound probe to scan the duodenum?

A

On the right flank

128
Q

Where should you place the ultrasound probe to vie the jejunum?

A

mid abdomen

129
Q

Where can you locate the ileo-colic junction with your ultrasound probe?

A

right to mid abdoemn, medial to the right kidney

130
Q

what is Intussusception?

A

Where a segment of the intestine slides or “telescopes” into an adjacent part of the intestine. This causes obstruction of the bowel, cutting off blood supply to the affected part and leading to swelling, inflammation, and, potentially, tissue death.

131
Q

What indicates GI tract neoplasia on ultrasound?

A

Loss of wall layers
Markedly thickened walls
Irregular lumen
Lack of peristalsis
Focal vs Generalised
Continuity with adjacent GI tract

132
Q

What is corrugation of intestines?

A

“Scalloping” of the muscularis layer due to inflammation.

133
Q

How much should the colon typically measure on US?

A

2-3mm

134
Q

(GI Nematodes of cats and dogs)

What are the three main ascarids in cats and dogs?

A

Toxocara canis, toxocara cati and toxocara leonina

135
Q

What are the routes of infection of T.canis?

A

Orally (direct) - L3 in egg
Transplacental
Transmammary
Paratenic host

136
Q

What is the out come of infection of T.Canis when the dog is less than 3 months?

A

The adult worms develop in the small intestines resulting in adult worms producing eggs

137
Q

What is the outcome of infection of T.Canis in dogs 3-6months?

A

The larvae tend to arrest in tissues, so there are no adults.

138
Q

What are clinical signs a pup has been infected with T.Canis?

A

Pot bellied pups failing to thrive

139
Q

How should you treat T.Canis?

A

The principle is to prevent environmental contamination with eggs. Should start treatment before parasite lays eggs and treat bitch at the same time.

140
Q

What is the PPP for T.Canis?

A

16 days

141
Q

What season has the highest prevalence of T.Canis in the fox population?

A

Spring

142
Q

What is the PPP of T.Cati?

A

8 weeks

143
Q

Is there any trnasplacental infection with T.Cati?

A

No

144
Q

What route of infection is most important with T.Cati?

A

Transmammary

145
Q

What appearance does the T.Cati have?

A

Arrowheaded

146
Q

T/F you can identify between T.Cati and T.Canis eggs?

A

NO false you cannot

147
Q

What is the PPP of T.Leonina?

A

11 weeks

148
Q

How can T.Leonina be distinguished between T.Canis?

A

Based of shell as it has a smooth shell

149
Q

What are the 4 main hookworms in cats and dogs

A

Anycylostoma caninum -dog
A. braziliense -dog and cat
A. tubaeforme -cat
Uncinaria stencephala -dog, cat and fox (in UK)

150
Q

Describe what a hookworm looks like?

A

1-3cm, stout, hooked head

151
Q

Does a Anycylostoma caninum hookworm have aa direct or indirect life cycle?

A

Direct

152
Q

What what of infection is important for Anycylostoma caninum hookworms in pups?

A

Transmammary as bitch can infect three consecutive litters

153
Q

Can Anycylostoma caninum hookeworm larvae arrest?

A

Yes, larvae that migrate via the lungs can arrest as L3 in skeletal muscle and can emergy from arrest years after infection when immune-compromised or stressed.

154
Q

T/F Anycylostoma caninum hookworms are blood suckers?

A

True the hookworm head is buried i the mucosa and actively ingests blood and other tissues.

155
Q

Anycylostoma caninum Hookworms degrade heamoglobin, how?

A

They produce lytic factors, anticoagulants and various proteases

156
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of a Anycylostoma caninum hookworm

A

Hookworm disease is a simple haemorrhage

157
Q

What are clinical signs of a young animal infected by Anycylostoma caninum hookworms? and how might you treat the symptoms?

A

Severe acute haemorrhagic anaemia (maybe bloody diarrhoea)
- Transfusion/ iron supplements may be required

158
Q

What are clinical signs of a older animal infected by Anycylostoma caninum hookworms?

A
  • Chronic haemorrhagic anaemia
  • Respiratory signs due to larval damage
  • Multiple infections -HS skin reaction -dermatitis
159
Q

what are the two sources of infection of Anycylostoma caninum hookworms?

A

Transmammary
percutaneous/Oral from enviro

160
Q

How can you control the spread of hookworms?

A

Wormed every three months
high dose for pregnant bitch
Clean, dry bedding

161
Q

Is there still transmammary infection in Uncinaria Stenocephala hookworms?

A

no its an oral infection

162
Q

(Anthelmintics – factors influencing use in companion animals)

What is the mechinism of action of benzimidazoles?

A

Binds helminth tubulin and prevents microtubules formation- interferes with helminth metabolism, prevents formation of mitotic spindle
Tubules absent 6-24 hours
Starves parasite- affects microtubules which affects glucose uptake

163
Q

Why does benimidazoles not effect mammalian cells?

A

The difference in structure of tubulin between mammalian and helminths

164
Q

What is the pharmacokenetics of Benzimidazoles

A

Core structure is 1,2-diaminobenzene which has Limited solubility

165
Q

What kind of administration do Benzimidazoles use?

A

Oral admin only

166
Q

What are Benzimidazoles distribuation like?

A

Limited abdorption from GIT
Plasma levels typically less than 1% oral dose

167
Q

What can improve the efficacy of benzimidazoles?

A

If gut transit time is slowed

168
Q

How are Benzimidazoles metabolised?

