Module 1 and 2 Learning Objectives Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different divisions of the nervous system?

A

central and peripheral nervous systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is part of the CNS?

A
  • brain
  • spinal cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is part of the PNS?

A
  • peripheral nerves
  • cranial nerves
  • spinal nerves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the role somatic nervous system?

A
  • innervates body wall and voluntary muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the role of the autonomic nervous system?

A
  • innervate smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A
  • parasympathetic (rest and digest)
  • sympathetic (fight or flight)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 5 major subdivisions of the central nervous system?

A
  • cerebral hemispheres (telencephalon)
  • diencephalon
  • cerebellum
  • brainstem
  • spinal cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the meninges of the CNS?

A
  • dura mater
  • arachnoid mater
  • pia mater
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the name for the space between the arachnoid mater and its significance?

A
  • subarachnoid space
  • contains cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)
  • arachnoid trabecular anchor arachnoid to pia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the four ventricles of the brain and what do they do?

A
  • lateral ventricles (2)
  • 3rd ventricle
  • 4th ventricle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the pathway of CSF through the ventricles?

A

lateral ventricles > interventricular foramen > 3rd ventricle > cerebral aqueduct > 4th ventricle > central canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What makes up gray matter?

A
  • cell bodies and dendrites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What makes up white matter?

A
  • axons and myelin sheath
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are two important white matter areas in the cerebrum?

A
  • corpus callosum
  • internal capsule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A
  • largest bundle of commissural fibers that connect the right and left hemispheres of the brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the internal capsule of the brain?

A
  • fiber projections that descend from brain to brainstem and spinal cord
  • also ascend from lower centers to cerebral cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a tract?

A
  • collection of axons with same origin, termination, and function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a commissure?

A
  • axons that cross midline from one area of CNS equivalent area of the other on the opposite side
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a decussation?

A
  • similar to commissure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the acronym, SAME DAVE stand for?

A
  • sensory, afferent
  • motor, efferent
  • dorsal, afferent
  • ventral efferent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the difference between a sulcus and gyrus?

A
  • sulcus = depression/valley
  • gyrus = ridge/mountain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is neuralation?

A
  • when the neural tube closes the 4th week of embryo development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is significant about the telencephalon?

A
  • experiences tremendous growth
  • swells, and rotates
  • C shaped
  • derives cerebral hemispheres
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the role of convolutions on the brain?

A
  • increase surface area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the clinical significance of Spina Bifida?

A
  • defective closure of caudal neural tube
  • spinal cord forms outside of vertebral column, causing sac to appear on infants back
  • spinal cord is susceptible to injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the segmental levels of the spinal cord?

A
  • cervical = 8
  • thoracic = 12
  • lumbar = 5
  • sacral = 5
  • coccygeal = 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where does the spinal cord terminate and what is the structure at the termination?

A
  • L1/2 vertebrae
  • conus medullaris
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the longitudinal furrows of the spinal cord?

A
  • posterior/dorsal median sulcus
  • anterior/ventral median fissure
  • dorsolateral sulcus
  • ventrolateral sulcus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the enlargements of the spinal cord?

A
  • cervical enlargement = C4-T1
    ~ brachial plexus
  • lumbosacral enlargement = L2 = S3
    ~ lumbar and sacral plexus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What makes up paired spinal nerves?

A
  • dorsal root and dorsal root ganglion
  • ventral root
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the internal organization of the spinal cord and its significance of size?

A
  • butterfly or H shaped
  • size of gray matter related to richness of peripheral nerves (larger if more peripheral nerves come from here)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a myotome and dermatome?

A
  • myotome: single peripheral nerve segment innervating a group of muscles
  • dermatome: single spinal level innervating section of skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does the brainstem act as a conduit?

A
  • ascending tracts pass through to thalamus or cerebellum
  • descending tracts pass through to spinal cord or cerebellum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the reticular formation of the brainstem?

A
  • integrates functions for respiration, consciousness, complex motor patterns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the cranial nerves associated with the medulla, pons, and midbrain?

A
  • medulla: IX, X, XI, XII
  • pons: V, VI, VII, VIII
  • midbrain: III, IV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How can you remember which cranial nerves are associated with the structures of the brain?

A

5, 6, 7 ,8 who do we appreciate?

Pons!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How does the cerebellum connect to the cerebrum and what are its 3 parts?

A
  • connected by paired peduncles (superior, middle, inferior)
  • parts: 2 cerebellar hemispheres and vermis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How are the two cerebral hemispheres separated?