A

Reduction, oxidation then in ruminants cyclization

169
Q

What is the mechanism of action of macrocytic lactones?

A

stimulate glutamate-gated chloride channels in invertebrate nerve and muscle cells
Chloride influx causes hyperpolarisation of the post synaptic cells
Interferes with neurotransmission
Results in flaccid paralysis which allows them to be expelled in the faeces

170
Q

Describe the pharmacokenetics of macrocytic lactones

A

Large lipophillic compounds that have long half life, long period of efficacy

171
Q

Whats the best route for ivermectin?

A

SC

172
Q

What does ivermectin bind too?

A

Binds to albumin and lipoproteins

173
Q

Does ivermectin have a fast or slow elimination?

A

slow

174
Q

Is selamectin absorbed slow or fast after administration?

A

Rapidly

175
Q

What formulations does mibemycin oxime come in?

A

chewable tablets for cats and dogs

176
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Tetrahydropyrimidines?

A

They stimulate nicotinic acetylcholine receptors and have higher affinity for the parasitic ones so paralyses worm

177
Q

Describe the pharmacokinetics of tetrahydropyrimidines

A

Not well absorbed from GIT so very effective against GI luminal parasites.
Poor tissue penetration though so poor efficacy against larval stages in tissue
Duration of exposure is important and should give with feed

178
Q

What is the mechanism of action of praziquantel?

A

Tetanic contraction of parasite musculature

179
Q

Describe the pharmacokinetics of praziquantel

A

Rapidly absorbed and widely distributed

180
Q

What is the first pass metabolism of praziquantel?

A

70%

181
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cyclooctadepsipeptides?

A

They inhibit acetylcholine-elicited muscle contraction which ultimately causes paralysis/death of parasites

182
Q

Describe the pharmacokinetics of Cyclooctadesipeptides

A

Extensively distributed as very lipid soluble.

183
Q

(Pathology of bacterial infections and inflammatory conditions in the GI system)

What is the Function of the GI system?

A

Transit, digest and absorption of nutrients, electrolytes and fluids
Prevents entry of pathogens and toxins
Immune regulation

184
Q

What are the 5 cell types found in the intestine?

A
  • Goblet cells
  • M cells
  • Enterocytes
    -Paneath cells
  • neuroendocrine cells
185
Q

What are the functions of the 5 different cells?

A
  • Goblet cells - mucus layer production
  • M cells - microorganism, particles and macromolecules
  • Enterocytes - absorption
    -Paneath cells - Antimicrobial protein/peptides
  • neuroendocrine cells - regulate intestinal motility, secreetions, visceral sensations and appetite
186
Q

Describe the mechanism of diarrhoea induced via bacterial toxins?

A

There is a net increase in electrolytes and water into the lumen and passing through the small intestine to the colon

187
Q

What are other factors stimulating secretory diarrhoea?

A
  • Prostaglandins and other arachidonic acid-derived inflammatory mediators
  • Histamine, kinins, cytokines
188
Q

What 3 things may increase multiplication of bacteria?

A
  • Increased entry of bacteria
  • Abnormalities of intestithe nal loop
  • Reduced clearance of bacteria
189
Q

What can bacterial overgrowth lead to?

A
  • Bile salt deconjunction leading to deficiency in bile salts
  • Toxins which cause intestinal epithelial cell injury
  • Consumption of nutrients
190
Q

What do all three things caused by bacterial overgrowth cause?

A

Malabsorption

191
Q

What are consequences of diarrhoea?

A
  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte depletion and imbalance
  • Metabolic acidosis
192
Q

What are causal agents of gastroenteritis and diarrhoea in domestic animals?

A
  • viruses
  • bacteria
  • Fungi/yeast
  • Parasites
  • Non-infectious causes like NSAIDs
193
Q

What are issues that interfere with diagnosis of diarrhoea?

A
  • Causal agents can be transiently present
  • Causal agents produce lesions such as villus atrophy easily obscured by autolysis
194
Q

How can you overcome these obsticules interfering with diagnosis?

A
  • Evaluate one or more untreated animals reprentative of the herd problems. Preferably in the eary phase of the disease.
195
Q

What are effects of bacterial virulance factors

A
  • Production of bacterial toxins that kill phagocytes
  • Synthesis of bacterial proteins that prevent phagocytosis by blocking the interaction of opsonins with phagosomes
  • Bacterial capsule block contact with the microbe which prevents phagocytosis
  • Inhibition of phagolysosome fusion prevents microbial killing
  • Facilitate escape of the microbe into the cytoplasm before the microbe is killed in the phagolysosomes
  • Production of bacterial antioxidants that block killing in phagolysosomes
196
Q

What are adhesins?

A

They attach to receptor on cell membranes or on substances such as mucus, mucins or extracellular matrix (ECM) proteins. They also facilitite entry into cell by endocytosis/Phagocytosis.

197
Q

What are invasins?

A

Spread into and through cells mem. cells or tissues via ligand-receptor interactions, cell dysfunction and lysis, or breakdown of ECM.

198
Q

What are endotoxins?

A

Stimulate macrophage and endothelial cells to secrete proinflammatory cytokines and nitric oxide causing cell dysfunction and lysis.

199
Q

What are exotocins?

A

They inhibit biochemical pathways within in a cell

200
Q

What are hyaluronidases?

A

They breakdown hyaluronic acid in ECM of mucosa, skin, CT, and nervous tissue.

201
Q

What do collangenases break down?

A

Break down collagen fibers of ECM, especially in muscle tissue.

202
Q
A

BVMS 3 (11 decks)

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