A
  • deep longitudinal fissure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the regions of the corpus callosum?

A
  • rostrum
  • genu
  • body
  • splenium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a commisurotomy?

A
  • separation of cerebral hemispheres by cutting the corpus callosum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the lobes of the cerebral hemispheres?

A
  • frontal
  • parietal
  • temporal
  • occipital
  • limbic (system) [parts of fontal parietal, and temporal lobes]
42
Q

What are the major sulci that can be seen in the lateral view of the brain?

A
  • lateral sulcus
  • central sulcus
43
Q

What are the major structures of the hemisected view of the brain?

A
  • cingulate sulcus
  • cingulate gyrus
  • parahippocampal gyrus
  • hippocampus
  • parieto-occipitaq sulcus
  • calarine sulcus
44
Q

What is the section of the brain you can see if you separate the frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes?

45
Q

What are the white matter structures of the cerebral hemispheres?

A
  • corona radiata
  • internal capsule
46
Q

What are neurons and can they be replaced?

A
  • communication unit of the nervous system
  • rely on electricity with chemical synapses
  • 100 billion at birth, cannot be replaced
47
Q

What are neuroglial cells?

A
  • cells that rely on chemical interactions
  • play role in support, injury, and disease in the nervous system
48
Q

What are the cells of the nervous system?

A
  • neurons
  • neuroglial cells
49
Q

What is the unique property of neuroglial cells?

A
  • retain mitotic properties to allow for the growth of new glial cells
50
Q

What are the neuroglial cells of the CNS?

A
  • astrocytes
  • oligodendrocytes
  • microglia
  • ependymal cells
51
Q

What are the characteristics of astrocytes?

A
  • largest, most elaborate
  • star shaped
  • involved in the blood brain barrier (supplying nutrients to neurons)
  • supports synaptic function
52
Q

What are the characteristics of oligodendrocytes?

A
  • formation and maintenance of myelin sheath
  • single oligodendrocyte can myelinate segments of 7-70 axons
  • abundant in white matter
53
Q

What are the characteristics of microglia?

A
  • 10 to 20% of all glial cells
  • resemble macrophages
  • throughout CNS
  • abundant in gray matter
  • defense against infection
54
Q

What are the characteristics of ependymal cells?

A
  • from choroid plexus
  • line central canal and ventricular system
55
Q

What are the neuroglial cells of the PNS?

A
  • Schwann cells
  • satellite cells
56
Q

What are the characteristics of Schwann cells?

A
  • synonymous to oligodendrocytes
  • abundant
  • form myelin sheath of PNS
57
Q

What are the characteristics of satellite cells?

A
  • surround cells bodies in PNS
  • play role in maintaining metabolism of ganglion cells
58
Q

What are the morphology;ogical classifications of neurons?

A
  • unipolar/pseudounipolar
  • bipolar
  • multipolar
59
Q

What are the characteristics of pseudopolar neurons?

A
  • single process extending from soma
  • found in sensory spinal nerves and some cranial nerves
60
Q

What are the characteristics of bipolar neurons?

A
  • two processes extending from soma
  • cells found in retina and CN I and CN VIII
61
Q

What are the characteristics of multipolar neurons?

A
  • 3 or more processes extending from soma
  • throughout entire nervous system
62
Q

What are the challenges surrounding neurons?

A
  • high energy demand
  • must travel great distance
63
Q

What are the major anatomical structures of a neuron?

A
  • soma (body)
  • axon
  • dendrites
64
Q

What is the role of the soma?

A
  • contains organelles
  • metabolic center
  • as long as soma is intact, neuron may have chance for axonal regeneration
65
Q

What is the role of organelles?

A
  • manufacture and transport cell components
  • support high metabolic rate
    travel along axon to/from cell body
66
Q

What is the role of rough ER?

A
  • principal protein synthesizing structure
67
Q

What is the role of ribosomes?

A
  • assemble amino acids into proteins
68
Q

What is the role of the Golgi complex?

A
  • hub of traffic
69
Q

What is the role of mitochondria?

A
  • powerhouse of cell, ATP synthesis
70
Q

What are the names of axons in the CNS and PNS?

A
  • tracts/pathways: CNS
  • spinal/cranial nerves: PNS
71
Q

What are the roles of the different types of afferent axons?

A
  • 1A: location of body in space, high speed
  • A-beta: touch, lower speed
  • A-delta: fast tissue damage
  • C: slow tissue damage
72
Q

What is key to axonal regeneration?

A
  • depends on extent of damage
  • soma must be intact
  • myelin and connective tissue protect
  • favorable if no damage to connective tissue and axon
73
Q

What are the classes of of peripheral nerve injury?

A
  • neuropraxia (I)
  • axonotemsis (II)
  • neurotmesis (III)
74
Q

What are the characteristics of neuropraxia?

A
  • mildest, most common
  • compression or local ischemia
  • conduction proximal + distal of injury
  • relieved if compression relieved
  • days to weeks recovery
75
Q

What are the characteristics of axonotmesis?

A
  • axon damage, still connective tissue
  • conduction lost distally
  • myelin degeneration distally (Wallerian Degeneration)
  • severe compression or crush
  • may regenerate
  • 1 mm/day if relieved
76
Q

What are the characteristics of neurotmesis?

A
  • transection of axon
  • cut or gunshot wound
  • axonal sprouting
  • loss of connective tissue and axon
77
Q

What is resting membrane potential?

78
Q

What is a graded potential?

A
  • small flux in potential energy that does not result in a action potential
79
Q

What is a spatial summation?

A

multiple neurons adding to graded potential, may result in action potential if threshold met

80
Q

What is temporal summation?

A
  • single neuron repeatedly firing
81
Q

What are the stages of action potential?

A
  1. threshold reached
  2. rising phase (depolarizing)
  3. overshoot phase (membrane potential reverses)
  4. falling phase (repolarization)
  5. undershoot phase (membrane hyper polarizes)
  6. repolarization
82
Q

What is an absolute refractory period?

A
  • time directly after repolarization
  • determined by voltage gated Na channel
83
Q

What is a relative refractory period?

A

towards state of potential returning to normal potential (-65 mV)
- determined by electrochemical state of neuron

84
Q

What is a synapse and what happens at this junction?

A
  • connection between two neurons
  • action potential reaches presynaptic terminal
  • voltage gated calcium channels open
  • calcium activates motor proteins to fuse to vesicles to membrane and release neurotransmitters
  • neurotransmitter binds to receptor and sodium can enter post synaptic neuron
85
Q

What is postsynaptic potential?

A
  • changes in postsynaptic neuron membrane potential caused by ion channels interacting with neurotransmitter from the presynaptic neuron (graded potential)
86
Q

What is the difference between excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials?

A
  • excitatory = depolarizing
  • inhibitory = hyper polarizing
87
Q

What is receptor potential?

A
  • graded response in that the number of channels that open is proportional to magnitude of the stimulus
  • decays in short distance, non-propagated
88
Q

What are the three kinds of neurotransmitters?

A
  • amino acids
  • amines
  • peptides
89
Q

What are amino acids?

A
  • small, synthesized, and packaged in synaptic vesicles
90
Q

What are amines?

A
  • small, synthesized, and packaged in synaptic vesicles
91
Q

What are peptides?

A
  • large, synthesized and packed in dense - core vesicles
92
Q

What are the amino acid neurotransmitters?

A
  • glycine: inhibitory
  • glutamate: excitatory
  • aspartate: excitatory
  • gamma: amino butyric acid (GABA): inhibitory
93
Q

What are the amine neurotransmitters?

A
  • acetylcholine
  • dopamine
  • norepinephrine
  • epinephrine
  • serotonin
  • histamine
94
Q

What are some peptide neurotransmitters?

A
  • dynorphin
  • enkephalin
  • substance P
95
Q

Where are neurotransmitters produced?

A
  • small: produced locally in axon terminal
  • large: must be synthesized and packaged in cell body
96
Q

What is the difference between convergence and divergence?

A
  • convergence: according to postsynaptic neuron
  • divergence: according to presynaptic neuron
97
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A
  • attack on oligodendrocytes of myelin sheath of CNS
98
Q

What is glioblastoma?

A
  • cancer attacks astrocytes
  • mitotic property becomes a problem
99
Q

What is acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy?

A
  • motor and somatosensory nerves
  • decrease amplitude of action potential
100
Q

What is diabetic neuropathy?

A
  • high blood pressure causing capillaries to be damaged, nerves do not get nutrition, axonal degeneration
101
Q

What happens when humeral fracture results in axonotmesis of radial nerve?

A
  • results in shoulder, wrist, and elbow extension weakness
102
Q

What does botox do to a nerve?

A
  • stops Ash release to initiate muscle contraction